SSC CPO Tier I 2025 Mock Test 1

Aptitude

1.There are two identical cakes. Ram gets 37.5% of the first cake and 56.25% of the second cake. Shyam orders a full cake for himself. Find the value of (Difference in the amount of cake Shyam and Ram have)/(Weight of one cake).

A. 1/16

B. 1/8

C. 3/16

D. 1/4

Solutions

Let one cake be considered 1 unit

Share of Ram from first cake = 37.5/100 = 3/8

Share of Ram from second cake = 56.25/100 = 9/16

Total units of cake Ram has = 3/8 + 9/16 = 15/16

Total units of cake Shyam has = 1

The difference in the amount of cake Shyam and Ram have = 1 – 15/16 = 1/16

(Difference in the amount of cake Shyam and Ram have)/(Weight of one cake) = (1/16)/1

⇒ 1/16

2. A frustum of a cone has a base radius of 1.5cm and a height of 7cm. The radius of the top of the frustum is 0.5cm. Find the volume of the frustum.

A. 11.11cm³

B. 23.83cm³

C. 27.85cm³

D. 37.10cm³

Solutions

The volume of the frustum of the cone = (1/3)πH(r² + r’² + r × r’)

Where H is the height, r and r’ are the radius at the base and top respectively.

⇒ (1/3)πH(r² + r’² + r × r’)

⇒ (1/3) × (22/7) × (7) × ((1.5)² + (0.5)² + 1.5 × 0.5)

⇒ (22/3) × (2.25 + 0.25 + 0.75)

⇒ 23.83 cm³

3. What is the value of the following expression?

sec²(x/2)/{(1 – cos x)(1 + cot²x)}

A. cos²x

B. sin x

C. 1

D. 2

Solutions

sec²(x/2)/{(1 – cos x)(1 + cot²x)}

Multiply (1 + cos x) in the numerator and denominator

{sec²(x/2)(1 + cos x)}/{(1 + cos x)(1 – cos x)(1 + cot² x)}

1 + cot²x = cosec²x

1 + cos x = 2 cos²(x/2)

⇒ {2sec²(x/2) cos²(x/2)}/{(1 – cos²x) cosec²x}

⇒ 2/{sin²x.cosec²x} [∵ sec A.cos A = 1]

⇒ 2 [∵ sin A.cosec A = 1]

4. If x + 1/x = √2, find the value of x⁷² + x⁶⁸ + x⁶⁴ + x⁶⁰.

A. -8

B. 4096

C. 2

D. 0

Solutions

⇒ x + 1/x = √2

Squaring both sides,

⇒ x² + 1/x² + 2 = 2

⇒ x² + 1/x² = 0

⇒ x² = -1/x²

⇒ x⁴ = -1

⇒ x⁷² + x⁶⁸ + x⁶⁴ + x⁶⁰

⇒ (x⁴)¹⁸ + (x⁴)¹⁷ + (x⁴)¹⁶ + (x⁴)¹⁵

⇒ 1 – 1 + 1 – 1

⇒ 0

5. Bar graph in given questions give discount percentage and profit percentage on 4 items A, B, C and D. Based on the information in the graph, answer the following question.

Sum of profit percent of all articles is what percent of sum of discount percent of all articles.

A. 74.21%

B. 69.45%

C. 72.18%

D. 78.68%

Solutions

Sum of profit percent = 27.5 + 20 + 19 + 4 = 70.5

Sum of discount percent = 25 + 20 + 15 + 35 = 95

Required percentage = (70.5/95) × 100 = 74.21%

6. Two trains start at the same time from two stations and proceed towards each other at speeds of 105km/h and 85 km/h, respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 170 km more than the other. What is the distance (in km) between these two stations?

A. 1615

B. 1735

C. 1715

D. 1835

Solutions

Let the time of travelling be ‘t’ hours

Distance travelled by train with speed 105 m/h = 105 × t = 105t

Distance travelled by train with speed 85 m/h = 85 × t = 85t

According to the question

The difference in distance travelled by two trains = 170 km

105 × t – 85 × t = 170

20t = 170

t = 8.5 hours

Distance between stations = (105 + 85) × 8.5 = 1615 km

7. If a nine-digit number 985x3678y is divisible by 72, then the value of (4x – 3y) is:

A. 3

B. 5

C. 6

D. 4

Solutions

Last 3 digits 78y must be divisible by 8:

⇒ Then the possible value of y is 4

For divisibility by 9:

⇒ 9 + 8 + 5 + x + 3 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 4 must be divisible by 9

⇒ 50 + x must be divisible by 9

⇒ Possible value of x is 4

Hence, (4x – 3y) = 4 × 4 – 3 × 4 = 16 – 12 = 4

8. A rectangular carpet has area 162.5 m² and the perimeter is 70 meters. Then find the length of diagonal of the carpet.

A. 35 meters

B. 33 meters

C. 30 meters

D. 25.5 meters

Solutions

Given,

2 (l + b) = 70 m

So, (l + b) = 35 m

(l × b) = 162.5 m²

Diagonal length of rectangle = √(l² + b²)

= √ [(l + b)²– 2lb]

= √ [(35)²– 2(162.5)]

= √ [1225 – 325]

= √ [900]

= 30 meters

Hence, the length of the diagonal of the rectangular carpet is 30 meters.

9. In a bakery shop, the cake is available in two different flavors black forest and butter scotch. On Monday, the ratio of Black Forest to Butterscotch is 7 : 11. If on Tuesday the store sells 6 more Black Forest as well as Butterscotch then, the ratio changes to 5 : 7. Find the sales of Black Forest on Tuesday.

A. 12

B. 20

C. 15

D. 25

Solutions

The ratio of Black forest to Butter scotch on Monday = 7 : 11

On Tuesday 6 more Black forest and Butter scotch sell ratio become 5 : 7

Now,

⇒ (7x + 6)/(11x + 6) = 5 : 7

⇒ 7(7x + 6) = 5(11x + 6)

⇒ 49x + 42 = 55x + 30

⇒ 6x = 12

⇒ x = 2

Sell of Black forest on Tuesday = (7x + 6) = (7 × 2 + 6) = (14 + 6) = 20

10. What is the rate of interest if the simple interest earned on a certain sum for the 3rd year is Rs. 1,750 and compound interest earned for 2 years is Rs. 3622.5?

A. 8

B. 9

C. 10

D. 7

Solutions

SI for 3rd year = SI for 1st year = Rs 1750

CI for 2nd year = 3622.5 – 1750 = Rs 1872.5

Rate of interest = (1872.5 – 1750/1750) × 100 = 7%

11. The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 390 and 13, respectively, and the ratio of the two numbers is 6 : 5. Find the smallest number.

A. 13

B. 65

C. 78

D. 30

Solutions

The product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

The ratio of numbers 6 : 5

LCM = 390

HCF = 13

Let the numbers be 6x and 5x

then, 6x × 5x = 390 × 13

⇒ 30x² = 390 × 13

⇒ x² = 13 × 13

⇒ x = 13

So, the smallest number would be 5x = 5 × 13 = 65

12. Ajay and Vijay started a business by investing in a ratio 5 : 9. Ajay invested the amount for the whole year while Vijay invested the amount for half an year. Find the ratio in which profit is divided between them.

A. 5 : 7

B. 17 : 13

C. 10 : 9

D. 11 : 7

Solutions

Let the capital of Ajay (C1) = 5x

And the capital of Vijay (C2) = 9x

Time period spend by Ajay (T1) = 12 months

Let, time period spend by Vijay (T2) = 6 months

The ratio in which profit is divided between them is 10 : 9

13. The pie chart given in the question gives a percentage of players from 5 different countries participating in 5 countries’ international badminton championships. The total number of players in all countries is 750. Players can play as singles, or doubles (men, women, and mixed). A player will make a team with a player of his/her country only.

From Singapore, 45% of the players are female. 35% of the total players play singles out of which only 40 are women. All the remaining female players will make a team with male players who play doubles (if numerically possible). Remaining players will make men’s double or women’s double team. Number of such teams (men’s double or women’s double) is?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 16

D. 20

Solutions

Number of players from Singapore = 32% of 750 = 240

Female players from Singapore = 45% of 240 = 108

Male players = 240 – 108 = 132

Singles players = 35% of 240 = 84

Female singles players = 40

Female doubles player = 108 – 40 = 68

Male singles players = 84 – 40 = 44

Male doubles players = 132 – 44 = 88

Now 68 females will make the team with 68 males.

Remaining male players = 88 – 68 = 20

Number of mens double team = 20/2 = 10

14. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60º and the foot of the ladder is 16.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:

A. 30.4 m

B. 32 m

C. 33.2 m

D. 35.7 m

Solutions

cos A = base/hypotenuse .

Consider the figure PR represents the ladder and RQ represents the wall.

⇒ cos 60° = PQ/PR

⇒ 1/2 = 16.6/PR

PR = 33.2 m

15. The speed of a boat going upstream from point A is 10 kmph. It reaches a bridge and takes a U-turn towards A at the speed of 15 kmph. The time taken for the boat in return journey is 1 hour less than the upstream journey. Calculate the Distance from point A to the bridge.

A. 50 km

B. 30 km

C. 20 km

D. 25 km

Solutions

Speed of the boat upstream = 10 kmph

Speed of the boat downstream = 15 kmph

D/10 – D/15 = 1

⇒ D(1/10 – 1/15) = 1

⇒ D(1/30) = 1

⇒ D = 30 km

16. The table given below shows the no. of persons visited a park in 7 days of a week. Study the following table carefully and give the answer.

DAYS	MALE	FEMALE	CHILD
MONDAY	11000	9000	2000
TUESDAY	7500	3500	3500
WEDNESDAY	9000	6000	1000
THURSDAY	5000	4000	1000
FRIDAY	8000	1000	5000
SATURDAY	15000	18000	10000
SUNDAY	18000	24000	18000

Find the ratio between the no. of male visited in park on monday & sunday together to the no. of females visited in park on thursday & saturday together?

A. 18 : 23

B. 29 : 22

C. 21 : 19

D. 12 : 29

Solutions

No. of males visited in park on Monday & Sunday together = 11000 + 18000 = 29000

No. of females visited in park on Thursday & Saturday together = 4000 + 18000 = 22000

⇒ Required ratio = 29000 : 22000 = 29 : 22

17. The three sides of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 9 and its perimeter is 147 m. Find the area of triangle.

A. 769.34 m²

B. 853.20 m²

C. 799.16 m²

D. 813.7 m²

Solutions

Let the common ratio be x.

The sides of the triangle are 5x, 7x and 9x respectively.

Perimeter of the triangle = Sum of all the sides

According to question,

⇒ 5x + 7x + 9x = 147

⇒ 21x = 147

⇒ x = 7

Thus, sides of triangle, 5x = 5(7) = 35 m, 7x = 7(7) = 49 m, 9x = 9(7) = 63 m

Area of the triangle when three sides are given = √[s(s – a)(s – b)(s – c)], where s = semi-perimeter = (a + b + c)/2

Semi-perimeter = (35 + 49 + 63)/2 = 147/2 = 73.5

Area of the required triangle = √[73.5(73.5 – 35)(73.5 – 49)(73.5 – 63)] = √[73.5(38.5)(24.5)(10.5)] = √(727953.1875) = 853.20 m²

18. A, B and C who can complete a piece of work in 12 days, 16 days and 12 days respectively come together to complete a work. A leaves 3 days before the work completes whereas B leaves 2 days before the work completes. What is the time taken to complete the work?

A. 5 days

B. 6 days

C. 7 days

D. 8 days

Solutions

Let the total time taken to complete the work be t days

A works for (t – 3) days

B works for (t – 2) days

C works for t days

Total amount of work = (t – 3)/12 + (t – 2)/16 + t/12

⇒ 1 = t/12 + t/16 + t/12 – 3/8

⇒ 11/8 = (4t + 3t + 4t) /48

⇒ 66 = 11t

⇒ t = 6 days

19. Bar graph in given questions give discount percentage and profit percentage on 4 items A, B, C and D. Based on the information in the graph, answer the following question.

Cost price of C is 60% of cost price of A. Sum of cost price of A and C is Rs 2440. Find the Selling price of A. (in Rs.)

A. 1936.875

B. 1944.375

C. 1926.25

D. 1952.625

Solutions

Let Cost price of A = 5x

Cost price of C = 60% of 5x = 3x

⇒ 5x + 3x = 2440

⇒ 8x = 2440

⇒ x = 305

Cost price of A = 5x = Rs 1525

Selling price of A = (100 + 27.5)% of 1525 = Rs 1944.375

20. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

(2.5 of 6/5) + (3.2 of 1/8) × (34.3 of 3/7) = ?

A. 8.88

B. 7.56

C. 5.15

D. 8.32

Solutions

⇒ (2.5 of 6/5) + (3.2 of 1/8) × (34.3 of 3/7) = ?

⇒ (2.5 × 6/5) + (3.2 × 1/8) × (34.3 × 3/7) = ?

⇒ (0.5 × 6) + (0.4 × 1) × (4.9 × 3) = ?

⇒ 3 + 0.4 × 14.7 = ?

⇒ 3 + 5.88 = ?

⇒ ? = 8.88

21. What is the value of the following expression?

{1 – (sin²31°/sin² 59°)} / {sin² 32° + sin² 58° + (cos² 59°/cos²31°)}

A. 1

B. sin 31°

C. cos 31°

D. cos 62°

Solutions

sin² 59° = sin2 (90° – 31°) = cos2 31°

sin²58° = sin² (90° – 32°) = cos² 32°

cos² 59° = cos² (90° – 31°) = sin² 31°

∴ {1 – (sin² 31°/sin² 59°)} / {sin² 32° + sin² 58° + (cos² 59°/cos²31°)}

= {1 – (sin²31°/cos² 31°)}/ {sin² 32° + cos2 32° + (sin²31°/cos² 31°)}

⇒ {1 – tan² 31°}/{1 + tan² 31°}

[∵ sin x/ cosx = tan x and sin² x + cos² x = 1]

⇒ cos (2 × 31) = cos 62°

[∵ cos ²x = (1 – tan² x) / (1 + tan² x)]

22. Three friends decided to run to the school gate. Speed of A : B : C are 5 : 4 : 6. If the distance between the starting point and the school gate is 1500 m and C beats A by 5 minutes, then find the time taken by B to complete the race.

A. 40 minutes 20 seconds

B. 35 minutes

C. 37 minutes 30 seconds

D. 45 minutes

Solutions

Let the speed of A, B, and C be 5x, 4x, and 6x respectively.

Time difference = 1500/5x – 1500/6x

⇒ 5 = 1500(1/5x – 1/6x)

⇒ 1/300 = (6 – 5)/30x

⇒ x = 10

Speed of B = 4(10) = 40 m/min

Time taken by B = 1500/40

⇒ 37.5 minutes or 37 minutes 30 seconds

23. A dishonest shopkeeper uses a weight of 500 g instead of 580 g and sells the articles at the cost price. What is the profit percentage?

A. 14%

B. 18%

C. 20%

D. 16%

Solutions

Let CP of 1 g be Rs. 1

While selling he uses 500 g instead of 580 g

Profit = (SP – CP) = (580 – 500) = 80

∴ CP = 500 and, SP = 580

∴ Profit percentage = (Profit/CP) × 100

⇒ (80/500) × 100 = 16%

24. In the following figure, ABCD is a rhombus, P, and Q are midpoints of sides AB and AD. R and S divide DC and BC in the ratio 2 : 1 respectively. If the lengths of AC and BD are 12 cm and 6 cm respectively, what is the area of the trapezium PQRS (in cm²)?

A. 12.5

B. 15

C. 17.5

D. 20

Solutions

In triangle ABD and APQ

∠ A is common

AP/AB = AQ/AD = ½ [∵ P and Q are midpoints of the sides AB and AD]

ABD ∼ APQ

PQ/BD = ½

∴ PQ = 3 cm

Altitude of APQ/Altitude of ABD = ½

Altitude of APQ = ½ × Altitude of ABD

⇒ ½ × AC/2 = 12/4 = 3 cm

In triangle CBD and CSR

∠ C is common

SC/BC = CR/CD = 1/3

CBD ∼ CSR

SR/BD = 1/3

∴ SR = 2 cm

Altitude of CSR/Altitude of CBD = 1/3

Altitude of CSR = 1/3 × Altitude of CBD

⇒ 1/3 × AC/2 = 12/6 = 2 cm

Altitude of trapezium = AC – Altitude of CSR – Altitude of APQ

⇒ 12 – 3 – 2 = 7 cm

Area of trapezium PQRS = ½ × Sum of parallel sides × Altitude

⇒ ½ × (PQ + RS) × 7

⇒ ½ × (3 + 2) × 7

⇒ 17.5 cm²

25. If a number is divided by 258, leaves remainder 7. Find the remainder if the same number is divided by 86.

A. 7

B. 2

C. 0

D. 5

Solutions

If any number is divided by ‘x’ it leaves remainder ‘a’.

And if the same number is divided by a factor of ‘x’ let say “y” then the remainder will be obtained when previous remainder ‘a’ is divided by ‘y’.

Given, Divisor = 258

Remainder = 7

New divisor = 86

86 is the factor of 258, then 7/86 leaves remainder 7.

26. If the sum of two numbers is 25% less than A, given that the first number of the sum is 1000 and the second number is 8 times the first. Find A is what percent more than the sum?

A. 20%

B. 27.5%

C. 30%

D. 33.33%

Solutions

The first number of the sum = 1000

The second number is 8th times the first number = 8000

The sum of the two numbers is 25% less than A

So, A = (1000 + 8000) × 100/(100 – 25)

A = 9000 × 4/3

A = 12000

So, the required percentage = (12000 – 9000)/9000 × 100

= 3000/9000 × 100

= 33.33%

27. What should come in the place of (?) in the following question?

(13 + ?) × (1171.5 + 1520.5 – 825.5) = 41063

A. 7

B. 9

C. 11

D. 13

Solutions

⇒ (13 + ?) × (1171.5 + 1520.5 – 825.5) = 41063

⇒ (13 + ?) × (2692 – 825.5) = 41063

⇒ (13 + ?) × 1866.5 = 41063

⇒ 13 + ? = 22

⇒ ? = 9

28. In the following figure, ABC and ADE are two isosceles triangles. If BC = 10 cm and DE = 3.4 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of (4BD + 3CE)?

In the following figure, ABC and ADE are two isosceles triangles. If BC = 10 cm and DE = 3.4 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of (4BD + 3CE)?

A. 15.4

B. 16.8

C. 19.6

D. 23.1

Solutions

∠ABC = ∠ACB [∵ Angle opposite to equal sides of an isosceles triangle is equal]

∠ADE = ∠AED

180° – ∠ADE = 180° – ∠AED

∠ADB = ∠AEC

In triangle ABD and ACE

∠ABD = ∠ACE

∠ADB = ∠AEC

AB = AC [∵ Isosceles triangle]

∴ ABD ≅ ACE

BD = CE

BC = BD + CE + DE

⇒ 10 = 2 BD + 3.4

⇒ 6.6 = 2 BD

⇒ BD = CE = 3.3 cm

Hence,

4BD + 3CE = 7 BD = 23.1 cm

29. A shopkeeper marks a television at Rs 27500. He intends to give two successive discounts of 25% and 20%. One day, his son sold that television, but he gave the customer discounts at the Marked price both times. Find the difference in the selling price of Television under both conditions.

A. Rs 1510

B. Rs 1450

C. Rs 1375

D. Rs 1650

Solutions

The marked price of Television = Rs 27500

Formula to find a single discount when two successive discounts are given = x + y – (xy/100)

Equivalent discount (case 1) = 20 + 25 – (20 × 25)/100 = 40%

In second case, both discounts will be percentage of Marked prices, Equivalent discount = 20 + 25 = 45%

Difference = (45 – 40)% of MP = 5% of 27500 = Rs 1375

30. A company offers two successive discounts of 10% & 5% on the purchase of a watch. If the total discount is Rs 1102 then find the marked price of the watch.

A. Rs. 7600

B. Rs. 8800

C. Rs. 7000

D. Rs. 5600

Solutions

Let the marked price be 100x.

Total discount % = x + y – xy/100 = 10 + 5 – 50/100 = 14.5%

According to the question;

⇒ 14.5% of 100x = 1102

⇒ x = 76

Total marked price = 100x

⇒ 100 × 76 = Rs 7600

31. The perimeter of the sector is 64 cm for a circle of radius 10 cm. What is the ratio of the area of a sector to the area of circle? (Use π = 22/7)

A. 3 : 20

B. 1 : 4

C. 21 : 30

D. 9 : 20

Solutions

Perimeter of sector = θ/360 × 2πr + 2r

⇒ 64 = θ/360 × 2 × 22/7 × 10 + 2 × 10

⇒ 64 = 11θ/63 + 20

⇒ 44 = 11θ/63

⇒ θ = 4 × 63 = 252°

Now area of circle = πr²

Area of sector of circle = θ/360 × πr²

So, the ratio of the area of a sector to the area of circle = θ/360

⇒ 252/360

⇒ 21 : 30

32. The salary of Mr. X first increased by 33.33% and then decreased by 20%. If the salary of Mr. X before the increment was Rs 18000 then, find the net percentage change in salary.

A. 5.33%

B. 6.66%

C. 7.75%

D. 5%

Solutions

His salary = Rs 18000

After an increment of 33.33% or 1/3.

⇒ 1/3 × 18000 = 6000

New salary = Rs (18000 + 6000) = Rs 24000

Now,

20% reduction in his new salary

⇒ 24000 – 20% of 24000

⇒ 24000 – (24000/100)20

⇒ 24000 – 4800

⇒ Rs.19200

So, net change in salary = (19200 – 18000) = 1200

% change = (1200/18000)100 = 120/18 = (20/3)% = 6.66%

33. In the following figure, l, m and n are three straight lines such that (∠DBC)/(∠ACB) = 6, then what is the value of (∠DAC)/(∠ICH)?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Solutions

Let ∠DAC and ∠ICH be x and y respectively

∠ACB = ∠ICH = x [∵ Vertically opposite angle]

In triangle ACB:

∠DBC + ∠ACB = ∠DAC [∵ Exterior angle = Sum of interior angles]

⇒ ∠DBC + x = y

∴ ∠DBC = y – x

∠DBC/∠ACB = (y – x)/x

⇒ 6 = y/x – 1

⇒ y/x = 7

⇒ ∠DAC/∠ICH = y/x = 7

34. Table given in the question gives information about money with five persons A, B, C, D. Also, information about their spending on food and shopping is given. Spending on Food is given as percentage of total amount with that person.Spending on Shopping is given as percentage of remaining amount after spending money on food.Answer the questions on the basis of this information.

	Total Money(in Rs)	Food (in %)	Shopping (in %)
A	5775	14.28	16
B	7500	12	8
C	8000	17.5	14
D	4050	33.33	16.66

B buys 8 shirts with the amount left after spent on food and shopping, he sells them at 850 each. Profit earned by B (in Rs) is?

A. 718

B. 728

C. 738

D. 748

Solutions

Amount with B = Rs 7500

Amount spent on Food = 12% of 7500 = Rs 900

Remaining amount = 7500 – 900 = Rs 6600

Amount spent on Shopping = 8% of 6600 = Rs 528

Amount by which shirts are bought = 6600 – 528 = Rs 6072

Selling price of 8 shirts = 8 × Rs 850 = Rs 6800

Profit = Selling price – Cost price = 6800 – 6072 = Rs 728

35. There are three iron rods of length 144 cm, 180cm & 240cm. What can be the maximum length of rods of equal length to be cut from these rods?

A. 12 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 18 cm

D. 27 cm

Solutions

Understanding	Application
If the maximum length of the rod to be cut from each rod then the HCF of these rods is the maximum equal length. Given the length of the rods =144, 180, 240	144 = 12 × 12 180 = 12 × 15 240 = 12 × 20 The maximum equal length of the rods to be cut is 12 cm.

36. A trader purchased 100 chairs for Rs 35,000 after getting a 30% discount on MP. He spent Rs 5000 on transportation and he sold a chair at profit of 6.25%. Find the discount percentage at which he sold a chair.

A. 25%

B. 20%

C. 15%

D. 22%

Solutions

MP = (SP × 100)/(100 – D%)

SP = {CP × (100 + P%)}/100

Discount = MP – SP

CP of 100 chairs = Rs 35000

Discount% = 30%

Over expense = Rs 5000

The chair is sold at 6.25% profit.

CP of a chair = 35000/100 = 350

Extra expenses per chair = 5000/100 = 50

MP of a chair = (350 × 100)/(100 – 30) = 35000/70 = 500

Total CP = CP + over expense = 350 + 50 = 400

SP of a chair = {400 × (100 + 6.25%)}/100 = 4 × 106.25 = 425

Discount = 500 – 425 = 75

Hence, Discount % = (75 × 100)/500 = 15%

37. A cuboid of dimension 19 × 19 × 10 cm³ and two spheres of diameter 21 cm are melted together to form 26 small cubes. Find the surface area of cube (in cm²).

A. 384

B. 453

C. 460

D. 342

Solutions

Volume of cuboid = 19 × 19 × 10 = 3610

Volume of 2 spheres = [2 × (4/3) × (22/7) × 21 × 21 × 21]/8 = 9702

Let the side of small cube = a cm

Hence,

26 a³ = 9702 + 3610 = 13312

⇒ a = 8

So,

Curved surface area of cube = 6 × a² = 6 × 64 = 384 cm²

38. Pie chart given in the question gives distance of five places from a point. Answer the question on the basis of information in the pie chart.

The difference between the distance from the point to dehradun and to bhubaneswar is what percentage of the total distance covered?

A. 4.17%

B. 5.08%

C. 3.85%

D. 4.67%

Solutions

Distance (Dehradun) = 2500 km

Distance (Bhubaneswar) = 2000 km

Difference = 2500 – 2000 = 500 km

Total distance = 1600 + 2400 + 3500 + 2500 + 2000 = 12000 km

Required percent = (500/12000) × 100 = 4.17%

39. Table given in the question gives information about money with five persons A, B, C, D. Also, information about their spending on food and shopping is given. Spending on Food is given as percentage of total amount with that person.Spending on Shopping is given as percentage of remaining amount after spending money on food.Answer the questions on the basis of this information.

	Total Money(in Rs)	Food (in %)	Shopping (in %)
A	5775	14.28	16
B	7500	12	8
C	8000	17.5	14
D	4050	33.33	16.66

Money spent on Food by A is what percent of Money saved by D. (D saves remaining amount after spending on Food and shopping)

A. 36.67

B. 38.85

C. 33.33

D. 35

Solutions

Amount with A = Rs 5775

Amount spent on Food = 14.28% of 5775 = 1/7 × 5775 = Rs 825

Amount with D = Rs 4050

Amount spent on Food = 33.33% of 4050 = Rs 1350

Remaining amount = 4050 – 1350 = Rs 2700

Amount spent on Shopping = 16.66% of 2700 = 1/6 × 2700 = Rs 450

Savings = 2700 – 450 = Rs 2250

Required percentage = (825/2250) × 100 = 36.67%

40. Bar graph given in the question gives the selling price of 1 piece of five articles A, B, C, D, E. Table in the question given profit/loss percent and number of articles sold. Answer the following questions on the basis of information in the chart and table

Find the total profit/loss (in Rs) in selling all available pieces of A and D.

A. 9600

B. 10500

C. 9200

D. 10200

Solutions

Selling price of A = Rs 1488

Let the cost price of A = a

Profit percent = 24

⇒ (100 + 24) % of a = 1488

⇒ a = 1200

Total profit = (1488 – 1200) × 300 = Rs 86400

Selling price of D = Rs 2520

Let the cost price of D = d

Loss percent = 16

⇒ (100 – 16) % of d = 2520

⇒ d = 3000

Total loss = (3000 – 2520) × 200 = Rs 96000

So, Total loss = 96000 – 86400 = Rs 9600

41. The pie chart given in the question gives the percentage cost price of five articles A, B, C, D and E out of the total cost price of five articles. The total cost price is Rs 25000. Answer the questions on the basis of this information.

The average cost price (in Rs) of B, D and E is?

A. 6250

B. 5625

C. 6000

D. 5750

E. Total cost price of B, D and E = (20 + 25 + 30) % of 25000 = 75% of 25000 = Rs 18750 Average = 8750/3 = Rs.6250

Solutions

Total cost price of B, D and E = (20 + 25 + 30) % of 25000 = 75% of 25000 = Rs 18750

Average = 8750/3 = Rs.6250

42. Rohan invested equal amount of money in both Compound and Simple interest at the rate of 11%. After 2 years, the difference in interest amount was Rs. 605. What will be the interest on money put on compound interest after 3 years?

A. Rs. 14563

B. Rs. 18381

C. Rs. 16429

D. Rs. 15312

Solutions

We know, the interest rate is 11% and difference in CI and SI for 2 years is Rs. 605.

Or,

(P × 11 × 11)/(100 × 100) = 605

⇒ P = 6050000/121 = Rs. 50000

Now, interest earned in 3 years:

⇒ (50000 × 1.11 × 1.11 × 1.11) – 50000

⇒ 68381.55 – 50000

⇒ Rs. 18381.55 = Rs. 18381 (Approx.)

43. Find the least number which must be added to the number 25272 to get a perfect square.

A. 8

B. √9

C. √81

D. 81

Solutions

The given number is 25272

15² = 225

150² = 22500

16² = 256

160² = 25600

The square root of given number is between 150 and 160.

159² = 25281

Required number to add = 25281 – 25272 = 09

√81 = 09

Hence, the least required number to add is √81.

Trick:- For squares between 151 and 175.

Ex-

159 = 159 + 59 = 218 ……(i)

The number is subtracted by 150 (base) and squaring the result.

(159 – 150)² = 9² = 81 …….(ii)

The number is subtracted by 125

(159 – 125) = 34 …..(iii)

now

Multiply by 100 in both eq (i) and (iii)

(i) 218 × 100 = 21800

(ii) 81

(iii) 34 × 100 = 3400

Add (i), (ii) and (iii)

we get, (21800 + 81 + 3400) = 25281

44. If a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = 252 and a + b + c = 6. Find the value of ab + bc + ca.

A. 2

B. -2

C. 0

D. 6

Solutions

Given :

a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = 252

a + b + c = 6

Formula used :

a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = (a + b + c)((a + b + c) – 3(ab + bc + ca)) —— (1)

Calculations :

Using equation (1), we get

⇒ 252 = (6)((6)² – 3(ab + bc + ca))

⇒ 252 = 6(36 – 3(ab + bc + ca))

⇒ 252/6 = (36 – 3(ab + bc + ca))

⇒ 42 = 36 – 3(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 6 = -3(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ ab + bc + ca = -2

45. The sales of V-Mart in 5 consecutive months are Rs. 3000, Rs. 4500, Rs. 6000, Rs. 7500 and Rs. 9000 respectively. The average of 6 months is Rs. 7000. The sales of 6th month are how much more than the sales of 5th month?

A. ₹12000

B. ₹3000

C. ₹0

D. ₹6000

Solutions

Total sales of the 5 months are = (Rs. 3000 + Rs. 4500 + Rs. 6000 + Rs. 7500 + Rs. 9000) = Rs. 30000

Total sales of the 6 months are = (Rs. 7000 × 6) = Rs. 42000

Thus, the sales of the 6^th month are = (Rs. 42000 – Rs. 30000) = Rs. 12000

The sales of the 5^th month are = Rs 9000

The sales of 6th month are how much more than the sales of 5th month = 12000 – 9000 = 3000

46. The ratio of efficiencies of a woman and a man in completing a work is 5 : 7. If 5 men can complete the work in 6 days, what is the time taken (in days) for a woman to complete work?

A. 30

B. 150/7

C. 180/7

D. 42

Solutions

If 5 men can complete the work in 6 days, then 1 man can complete the work in 5 × 6 = 30 days

Efficiency ∝ 1/ (Time taken)

∴ Efficiency of woman/ Efficiency of man = Time taken by man/ Time taken by a woman

5/7 = 30/ Time taken by woman

Time taken by woman = 30 × 7/5 = 42 days

47. In a group of 7 people of average weight 69kg when a person of weight 69kg was replaced by another person the average weight is reduced by 2kg what is the weight of the new person?

A. 55 kg

B. 70 kg

C. 68 kg

D. 83 kg

Solutions

Total weight of the group = 7 × 69 = 483 kg

When a person was replaced then the new total weight = 7 × 67 = 469 kg

Total weight reduced = 483 – 469 = 14 kg

Weight of new person = 69 – 14 = 55 kg

48. For some A, B < 90°, cot²A – cot²B = cot²Acot²B – 1, then what is the value of A?

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 90°

Solutions

cot²A – cot²B = cot²Acot²B – 1

⇒ (cot A + cot B) (cot A – cot B) = (cot A cot B + 1) (cot A cot B – 1) [∵ a² – b² = (a – b) (a + b)]

⇒ (cot A + cot B) / (cot A cot B – 1) = (cot A cot B + 1) / (cot A – cot B)

[∵ cot (A ± B) = (cot A cot B ∓ 1) / (cot A ± cot B)]

∴ 1/ {cot (A + B)} = cot (A – B)

⇒ tan (A + B) = cot (A – B)

⇒ tan (A + B) = tan (90 – A + B)

⇒ A + B = 90 – A + B

⇒ 2A = 90

∴ A = 45°

49.

A. 0

B. 1

C. 3

D. -1

Solutions

50.An athlete can run 5 km at a speed of 10 km/hr in a certain time. If he increases his speed by 20% then, what distance will he cover at the same time?

A. 8 km

B. 12 km

C. 15 km

D. 6 km

Solutions

Speed = Distance/Time

For a fixed time,

The ratio of speed = Ratio of distance

An athlete can run 5 km at a speed of 10 km/hr

He increases his speed by 20%

His new speed

⇒ (10 × (100 + 20))/100 = 12 km/hr

Let, the distance covered by him after increasing his speed = x km

For a fixed time,

⇒ 12/x = 10/5

⇒ x = 60/10 = 6 km

The distance covered by him after increasing his speed = x km = 6 km

Reasoning

51. Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they appear in an English dictionary.

I. Jackaroo

II. Jabbered

III. Jabronis

IV. Jacamars

V. Jabberer

VI. Jacinths

A. III, II, V, VI, IV, I

B. II, V, III, IV, VI, I

C. III, I, V, IV, VI, II

D. III, I, VI, IV, V, II

Solutions

Words as per dictionary order are as follows:

II. Jabbered

V. Jabberer

III. Jabronis

IV. Jacamars

VI. Jacinths

I. Jackaroo

Hence, the correct answer is II, V, III, IV, VI, I

52. Arrange the following words in the order as they would appear in the dictionary.

I. Labelling

II. Leukemics

III. Logomachy

IV. Lakeshore

V. Litigation

A. I, IV, V, II, III

B. I, IV, II, V, III

C. I, IV, III, II, V

D. IV, I, II, V, III

Solutions

Words in dictionary order:

I. Labelling

IV. Lakeshore

II. Leukemics

V. Litigation

III. Logomachy

Thus, I, IV, II, V, III is correct.

53. Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at AB as shown below:

Solutions

54. Select the correct mirror image of the following figure when the mirror is placed at the ‘AB’ as shown below.

Solutions

55. Find the mirror image of the following figure, if the mirror is placed to the right of the given figure.

Solutions

56. Two different positions of the same dice are shown, the faces of which are marked with letters M, T, R, V, K and S. Select the letter that will be on the face opposite to the face having letter ‘M’.

A. T

B. V

C. R

D. K

Solutions

M is common in both dice. T, R, S, and V are adjacent sides of M so, K is opposite to M.

Hence, the correct answer is K.

57. Three positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing ‘5’.

A. A

B. 2

C. Q

D. 4

Solutions

On comparing dice 1 and dice 2 we got A and Q are common faces on both dice so the remaining faces are opposite to each other.

So, 5 is opposite to 2.

58. Two different positions of the same dice are shown, the faces of which are marked with letters M, T, R, V, K and S. Select the letter that will be on the face opposite to the face having letter ‘M’.

Solutions

59. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures from the given answer figures, indicating the pattern that it will appear when it is opened.

Solutions

60. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

Solutions

61. Choose the correct image to complete the following series?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Solutions

The logic which follows here is:

The shaded circle is rotating in an anti-clockwise direction in the corners of the images.

The circles are increasing by 1 and decreasing by 1 in each image alternately.

The arrows are rotating in the clockwise direction on the sides of the images.

The triangles given in the images are rotating in the clockwise direction in the corner of the images.

The upper triangle given in the image is getting inverted in each image.

Hence, C is the correct answer.

62. Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

Solutions

The number of sides in the figure increases as we move from left to right, i.e., from a pentagon to a hexagon, from a hexagon to a heptagon, and from a heptagon to an octagon. Similarly, the shaded portion in the rectangle is changing its position in each figure and cover all the cells of the rectangle by one in each next figure.

63. Choose the correct image to complete the given image series.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Solutions

In this series, the square is rotating at a 45° angle in the clockwise direction. Unshaded and shaded dots are moving at a 45° angle in the anti-clockwise direction. So, the figure 3 is the next in the given series.

64. Select the number that will come next in the following series.

46, 62, 80, 97, 119, ?

A. 143

B. 123

C. 133

D. 173

Solutions

The logic used here is:

46 = 7² – 3

62 = 8² – 2

80 = 9² – 1

97 = 10² – 3

119 = 11² – 2

143 = 12² – 1

65. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

180, 140, 105, 75, ?

A. 23

B. 50

C. 35

D. 82

Solutions

In the given question, the pattern followed is:

180 – 40 = 140

140 – 35 (40 – 5) = 105

105 – 30 (35 – 5) = 75

75 – 25 (30 – 5) = 50

So, the next term is 50.

66. Select the wrong term in the series.

6, 7, 15, 42, 104, 231

A. 31

B. 7

C. 42

D. 104

Solutions

The pattern followed here is as follows:

6 + 1³ = 6 + 1 = 7

7 + 2³ = 7 + 8 = 15

15 + 3³ = 15 + 27 = 42

42 + 4³ = 42 + 64 = 106

106 + 5³ = 106 + 125 = 231

So, ‘104’ is the wrong term in the given series.

67. Complete the following series.

75, 80, 87, 96, 107, ?

A. 110

B. 120

C. 112

D. 134

Solutions

68. Complete the following series.

BAC, EDF, HGI, ?

A. GFD

B. VGY

C. NSE

D. KJL

Solutions

Given series: BAC, EDF, HGI, ?

B + 3 = E, E + 3 = H, H + 3 = K

A + 3 = D, D + 3 = G, G + 3 = J

C + 3 = F, F + 3 = I, I + 3 = L

So, the next term is KJL.

69. Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

CMEL, GKHK, KIKJ, OGNI, ?

A. SEHQ

B. RKQG

C. SEQH

D. PGRI

Solutions

The series follows this pattern:

C + 4 = G, G + 4 = K, K + 4 = O, O + 4 = S

M – 2 = K, K – 2 = I, I – 2 = G, G – 2 = E

E + 3 = H, H + 3 = K, K + 3 = N, N + 3 = Q

L – 1 = K, K – 1 = J, J – 1 = I, I – 1 = H

So, the next term in the series is SEQH.

70. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

BLZT, BNYU, BPXV, ?

A. BRWZ

B. BSTY

C. BRXW

D. BRWW

Solutions

The first letter remains the same: B, B, B, B

Second letter: L + 2 = N, N + 2 = P, P + 2 = R

Third letter: Z – 1 = Y, Y – 1 = X, X – 1 = W

Fourth letter: T + 1= U, U + 1 = V, V + 1 = W

Hence, the correct answer is BRWW.

71. Four letter-clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

A. YWC

B. HFJ

C. SQW

D. CAG

Solutions

Option 1; YWC → Y – 2 = W, W + 6 = C

Option 2: HFJ → H – 2 = F, F + 6 = L ≠ J

Option 3: SQW → S – 2 = Q, Q + 6 = W

Option 4: CAG → C – 2 = A, A + 6 = G

Hence, the correct answer is HFJ.

72. Faizan runs 20 m towards the East and turns to the right and runs 10 m. Then he turns to the right and runs 9 m. Again he turns to the right and runs 5 m. After this, he turns left and runs 12 m and finally, he turns right and runs 6 m. Now in which direction is Faizan facing?

A. North

B. East

C. South

D. West

Solutions

73. Point P is 10 m to the north of Point O. Point R is 6 m to the west of Point P. Point S is 8 m to the north of Point R. Point Q is 6 m to the east of Point S.

What is the distance between Point P and Point Q?

A. 6 m

B. 8 m

C. 10 m

D. 12 m

Solutions

74. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace ‘*’ sign and balance the equation given below.

441 * 7 * 9 * 242 * 11 * 29

A. ÷, × , -, ÷, =

B. × , +, =, ÷, ×

C. ÷, ÷, +, ÷, =

D. +, -, × , =, ×

Solutions

After replacing ‘*’ with mathematical sign given in option ‘3’ we get:

(441 ÷ 7 ÷ 9) + (242 ÷ 11) =29

7 + 22 = 29

29 = 29

Hence, the correct answer is ÷, ÷, +, ÷, =.

75. In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘-‘, ‘-‘ represents ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘+’. Find out the answer to the following question.

30 ÷ 6 – 40 × 5 + 10

A. 78

B. 68

C. 75

D. 38

Solutions

30 ÷ 6 – 40 × 5 + 10 can be decoded as

30 + 6 × (40 ÷ 5) – 10

= 30 + (6 × 8) – 10

= (30 + 48) – 10

– 78 – 10

= 68

Hence, the correct answer is 68.

76. What will be the value of the following equation if ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘-‘ means ‘multiplication’ and ‘×’ means ‘division’?

64 × 12 – 3 ÷ 32 + 8 = ?

A. 37

B. 48

C. 65

D. 40

Solutions

After changing the symbols,

(64 ÷ 12 × 3) + 32 – 8 = ?

⇒ (16 + 32) – 8

⇒ 48 – 8

⇒ 40

77. If a = +, r = ×, b = ÷, s = -, then find the value of “10 s 24 b 4 a 9 r 5 a 3”.

A. 50

B. –38

C. .52

D. 51

Solutions

10 -(24 ÷ 4) + 9 × 5 + 3

= 10 – 6 + (9 × 5) + 3

= 10 – 6 + 45 + 3

= 58 – 6

= 52

78. Which of the following set of signs is suitable to make the given equation correct?

25 _ 5 _ 2 _ 10 _ 20 = 0

A. ÷, ×, +, –

B. ÷, +, ×, –

C. ×, -, +, ÷

D. +, -, ÷, ×

Solutions

The equation becomes correct by using the first set of signs: ÷, ×, +, –

(25 ÷ 5) × 2 + 10 – 20

= (5 × 2) + 10 – 20

= (10 + 10) – 20

= 20 – 20

= 0

79. After interchanging the given two signs, what will be the value of the following expression?

× and ÷

26 + 5 ÷ 16 × 4 – 8 = ?

A. 48

B. 38

C. 46

D. 40

Solutions

After interchanging the ‘× and ÷’ sign we get:

= 26 + 5 × (16 ÷ 4) – 8

= 26 + (5 × 4) – 8

= (26 + 20) – 8

= 46 – 8

= 38

80. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

72 = 54 + 120 ÷ 15 – 26

A. – and =

B. + and ÷

C. + and =

D. ÷ and –

Solutions

After interchanging the symbols, we get;

⇒ 72 – 54 + (120 ÷ 15) = 26

⇒ 72 – 54 + 8 = 26

⇒ 80 – 54 = 26

⇒ 26 = 26

Hence, the correct answer is – and =.

81. In a code language, COVERS is written as DNWDSR. How will VIOLET be written in that language?

A. WHPKHM

B. WHPKFS

C. WHKPHM

D. WHKPJM

Solutions

COVERS = DNWDSR

Here,

C + 1 = D, O – 1 = N, V + 1 = W, E – 1 = D, R + 1 = S, S – 1 = R

Similarly,

For VIOLET:

V + 1 = W, I – 1 = H, O + 1 = P, L – 1 = K, E + 1 = F, T – 1 = S

Hence, the correct answer is WHPKFS.

82. In a certain code language, ‘FORTS’ is written as ‘VKJHI’. What will be the code for ‘HARDWARE’ in that code language?

A. KDRYZVUZ

B. LERZAWVA

C. TYJXEYJU

D. TFSABXWB

Solutions

‘FORTS’ is written as ‘VKJHI’

F ⇔ U + 1 = V

O ⇔ L – 1 = K

R ⇔ I + 1 = J

T ⇔ G + 1 = H

S ⇔ H + 1 = I

Similarly,

For HARDWARE:

H ⇔ S + 1 = T

A ⇔ Z – 1 = Y

R ⇔ I + 1 = J

D ⇔ W + 1 = X

W ⇔ D + 1 = E

A ⇔ Z – 1 = Y

R ⇔ I + 1 = J

E ⇔ V – 1 = U

Hence, TYJXEYJU is the correct answer.

83. In a certain code language, SEVERE is coded as 195522185, how is LAPTOP coded in that code?

A. 12120161516

B. 12120161511

C. 12120161512

D. 12120161514

Solutions

SE(EV)RE (Interchange position of middle letters)

S = 19, E = 5, E = 5, V = 22, R = 18, E = 5

Similarly, LAPTOP = LATPOP = 12120161516

Hence, the correct answer is 12120161516.

84. If in a certain code language, LION is coded as 64, LIONESS is coded as 343, ANSWER is coded as 216, then how will CATHEDRAL be coded in that language?

A. 729

B. 432

C. 732

D. 741

Solutions

Logic: Count the number of letters and write a cube of that number.

LION is coded as 64 – This word has 4 letters: 4³ = 64

LIONESS is coded as 343 – This word has 7 letters: 7³ = 343

ANSWER is coded as 216 – This word has 6 letters: 6³ = 216

Similarly,

CATHEDRAL has 9 letters: 9³ = 729

Hence, the correct answer is 729.

85. If Y = 50, TEA = 52, then ‘CATCH’ will be equal to?

A. 100

B. 70

C.90

D. 104

Solutions

Given: Y = 50 and TEA = 52

Code – Sum of positional values of the alphabet × 2

Y = 25 × 2 = 50

TEA = (20 + 5 + 1) × 2 = 26 × 2 = 52

Therefore,

CATCH = (3 + 1 + 20 + 3 + 8) × 2

= 35 × 2 = 70

86. Select the option that is related to the third-letter cluster in the same way as the second-letter cluster is related to the first-letter cluster.

FHEM : JLCQ :: LOVR : ?

A. OCZV

B. NMVZ

C. PSTV

D. PCZV

Solutions

FHEM : JLCQ ⇒ F = 4 = J, H + 4 = L, E – 2 = C, M + 4 = Q

Similarly,

LOVR : ? ⇒ L + 4 = P, O + 4 = S, V – 2 = T, R + 4 = V

Hence, the correct answer is PSTV.

87. Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

OSA : PVF :: KGE : ?

A. LJH

B. LKU

C. LJJ

D. LJG

Solutions

OSA : PVF

O + 1 = P

S + 3 = V

A + 5 = F

Similarly,

KGE : ?

K + 1 = L

G + 3 = J

E + 5 = J

Hence, the correct answer is LJJ.

88. Select the letter/number/word pair in which the two letters/number/words are related in the same way as the two letters/number/words of the following letter/number/word pair.

20 : 30 :: 74 : 111 :: 26 : ?

A. 73

B. 39

C. 36

D. 43

Solutions

20 : 30 ⇒ 20 + (20 ÷ 2) = 20 + 10 = 30

74 : 111 ⇒ 74 + (74 ÷ 2) = 74 + 37 = 111

Similarly, 26 : ? ⇒ 26 + (26 ÷ 2) = 26 + 13 = 39

Hence, the correct answer is 39.

89. Choose the option in which the fourth element is related to the third element in the same way as the second element is related to the first element.

13 : 2197 :: 17 : ?

A. 4913

B. 5076

C. 4244

D. 2078

Solutions

Logic: The second number is the cube of the first number.

(13)³= 2197

Similarly,

(17)³= 4913

Hence, the correct answer is 4913.

90. Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the following set.

(2, 7, 11)

(6, 39, 219)

A. (9, 84, 732)

B. (4, 18, 74)

C. (5, 34, 217)

D. (7, 25, 127)

Solutions

(2, 7, 11) ⇒ 2² + 3 = 7 2³ + 3 = 11

(6, 39, 219) ⇒ 6² + 3 = 39 = 6³ + 3 = 219

Similarly,

(9, 84, 732) ⇒ 9² + 3 = 84 = 9³ + 3 = 732

Hence, the correct answer is (9, 84, 732).

91. Select the related number from the given alternatives.

262 : 476 :: 531 : ?

A. 126

B. 144

C. 889

D. 938

Solutions

Given: 262 : 476 :: 531 : ?

(2 × 6 × 2)² – (2 + 6 + 2)²

= (24)² – (10)²

= 576 – 100

= 476

Similarly,

(5 × 3 × 1)² – (5 + 3 + 1)²

= (15)² – (9)²

= 225 – 81

= 144

92. Choose the appropriate number that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

13 : 172 :: 17 : ?

A. 289

B. 290

C. 292

D. 298

Solutions

The logic used here is:

13² + 3 = 172

Similarly,

17² + 3 = 292

Hence, the correct answer is 292.

93. Choose the term that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

234 : 9 :: 187 : ?

A. 16

B. 9

C. 8

D. 10

Solutions

234 : 9 ⇒ 2 + 3 + 4 = 9

Similarly

187 : ? ⇒ 1 + 8 + 7 = 16

Hence, the correct answer is 16.

94. There are three statements given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II given below. You have to decide which among the following conclusion or conclusions is/are correct as per the given statements.

Statements:

I. Mostly Stars are Comets.

II. All Comets are Planets.

III. No Comet is Satellite.

Conclusions:

I. Some Stars are Satellites.

II. No Planets are Stars.

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Both conclusions I and II are true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Solutions

Conclusions:

I. Some stars are Satellite → False (Some Stars are Satellite is a possibility but not definite, as no direct relationship between the two is given).

II. No Planets are Stars → False (As Mostly Stars are Comets and All Comets are Planets so, it can not be possible that No Planets are Stars).

Hence, the correct answer is Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

95. In the following question, three statements are given below followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Statements:

I. Only a few Sisters are Mothers.

II. Some Mothers are Fathers.

III. No Father is Brother.

Conclusions:

I. Some Sisters are not Mothers.

II. All Mothers can never be Brothers.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Either conclusion I or II follows

Solutions

Conclusions:

I. Some Sisters are not Mothers → True (As only a few Sisters are Mothers is given. So, some sisters are mothers and some sisters are not Mothers is true).

II. All Mothers can never be Brothers→ True (As Some Mothers are also Fathers and no Father is Brother is given. So, all Mothers can never be Brothers)

Hence, the correct answer is Both conclusions I and II follow.

96. In the following diagram, rectangle represents people, Triangle represents the educated, and Circle represents students.

Which one of the following represents both educated and people only?

A. H

B. D

C. G

D. A

Solutions

97. Select the appropriate Venn diagram for the given words:

Goats, Herbivores, Lion

Solutions

98. A + B means ‘A is husband of B’

A – B means ‘A is brother of B’

A × B means ‘A is sister of B’

A ÷ B means ‘A is mother of B’

If V + J ÷ L × M – G, then how is J related to G?

A. Sister

B. Daughter

C. Mother

D. Paternal grandmother

Solutions

As per the given data, the following family tree can be drawn:

So, J is the mother of G.

Hence, the correct answer is Mother.

99. A @ B means ‘A is the mother of B’

A # B means ‘A is the son of B’

A ! B means ‘A is the husband of B’

A & B means ‘A is the wife of B’

If P ! Q @ R @ T # S then how is S related to Q?

A. Son

B. Father

C. Husband

D. Son-in-law

Solutions

Given: P ! Q @ R @ T # S

Family tree diagram:

100. Five teachers, H, K, P, R and T, are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). T is between H and R. P is second to the right of R. H is to the immediate left of T. Who is sitting to the immediate left of K?

A. T

B. H

C. P

D. R

Solutions

The arrangement will be like this:

Hence, R is immediately left of K.

General Study

101. Which event intensified the Extremists’ disillusionment with the British?

A. The Quit India Movement

B. The arrival of the Simon Commission

C. The Rowlatt Act

D. The Bengal Partition of 1905

Solutions

The Bengal Partition of 1905 by the British was a significant event that intensified the Extremists’ disillusionment with the British colonial rule.

The partition was carried out by Lord Curzon, ostensibly for administrative convenience, but the real motive was to create divisions between Hindus and Muslims in Bengal, thereby weakening the growing unity among Indians.

102. What is the vitamin deficiency in milk?

A. D

B. C

C. A

D. B Complex

Solutions

· Milk is naturally deficient in Vitamin C, though it is rich in Vitamin A, D, B-complex (except B12 in some cases), and calcium.
· Vitamin C is important for immune function and collagen synthesis.

103. Which court directed the resumption of MGNREGA work in West Bengal from August 1, 2025?

A. Delhi High Court

B. Calcutta High Court

C. Supreme Court of India

D. Bombay High Court

Solutions

Calcutta High Court intervened and directed the Central Government to restart the MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) scheme in West Bengal starting August 1, 2025.
This decision came after a nearly three-year suspension due to alleged misuse of funds and wage irregularities.
The court emphasized that the Act cannot be kept in “cold storage for eternity” and stressed the fundamental right to livelihood for millions of rural workers.

104. Which of the following educational institutions was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1825 to provide both Indian and Western education?

A. Sanskrit College

B. Hindu College

C. Vedanta College

D. Fort William College

Solutions

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a staunch advocate of modern, scientific, and rational education. Recognizing the need to blend traditional Indian learning with contemporary Western knowledge, he established the Vedanta College in 1825. This institution was revolutionary for its time, offering instruction in both Indian philosophy (Vedanta) and Western sciences and literature. Roy believed that education was the key to social reform and empowerment, especially for the oppressed classes and women. Earlier, in 1817, he also supported David Hare in establishing the Hindu College, which became a cradle for Western education in Bengal. Roy’s educational reforms laid the foundation for a modern, progressive Indian society and influenced the rise of the Bengal Renaissance.

105. The diagram below shows a section of phloem tissue in a plant. Which labelled part represents the sieve plates (with perforated walls) that assist in transport?

A. b

B. d

C. a

D. c

Solutions

The sieve plates are perforated structures that connect the sieve tube elements in phloem tissue. These perforated end walls allow for the movement of substances such as sugars and nutrients between the sieve tube elements. In the provided diagram, label (a) corresponds to the sieve plate, which is characteristic for having holes or pores to facilitate the transport process.

106. Which city is home to Google’s first Safety Engineering Centre (GSEC) in the Asia-Pacific region?

A. Bangalore

B. Hyderabad

C. Chennai

D. Pune

Solutions

Google’s first Safety Engineering Centre (GSEC) in the Asia-Pacific region was launched in Hyderabad, marking it as the 1st GSEC in Asia and the 4th globally. The centre will focus on cybersecurity, AI safety, and fraud prevention to improve digital defense and build responsible AI systems.

107. India ranks 13th globally in investment curiosity according to a recent report. What is the primary driver of this curiosity?

A. Real estate investments

B. Gold investments

C. Stock market and cryptocurrencies

D Bank fixed deposits

Solutions

According to a BrokerChooser report, India ranks 13th globally in terms of investment curiosity, with a significant portion of interest driven by stocks and cryptocurrencies.
The growing interest is largely among younger Indians who are embracing digital platforms and seeking to diversify their income sources.
The report shows that stocks are the top search category in India, followed by forex, cryptocurrencies, and other forms of investments.
Despite a strong interest, India ranks lower than Australia, Singapore, and Kenya, which lead in investment curiosity.

108. For domestic tariff, one unit of electrical energy consumption is equal to:

A. 1 kilowatt-hour

B. 1 volt ampere hour

C. 1 kilojoule hour

D. 1 milliamp hour

Solutions

· One unit of electricity is defined as 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh), which equals 1000 watts used for 1 hour.
· It is the standard billing unit for domestic electricity consumption.

109. Which Article, under the Constitution of India, empowers the Government of India to levy and collect Goods and Services Tax ?

A. Article 266

B. Article 268A

C. Article 269A

D. Article 271A

Solutions

Article 269A of the Constitution of India, inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, provides for the levy and collection of Goods and Services Tax (GST) in the course of inter-State trade or commerce.

It allows the Central Government to levy and collect the GST on inter-State supply of goods and services, and the tax collected is to be apportioned between the Union and the States based on the recommendations of the GST Council.

110. Who discovered the nucleus of the cell?

A. Watson

B. Robert Hook

C. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

D. Robert Brown

Solutions

· In 1831, Robert Brown discovered the nucleus in plant cells while examining orchid root cells.
· He described it as a central, round body within the cell.

111. Reverberation is the persistence of sound after the source has stopped emitting sound due to _______ from multiple surfaces.

A. reflection

B. transmission

C. refraction

D. diffraction

Solutions

Reverberation is the persistence of sound after the source has stopped emitting sound, and it occurs due to reflection of sound waves from multiple surfaces, such as walls, ceilings, and floors.

When sound waves reflect off surfaces, they continue to bounce around, leading to a prolonged sound. This phenomenon is common in large, enclosed spaces like concert halls, auditoriums, and empty rooms.

112. Which gas is released during the combustion of natural gas (CH₄)?

A. CO₂

B. H₂

C. N₂

D. NH₃

Solutions

Natural gas primarily consists of methane (CH₄).

During complete combustion, methane reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O).

The balanced chemical equation for combustion of methane is:

Other gases like hydrogen (H₂), nitrogen (N₂), and ammonia (NH₃) are not products of methane combustion.

113. Match the states in column A with their official languages in column B.

Column A (States)	Column B (Official Languages)
1. Andhra Pradesh	a. Malayalam
2. Kerala	b. Telugu
3. Karnataka	c. Konkani
4. Goa	d. Kannada

A. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

Solutions

The correct answer is (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c.

1. Andhra Pradesh – (b) Telugu: Telugu is the official language of Andhra Pradesh and is widely spoken throughout the state.
2. Kerala – (a) Malayalam: Malayalam is the official language of Kerala, recognized for its rich literary tradition.
3. Karnataka – (d) Kannada: Kannada is the official language of Karnataka and is spoken by a significant majority of the state’s population.
4. Goa – (c) Konkani: Konkani is the official language of Goa, reflecting the cultural and linguistic heritage of the state.

114. Section 56 (2) (vii b) in the Income Tax Act is referred to as:

A. Normal Investments

B. Angel Fund

C. Normal Taxing

D. Angel Tax

Solutions

Section 56 (2) (vii b) of the Income Tax Act refers to Angel Tax, which is a provision to address investments made by angel investors in early-stage startups.
Angel Tax is applicable when a startup company receives investments that exceed its fair market value. The excess amount is considered as income and is taxed under this provision.
This tax was introduced to curb money laundering through inflated valuations of startups but has been a point of concern for genuine investors and startups.

115. Which scheme has the UPSC launched to connect top candidates who missed the final merit list with private employers?

A. Pratibha Setu

B. Vishesh Yojana

C. Yuva Vikas

D. Udyog Setu

Solutions

The UPSC launched the Pratibha Setu platform to connect deserving candidates who cleared all stages of the UPSC exams but narrowly missed the final merit list with potential employers from both the public and private sectors.
The platform, formerly known as the Public Disclosure Scheme, allows employers to access profiles of these non-recommended candidates who are eager to work, enhancing their employability and visibility.
The initiative aims to tap into India’s untapped talent pool, ensuring these candidates don’t face disillusionment after years of hard work, and offering them new career opportunities.

116. In which of the following years was the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 amended?

A. 2015

B. 2021

C. 2019

D. 2013

Solutions

The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 was amended in 2021 to strengthen child protection laws in India. The Juvenile Justice (Amendment) Act,

2021 was passed to address implementation gaps and improve the adoption and protection mechanisms for children.

117. Which of the following resembles the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935?

A. Anti-Defection Law

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Judicial review

D. Preamble of the Constitution

Solutions

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ outlined in the Government of India Act, 1935. These principles, though non-justiciable (not enforceable by courts), guide the government in making laws and policies for the welfare of the people. The Instrument of Instructions was a set of guidelines for the executive, and similarly, the DPSPs direct the government to strive towards social and economic justice, secularism, and welfare of the people.

118. Which organization won the Digital Payments Award 2024–25 presented by the Ministry of Finance’s Department of Financial Services?

A. State Bank of India

B. India Post Payments Bank

C. HDFC Bank

D. ICICI Bank

Solutions

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) won the Digital Payments Award 2024–25, awarded by the Department of Financial Services under the Ministry of Finance.
IPPB was recognized for its exceptional performance in expanding digital financial services, particularly in underserved rural areas, and its efforts to promote financial inclusion across India.
The award was presented in New Delhi, with Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman and Minister of State for Finance Pankaj Chaudhary attending the ceremony.
IPPB was ranked 1st among all Payments Banks in India according to the DFS Performance Index for 2024–25, and it had previously received a Special Mention Award for its efforts in FY 2023–24.

119. Identify the group of crops which is grown in Kharif Season in India?

A. Jute and Wheat

B. Gram and Mustard

C. Urad and Cotton

D. Groundnut and Barley

Solutions

The Kharif season in India is typically from June to September and is characterized by the onset of the monsoon rains. Crops grown in the Kharif season include those that require abundant water, which makes crops like Urad (Black gram) and Cotton ideal for this period.

120. What is the title of A.K. Bhattacharya’s third book, and what period does it cover?

A. The Reformers (1977–1998)

B. Different Strokes (1998–2014)

C. The Stewards of Destiny (1947–1977)

D. India’s Economic Journey (1998–2014)

Solutions

A.K. Bhattacharya has released his third book titled “Different Strokes (1998–2014)”.
This book is part of a trilogy that chronicles the work of India’s finance ministers during crucial periods of economic reform.
The book focuses on the years following the 1991 reforms, a transformative phase in India’s economic history, covering the tenures of four finance ministers: Yashwant Sinha, Jaswant Singh, Pranab Mukherjee, and P. Chidambaram.
The book provides a non-judgmental and clinical analysis of India’s economic governance, focusing on key policy decisions, challenges, and missed opportunities.

121. Which writ literally means ‘what is your authority’?

A. Habeas Corpus

B. Mandamus

C. Quo-Warranto

D. Prohibition

Solutions

The writ “Quo-Warranto” is a Latin term that literally means “By what authority?” or “What is your authority?”

This writ is issued by a court to prevent a person from illegally occupying a public office to which they are not entitled.

It questions the legality of the person’s claim to a public position and can remove them from office if they do not have a valid legal authority.

122. Kabir is believed to have become a disciple of which Bhakti poet-saint?

A. Sant Tukaram

B. Swami Ramananda

C. Sant Eknath

D. Guru Nanak

Solutions

Kabir is widely believed to have become one of the disciples of Swami Ramananda, a prominent Bhakti poet-saint known for his devotional teachings within the Vaishnavism tradition of Hinduism. Swami Ramananda emphasized the importance of devotion to Lord Rama and incorporated aspects of monist Advaita philosophy, which teaches that God resides inside every person and everything. Kabir, under Ramananda’s guidance, is said to have adopted this path of devotion while focusing on a personal connection with the divine.
Kabir’s early teachings are influenced by both the Vaishnava tradition of Hinduism and the Sufi tradition of Islam, reflecting his syncretic approach to spirituality. He drew from both Hindu and Islamic teachings to develop his own unique spiritual philosophy, which focused on devotion, unity of God, and rejection of rituals.

123. What is the highest peak in Honduras?

A. Mount Tajumulco

B. Mount Aconcagua

C. Mount Las Minas

D. Mount Elgon

Solutions

Mount Las Minas, also known as Cerro Las Minas, is the highest peak in Honduras, with an elevation of approximately 2,870 meters (9,416 feet) above sea level. It is located in the Celaque National Park in western Honduras, near the border with El Salvador. The mountain is part of the Cordillera de Celaque, a forested and ecologically rich region known for its cloud forests and biodiversity, including many endemic species. Las Minas is a significant ecological site and an important watershed for the region. The peak’s elevation also contributes to cooler temperatures and unique microclimates within the tropical country, attracting ecotourism and scientific interest.

124. The expanded BRICS Parliamentary Forum now includes which of the following countries?

A. United States

B. Iran, UAE, Egypt, Ethiopia, Indonesia

C. Germany, France, Japan

D. Canada, Australia, Mexico

Solutions

The expanded BRICS Parliamentary Forum now includes not only the original BRICS countries— Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa—but also several new nations: Iran, the UAE, Egypt, Ethiopia, and Indonesia. This expansion signifies a growing interest in broader international cooperation and aims to foster a more inclusive platform for dialogue.
This broader forum allows for the inclusion of emerging economies and regions that are becoming increasingly important in the global political and economic landscape. These countries represent key regions like the Middle East, Africa, and Southeast Asia, and their participation enriches the discussions and strategies for global cooperation. The aim is to create a more diverse and multi-polar global order, with emphasis on peace, development, and security.

125. The component of white light that has maximum refractive index is:

A. red

B. yellow

C. violet

D. green

Solutions

When white light passes through a prism, it splits into its seven constituent colors due to dispersion.
This happens because each color has a different wavelength, and hence a different refractive index in the medium.
Violet light has the shortest wavelength and hence slows down the most when passing through a medium like glass.
Therefore, violet deviates the most and has the highest refractive index among the visible components of light.
Conversely, red light has the longest wavelength and the least refractive index, so it deviates the least.

126. Match the following:

Treaty of Surat – 1665
Treaty of Salbai – 1775
Treaty of Purandhar – 1782

A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b

D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a

Solutions

Treaty of Surat (1775): Signed between Raghunath Rao (Maratha leader) and the British East India Company during the First Anglo-Maratha War.
Treaty of Salbai (1782): Ended the First Anglo-Maratha War. Signed between the Marathas and the British, it restored the pre-war status quo.
Treaty of Purandhar (1665): Signed between Shivaji and Jai Singh I, a Mughal general, during the time of Aurangzeb.

127. Which Indian city has recently submitted its nominations for inclusion in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) as a “City of Gastronomy”?

A. Delhi

B. Jodhpur

C. Lucknow

D. Mysuru

Solutions

1. Lucknow’s Nomination: Lucknow, the capital city of Uttar Pradesh, has officially submitted its nomination for inclusion in the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) as a “City of Gastronomy”. The city’s rich culinary heritage and its history of food culture made it a strong contender for this title.
2. Role of Heritage Conservationist: The nomination was prepared by heritage conservationist Abha Narain Lambah, who documented the city’s gastronomic legacy, which has evolved from royal kitchens to street food enjoyed by people from all walks of life.
3. Culinary Heritage: Lucknow’s culinary heritage is a blend of royal and commoner traditions, with iconic dishes like nihari, biryani, kulfi, khasta, and jalebi, which are an integral part of the city’s food culture.
4. Living Culinary Traditions: The nomination emphasizes living culinary traditions from royal kitchens to the streets, reflecting the diversity and historical significance of Lucknow’s food culture across different communities.

128. Which of the following is not a tributary of the Chenab River?

A. Miyar Nalla

B. Marusudar

C. Lidrari

D. Tons River

Solutions

The Chenab River has several tributaries that join it in the upper reaches of Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir. These include Miyar Nalla, Sohal, Thirot, Bhut Nalla, Marusudar, and Lidrari, which are primarily mountain streams contributing to the flow of the Chenab as it travels from its origin at the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers in Lahaul & Spiti.
On the other hand, the Tons River is not a tributary of the Chenab. It is one of the largest tributaries of the Yamuna River, flowing through Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh, and joins the Yamuna in the Doon Valley. It is significant in the Ganga river basin and has no hydrological connection to the Indus river system.

129. Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during the __________ Five-Year Plan covering 15 districts.

A. Second

B. Fourth

C. Fifth

D. Sixth

Solutions

· Hill Area Development Programme (HADP) was launched during the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–79) to promote balanced development in hilly and tribal regions.
· It aimed to reduce disparities and integrate remote regions into mainstream development.

130. The Snana Yatra is celebrated on which day of the Hindu month of Jyestha?

A. Amavasya

B. Purnima

C. Ekadashi

D. Dwadashi

Solutions

· Snana Yatra is a significant festival celebrated on the full moon day (Purnima) of the Hindu month Jyestha.
· It is considered to be the birthday of Lord Jagannath and marks an important ritual before the start of the Rath Yatra festival in Puri, Odisha.
· During Snana Yatra, the idols of Lord Jagannath, Lord Balabhadra, and Goddess Subhadra are ceremonially bathed with water and sacred liquids, followed by a grand procession.
· The festival signals the beginning of the preparations for the annual Rath Yatra (chariot procession), one of the most famous religious festivals in India.

131. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?

A. Silicon

B. Antimony

C. Arsenic

D. Selenium

Solutions

Selenium is a non-metal, whereas Silicon, Antimony, and Arsenic are classified as metalloids (semi-metals) because they exhibit properties intermediate between metals and non-metals.

Metalloids have characteristics such as semiconductivity and appear along the “stair-step” line in the periodic table.

132. Article 45 (concerning child education) was modified by which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?

A. 44th Amendment

B. 73rd Amendment

C. 86th Amendment

D. 42th Amendment

Solutions

Article 45 of the Indian Constitution, which originally mandated free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14 years, was modified by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.

Article 21-A: The 86th Amendment inserted Article 21-Ainto the Constitution, which made education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.

Free and Compulsory Education: It mandated that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.

133. The __________ dance icon Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma enjoys a pre-eminent place in the ‘sree-veshham’ hall of fame.

A. Mohiniyattam

B. Kuchipudi

C. Kathak

D. Bharatanatyam

Solutions

· Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma was a legendary performer of the Kuchipudi dance form.
· He was known for performing female roles in Kuchipudi, especially in Sree-veshham (female impersonation) tradition.

134. Recently, on June 15, 2025, the Union Government launched a large-scale outreach campaign primarily to promote which two tribal welfare schemes?

A. PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana and Ujjwala Yojana

B. PM Kisan and Ayushman Bharat

C. PM JANMAN and Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan

D. Stand-Up India and Skill India Mission

Solutions

On June 15, 2025, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched a nationwide outreach campaign targeting more than 1 lakh tribal-dominated villages across 500 districts. This fortnight-long campaign focuses on saturating tribal regions with benefits under two key flagship schemes: Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN) and Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan. These schemes aim to improve the socio-economic and legal conditions of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and broader tribal communities. The outreach involves services like Aadhaar enrollment, Ayushman Bharat card issuance, opening of Jan Dhan and pension accounts, and land/forest rights processing under the FRA. Embedded within the Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh, it combines welfare delivery with cultural recognition.

135. Which of the following articles was added to the Indian Constitution through the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011?

A. Article 151

B. Article 43B

C. Article 127

D. Article 51

Solutions

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 added Article 43B to the Indian Constitution.
Article 43B provides for the promotion of cooperative societies in India. It deals with the rights of cooperative societies to form, operate, and be regulated by laws passed by the state legislature.
The amendment aimed at giving more legal protection and recognition to the cooperative societies and providing a legal framework to regulate and strengthen them, ensuring their functioning and democratic control.

136. What is the theme for International Yoga Day 2025?

A. Yoga for World Peace

B. Yoga for One Earth, One Health

C. Yoga for Mental Health

D. Yoga for Sustainable Living

Solutions

The theme for International Yoga Day 2025 is “Yoga for One Earth, One Health”.
This theme underscores the interconnectedness between human health and the health of the planet, urging people to adopt Yoga as a practice not only for personal fitness but also for sustainable living and environmental consciousness.
The theme aligns with the global “One Health” initiative, which emphasizes the integrated health of people, animals, and ecosystems, and highlights the importance of maintaining harmony with nature for overall well-being.

137. The last Indian Olympic Games were held in __________.

A. Lahore

B. Delhi

C. Bombay

D. Calcutta

Solutions

· The last Indian Olympic Games were held in Calcutta (Kolkata) in 1940.
· These were precursor to the National Games and later absorbed into India’s Olympic movement post-independence.

138. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. Gram Panchayat is chaired by the Gram Pradhan or Sarpanch or Mukhia.

B. Panchyat Samiti is the grass root institution of the Panchayati Raj System.

C. Zilla Parishad is the apex body of Panchayati Raj System.

D. Members of the Gram Panchayat are elected by a secret ballot.

Solutions

The correct answer is (b) Panchayat Samiti is the grass root institution of the Panchayati Raj System.

The Gram Panchayat is the grassroot-level institution in the Panchayati Raj System and is chaired by the Gram Pradhan (also called Sarpanch or Mukhia).
The Panchayat Samiti is the intermediate level of Panchayati Raj, operating at the block or tehsil level, not the grassroot level.
The Zilla Parishad is the apex or highest body in the three-tier Panchayati Raj structure, functioning at the district level.
Members of the Gram Panchayat are elected through secret ballot voting, ensuring democratic selection at the village level.

139. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the major Indian national movements?

A. Civil Disobedience → Quit India → Swadeshi → Non-Cooperation

B. Non-Cooperation → Civil Disobedience → Quit India → Swadeshi

C. Swadeshi → Non-Cooperation → Civil Disobedience → Quit India

D. Quit India → Civil Disobedience → Non-Cooperation → Swadeshi

Solutions

The chronological order of major Indian national movements is as follows:

Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908): This was a response to the partition of Bengal and focused on boycotting British goods and promoting indigenous products.

Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922): Led by Mahatma Gandhi, this movement aimed to resist British rule through non-violent means, including the boycott of foreign goods, institutions, and services.

Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-1934): Gandhi’s call for defying British laws, most notably through the Salt March, marked this phase of active resistance against British rule.

Quit India Movement (1942): This was a direct demand for India’s immediate independence from British rule, initiated during World War II, leading to mass protests and arrests.

140. Select the correct alternative on the basis of the given statements on the Great Bath of Harappan civilisation.

Statement I: The Great Bath was found in Mohenjo-Daro site of Harappan civilisation.
Statement II: The Great Bath was lined with bricks, coated with plaster and made water-tight with a layer of natural tar.

A. Only Statement II is true.

B. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true.

C. Only Statement I is true.

D. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Solutions

The correct answer is (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

· Statement I: The Great Bath was indeed found at the Mohenjo-Daro site of the Harappan civilisation. It is one of the most famous and well-preserved structures from this ancient city.
· Statement II: The Great Bath was lined with bricks, coated with plaster, and made water-tight with a layer of natural tar (bitumen). This advanced engineering indicates the significance of water and bathing in the Harappan society, possibly for ritualistic purposes.

141. Why is Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) important for a country?

A. It creates jobs and boosts economic growth

B. It increases national debt

C. It reduces inflation

D. It limits imports

Solutions

FDI brings in capital, technology, and expertise to a country. It creates job opportunities and stimulates economic growth by boosting infrastructure, productivity, and global trade relations.

142. The Vernacular Press Act was enacted in which year in British India to limit the freedom of the Indian-language press?

A. 1875

B. 1876

C. 1878

D. 1879

Solutions

· The Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was introduced by Lord Lytton to curb the freedom of Indian-language newspapers critical of British rule.

143. Which of the following is not a tool of the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) Monetary Policy?

A. Reverse Repo Rate

B. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

C. Capital Gains Tax Rate

D. Open Market Operations (OMOs)

Solutions

1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses a variety of monetary policy tools to manage inflation, control liquidity, and ensure financial stability.
2. Tools such as the Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and Open Market Operations (OMOs) are key components of this policy framework.
3. The Capital Gains Tax Rate, on the other hand, is a fiscal tool determined by the Government of India (Ministry of Finance), not by the RBI. It is related to taxation policy, not monetary management.
4. RBI’s monetary tools are classified under quantitative instruments (e.g., CRR, SLR, OMOs) and qualitative instruments (like selective credit control).
5. These instruments impact credit flow, interest rates, inflation control, and liquidity in the banking system—but not taxation.

144. Chota Nagpur is a __________ in India.

A. river

B. plain

C. mountain

D. plateau

Solutions

· The Chota Nagpur Plateau is a peninsular plateau region in eastern India, rich in minerals.
· It is spread across Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh.

145. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Thousand Faces of Night’?

A. Urvashi Butalia

B. Meena Alexander

C. Githa Hariharan

D. Namita Gokhale

Solutions

· Githa Hariharan is the author of the acclaimed novel ‘The Thousand Faces of Night’, published in 1992.
· The novel explores women’s roles and struggles in Indian society, weaving together myth, memory, and modern reality.
· It won the Commonwealth Writers’ Prize for Best First Book (Asia).

146. In which year was the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) established?

A. 2000

B. 2004

C. 2010

D. 2015

Solutions

1. Establishment of UCCN: The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was established in 2004 to promote the idea of creativity as a key driver for sustainable urban development and to foster international cooperation among cities that prioritize creativity in areas like gastronomy, music, and design.
2. Objective of UCCN: The main objective of UCCN is to encourage cities to use creativity as a tool for urban development, in line with Sustainable Development Goal 11 (SDG-11) — to make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient, and sustainable.
3. Sectors Covered by UCCN: The network includes cities excelling in a variety of creative fields, including gastronomy, music, literature, crafts and folk arts, design, film, and media arts. These cities work together to share knowledge and experiences that contribute to sustainable urban growth.

147. Identify another name of Choanocytes.

A. Stem cells

B. Collar cells

C. Flame cells

D. Sperm cells

Solutions

· Choanocytes, also known as collar cells, are specialized flagellated cells found in sponges (Porifera).
· They generate water currents and help in food capture and digestion.

148. Identify the Incorrect statement.

A. The 13th Finance Commission recommended the introduction of GST

B. The President appoints the members of the Finance Commission

C. The Finance Commission’s recommendations are binding on the government

D. The tenure of the Finance Commission is five years

Solutions

The Finance Commission’s recommendations are not binding on the government. They are merely advisory in nature, and it is up to the government to decide the implementation of these recommendations.

149. As per the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, India is a country which has which of the following nature/feature?

Statement I: Sovereign socialist only
Statement II: Sovereign socialist secular democratic republic

A. Only I

B. Neither I nor II

C. Both I and II

D. Only II

Solutions

The Preamble of the Constitution of India describes the nature of the Indian state as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.
Statement II is correct as it accurately reflects the full expression used in the Preamble after the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which inserted the terms ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’.

150. Which of the following is true about the engineering features of the Chenab Rail Bridge?

A. It consists of a wooden arch and is designed for 25 years of lifespan.

B. It consists of 93 deck segments and can withstand winds up to 266 kmph.

C. The bridge arch is made entirely of concrete beams.

D. It is not designed for earthquake or blast resistance.

Solutions

1. The Chenab Rail Bridge is an architectural and structural marvel featuring 17 spans, including a main steel arch span of 467 metres, making it the longest single-arch railway span in the world.
2. The arch is constructed from steel boxes, filled with concrete to enhance structural stability and rigidity, especially in extreme weather and seismic conditions.
3. The deck of the bridge comprises 93 segments, each weighing about 85 tonnes, reflecting the scale and strength of its design.
4. The bridge has been designed with a projected lifespan of 120 years, ensuring long-term operational safety.
5. It is engineered to withstand high wind speeds of up to 266 kmph, making it resilient against harsh Himalayan climatic conditions.
6. The bridge is built to be both blast-proof and earthquake-resistant, capable of withstanding zone-V seismic activity, which is the highest risk zone in India.

English

151.Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in bold in the following sentence.
Forgetting the past is inevitable for being able to create a future.

A. inescapable

B. extravagant

C. privileged

D. unpredictable

Solutions

Inevitable: Refers to something that is unavoidable or certain to happen. (अनिवार्य / अपरिहार्य)
Example: Change is inevitable in life.
Inescapable: Having the same meaning – cannot be avoided or ignored. (जिससे बचा न जा सके)
Example: Death is an inescapable reality of life.
Synonyms: unavoidable, certain, bound to happen, fated
Antonyms: avoidable, preventable, uncertain, improbable

152. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A. Copulate

B. Ignision

C. Portion

D. Horticulture

Solutions

Correct spelling is: “Ignition” – It refers to the action of setting something on fire or starting combustion (दहन या इंजन चालू करने की क्रिया).
Part of Speech: Noun
Example: The car failed to start due to a faulty ignition system.

153. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A. Occesion

B. Humorous

C. Mysterious

D. Scissors

Solutions

Correct spelling is: Occasion – An event or a particular time when something happens (मौका / अवसर)
Part of Speech: Noun
Example: The wedding was a grand occasion.

154. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.
The boss persists with his loyalists even now.

A. retinues

B. continues

C. formulates

D. discontinues

Solutions

Persists: To continue firmly or obstinately in a course of action despite difficulty or opposition. (Hindi: डटे रहना, लगातार प्रयास करना)
Example: She persists in her studies despite numerous obstacles.
Discontinues: To stop doing or providing something. (Hindi: रोक देना, बंद कर देना)
Example: The company discontinued the product due to low demand.
Synonyms: Persevere, Continue, Endure, Stick to.
Antonyms: Abandon, Quit, Discontinue, Drop.

155. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word to fill in the blank.

The medicine was so _______ (sweet) that a man had to choose sugar along with it.

A. rancid

B. sour

C. stale

D. fetid

Solutions

Sweet: Having a pleasant taste characteristic of sugar or honey. (मीठा)
Example: The juice was very sweet and refreshing.
Sour: Having an acidic taste; the opposite of sweet. (खट्टा)
Example: The milk turned sour after being left outside overnight.
Synonyms of sweet: sugary, saccharine, honeyed, luscious
Antonyms of sweet: sour, bitter, tart, acrid

156. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence.

I visited the hospital to enquire about eyes surgery.

A. enquire about eye surgery

B. enquire for eyes surgery

C. enquired about eye surgery

D. No substitution

Solutions

The noun “surgery” is uncountable in this context and refers to a medical operation, which should be used in its singular form. “Eyes surgery” is grammatically incorrect because “eye” here is used as an attributive noun (adjective-like role) to describe the type of surgery.
Also, “enquire” is correctly used in the present form to indicate a general purpose visit.
Correct sentence: I visited the hospital to enquire about eye surgery.

157. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Frivolous

A. Popular

B. Reputed

C. Nervous

D. Serious

Solutions

Frivolous: Not having any serious purpose or value; silly or trivial. (गंभीरता रहित / तुच्छ)
Example: He was criticized for his frivolous remarks during the meeting.
Serious: Thoughtful or earnest in character or manner. (गंभीर)
Example: She gave a serious reply to the director’s question.
Synonyms: trivial, silly, petty, superficial.
Antonyms: serious, grave, important, sincere.

158. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Child’s play

A. An easy task

B. Cricket

C. A restricted playground

D. Children’s drama

Solutions

Child’s play: Something that is extremely easy to do (बहुत आसान काम)

Example:
This coding assignment was child’s play for an experienced developer.

3 Similar Idioms:
· A piece of cake – Very easy task.
· No sweat – Done without much effort.
· Walk in the park – An easy and enjoyable task.

159. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Easily provoked

A. Invincible

B. Irascible

C. Iridescent

D. Irrational

Solutions

Irascible: Someone who gets angry very easily; short-tempered. (जल्दी गुस्सा होने वाला)
Example: His irascible nature makes him difficult to work with.

160. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Stupendous

A. Stunning

B. Magnifying

C. Shining

D. Amplifying

Solutions

Given Word – Stupendous:
· Meaning: Extremely impressive, large, or astonishing (चकित कर देने वाला)
· Example: The team made a stupendous effort to win the match.

Correct Answer – Stunning:
· Meaning: Extremely impressive or attractive (चकित कर देने वाला)
· Example: Her stunning performance received a standing ovation.
Synonyms: marvelous, astonishing, stunning, phenomenal.
Antonyms: ordinary, unimpressive, dull.

161. Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given in bold in the following sentence.
The memory of all that blood was enough to make my flesh crawl.

A. frightened me

B. worried me

C. drew my attention

D. confused me

Solutions

Idiom – “make my flesh crawl”: It means to cause a feeling of extreme fear, disgust or uneasiness. (डर या घृणा की वजह से रोंगटे खड़े हो जाना)
Example: The thought of insects crawling on me makes my flesh crawl.

Three Similar Idioms:
· Send shivers down one’s spine – to frighten someone
· Turn one’s stomach – to make someone feel sick/disgusted
· Scare the life out of someone – to frighten someone badly

162. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

While the stock market experiences volatility, financial analysts ___________________ market trends and provide investment advice.

A. monitored

B. monitor

C. have monitored

D. were monitored

Solutions

· The sentence is in the present tense as indicated by “experiences.”
· Since financial analysts regularly track market trends, the simple present tense is required.
· “Monitor” (verb) means to observe and check the progress or quality of something over time (निगरानी रखना).
Example: Financial analysts monitor economic trends to predict market movements.

163. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Tick all the boxes

A. To make a bad situation worse

B. To fulfill the required norms

C. To be extremely happy

D. To make a decision

Solutions

Tick all the boxes: To meet all necessary criteria, conditions, or expectations. (सभी आवश्यकताओं को पूरा करना)
Example: The candidate ticked all the boxes for the job requirements.

3 Similar Idioms:
· Fit the bill – To be suitable for a particular purpose.
· Cut the mustard – To meet expectations.
· Meet the bar – To fulfill the minimum requirement.

164. Identify the sentence with the INCORRECT usage of an adverb.

A. Nila hardly ever arrives on time for meetings.

B. Nila never arrives on time for meetings.

C. Nila arrives always on time for meetings.

D. Nila usually arrives on time for meetings.

Solutions

Adverbs of frequency (always, usually, never, etc.) are placed before the main verb but after the verb ‘to be’. In (c), the adverb “always” is incorrectly placed after the verb “arrives.”
Correct Sentence: Nila always arrives on time for meetings.
Grammatical Rule Used:
✔ Adverbs of frequency go before the main verb, but after the verb ‘to be’.
�� Information Booster:
✔ She always eats breakfast.
✘ She eats always breakfast.

165. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who makes an active effort to promote human welfare

A. Philanthropist

B. Philosopher

C. Philanderer

D. Physicist

Solutions

A philanthropist is someone who actively promotes human welfare by charitable donations or activities. (मानवता के कल्याण के लिए कार्य करने वाला व्यक्ति)
Example: The philanthropist donated 10 crores to build a school.

166. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Funny stories made me and my brother_________.

A. conscious

B. determined

C. giggly

D. gritty

Solutions

The subject is “funny stories,” which would logically make someone laugh or giggle. “Giggly” means inclined to laugh in a silly or light-hearted way. (हँसोड़ / हँसी रोक न पाने वाला)

Example: The children became giggly while watching the cartoon.

167. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

His modest nature made all the difference.

A. courageous

B. dry

C. shy

D. horrific

Solutions

Given Word – Modest:
· Meaning: Having a humble estimate of one’s importance or abilities; not boastful or arrogant. (विनम्र / संकोची)
· Example: He is a modest man who never brags about his achievements.

Correct Answer – Shy:
· Meaning: Nervous or timid in the company of others; lacking confidence. (संकोची)
· Example: She felt too shy to speak in front of the crowd.
Synonyms: humble, reserved, meek, shy.
Antonyms: arrogant, boastful, proud, conceited.

168. Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

In humans, consumption of alcohol, stimulate brain cells to release mood-altering dopamine.

A. In humans, consumption of alcohol,

B. release mood-altering dopamine.

C. stimulate brain cells to

D. No error

Solutions

· Explanation: The subject “consumption” is singular, but the verb “stimulate” is plural.
· It should be “stimulates” to match the singular subject.

Grammatical Rule (English):
· Subject-verb agreement: singular subject takes singular verb (e.g., consumption stimulates)

Grammatical Rule (Hindi):
· एकवचन कर्ता के साथ क्रिया भी एकवचन होती है।
· उदाहरण: The book is useful.

169. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Comic

A. Native

B. Costly

C. Tragic

D. Empty

Solutions

Comic: Something meant to make people laugh or feel amused. (हास्यपूर्ण)
Example: The show had a comic element that entertained everyone.
Tragic: Causing extreme sadness or disaster. (दुखद / करुण)
Example: The movie had a tragic ending that moved the audience to tears.
Synonyms: humorous, amusing, witty, comical.
Antonyms: tragic, sorrowful, depressing, painful.

170. Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given in bold in the following sentence.

The minister is a little hard of hearing.

A. inaccessible

B. callous

C. partially deaf

D. insensitive

Solutions

Hard of hearing: This idiom means someone who has partial hearing loss or finds it difficult to hear clearly. It is a polite or indirect expression often used for people who are aging or facing hearing difficulties. (अधक-बहरा या कम सुनने वाला)
Example: My grandmother is hard of hearing, so we speak to her loudly and clearly.

3 Similar Idioms and Their Meanings:
· Fall on deaf ears – to be ignored or not taken seriously.
· Turn a deaf ear – to deliberately ignore or refuse to listen.
· Give someone an earful – to scold or reprimand someone severely.

171. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

His action doesn’t warrant such a punishment.

A. triumph

B. support

C. captivate

D. breach

Solutions

Warrant: To justify or deserve something; especially a course of action. (औचित्य प्रदान करना / उचित ठहराना)
Example: His rude behaviour doesn’t warrant sympathy.
Support: To approve, justify, or back up something (समर्थन करना) – antonym when the context is about denying justification.
Example: We cannot support such misconduct.
Synonyms: justify, authorize, guarantee, permit.
Antonyms: oppose, contradict, deny, support.

172. Fill in the blanks in the following sentences by choosing the right word out of the options given.

We should not compromise _____________ safety standards

A. On

B. With

C. Over

D. Above

Solutions

The correct preposition to use with “compromise” in the context of accepting lower standards is “with”.

Grammatical rule used:
“Compromise with + noun” indicates that you’re accepting or negotiating at a lesser standard or making an agreement with someone/something.
Example: Never compromise with your values.

173. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A. Hilarious

B. Demolish

C. Magnificient

D. Gargantuan

Solutions

Correct spelling is: Magnificent – Something that is grand, splendid or impressive. (भव्य / शानदार)

Part of Speech: Adjective

Example: The Taj Mahal is a magnificent monument.

174. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

(A) The cat quiet stalked its prey, / (B) moving stealthily through the tall grass, / (C) demonstrating its hunting skills / (D) with great precision and grace.

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. B

Solutions

The word “quiet” (adjective) is incorrectly used instead of “quietly” (adverb). It should be “The cat quietly stalked its prey.”
Grammatical Rule Used:
✔ Adverbs modify verbs and describe how something is done. Use adverbs like quickly, quietly, etc., not adjectives.

Example:
✘ He spoke soft.
✔ He spoke softly.
�� Information Booster:

175. Parts of the given sentence have been given as options. One of them may contain an error.

The General have ordered that the troops should move immediately.

A. immediately

B. No error

C. that the troops should move

D. The General have ordered

Solutions

The subject “The General” is singular, so the verb must agree in number. The verb used here, ‘have ordered’, is plural and therefore incorrect. It should be “has ordered.”

Grammatical Rule Used: Subject-Verb Agreement
· A singular subject takes a singular verb.
· A plural subject takes a plural verb.
· “The General” is singular → needs “has” instead of “have.”

Structure Example:
· He has completed his task.
· They have completed their task.

Incorrect: The General have ordered.
Correct: The General has ordered.

176. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He indeed is intelligent who _________ this and succeeds in making all work truly great.

A. was noticed

B. noticed

C. notices

D. noticing

Solutions

The sentence is in the present tense and the clause “He indeed is intelligent who _______ this…” requires a present simple verb to maintain subject-verb agreement.
“Who notices this…” correctly completes the clause referring to a person who is intelligent.

Example: He is the one who notices even the smallest details.

177. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A. Allimony

B. Hallucinate

C. Structural

D. Halloween

Solutions

Correct Spelling: Alimony – financial support paid to a spouse after divorce (गुज़ारा भत्ता)

Part of Speech: Noun

Example: He was ordered to pay alimony after the divorce.

178. Out of the given alternatives given choose the most appropriate option.

I _______ smoke when I was 20 years old.

A. use to

B. used to

C. wouldn’t

D. couldn’t

Solutions

– The phrase “used to” is used to talk about past habits or states that no longer exist.
– The speaker is referring to the past habit of smoking.

• Grammatical rule used:
– Use “used to + base verb” to indicate an activity that was routine or true in the past but no longer occurs.

• Explanation in Hindi:
– “Used to” का प्रयोग किसी ऐसे कार्य या आदत को दर्शाने के लिए किया जाता है जो पहले होती थी पर अब नहीं होती।

• Example:
– I used to play cricket every weekend.

179. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

In 1971, he was awarded the silver _____ of the Society of Arts, London.

A. metal

B. meddle

C. medieval

D. medal

Solutions

Medal: A piece of metal awarded for achievement. (Hindi – पदक)

Example: She won a gold medal for her research in biology.

180. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any

error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

She will already return home / when her parents get back / from their offices.

A. when her parents get back

B. No error

C. She will already return home

D. from their offices

Solutions

“Will already return” is incorrect. We use “will have returned” for an action that will be completed before another future action.
Correct sentence: She will have already returned home when her parents get back.

Grammatical Rule Used:
· Future perfect: will + have + past participle (used to indicate an action completed before a specific time in the future).

· Example:
· She will have reached by the time you arrive.

181. In the following questions a statement has been given with highlighted text. Select the options that can replace the text with correct idiom or phrase.

The attitude of the culprit made the judge extremely angry.

A. Throw caution to the wind

B. Make one’s blood boil

C. Play by the ear

D. Back to the drawing board

Solutions

Idiom – “Make one’s blood boil”: To make someone very angry. (गुस्से से खून खौल उठना)
Example: His arrogance made my blood boil.

Three similar idioms:
· Blow a gasket – to get very angry.
· Fly off the handle – to lose temper suddenly.
· See red – to become very angry.

182. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who is well versed in many languages

A. Verbose

B. Linguist

C. Polyglot

D. Stalwart

Solutions

Polyglot: A person who knows and is able to use several languages. (बहुभाषी व्यक्ति)

Example: She’s a polyglot, fluent in French, Spanish, and German.

183. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted group of words.

The rich man was known all throughout the country for his noble deeds, kindness and as one who makes an active effort to promote human welfare.

A. Squanderer

B. Spendthrift

C. Pacifist

D. Philanthropist

Solutions

A philanthropist is someone who works for the welfare of others, especially by donating generously for humanitarian causes. (जनकल्याण के लिए कार्य करने वाला)

Example: Ratan Tata is a well-known philanthropist admired worldwide.

184. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

Something that will cure all illnesses

A. Wine

B. Vaccination

C. Panacea

D. Tonic

Solutions

Panacea: A solution or remedy for all problems, especially a medicine for all diseases. (सर्वरोगहारी औषधि / सभी समस्याओं का हल)

Example: Education is often seen as a panacea for social problems.

185. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The activity of writing dictionaries

A. Biography

B. Lexicography

C. Bibliography

D. Theology

Solutions

Lexicography: The art or craft of writing, compiling, or editing dictionaries. (शब्दकोश-लेखन)

Example: He pursued a career in lexicography after studying linguistics.

186. In the following questions a statement has been given with highlighted text. Select the options that can replace the text with correct idiom or phrase.
The coach felt extremely nervous on seeing the team performing poorly in the first quarter.

A. Heart skipped a beat

B. Like a cakewalk

C. Crying Wolf

D. Raining cats and dogs

Solutions

Idiom: Heart skipped a beat
Meaning: To feel sudden shock, nervousness, or excitement.
Hindi Meaning: एकदम से घबराहट या झटका महसूस होना

Example: My heart skipped a beat when I saw the results.

Other Related Idioms:
· Get cold feet – To suddenly become nervous.
· Have butterflies in the stomach – To feel anxious.
· On pins and needles – To be in suspense or anxiety.

187. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an INCORRECTLY spelt word.

It was really surprising / that the two bosom friends fought / over such a triviale matter / and stopped all communications with each other.

A. It was really surprising

B. over such a triviale matter

C. and stopped all communications with each other

D. that the two bosom friends fought

Solutions

Correct spelling is: “trivial” – meaning something of little value or importance. (तुच्छ / महत्वहीन)

Part of Speech: Adjective

Example: The siblings argued over a trivial issue.

188. Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose ‘No improvement’ as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct. In the summer, the weathering can be very hot around here.

A. weather is be

B. weathers could being

C. No improvement

D. weather can be

Solutions

The correct substitution of the underlined part is (d) weather can be. Explanation: The word “weathering” is incorrect in this context. “Weathering” is a noun used in geography to describe the process of breaking down rocks, not climatic conditions. The correct term is “weather.”

Correct sentence: In the summer, the weather can be very hot around here.

Grammatical Rule Used: • When referring to atmospheric conditions, we use the uncountable noun “weather.” • “Can be” is correctly used to express possibility.

Example: The weather can be unpredictable in the mountains.

189. Fill in the blanks in the following sentences by choosing the right world out of the options given at the end of each sentence.

We can look __________ the word in the dictionary

A. For

B. Up

C. On

D. Over

Solutions

The phrasal verb “look up” means to search for information, especially in a dictionary or book.

Grammatical rule used:
Many verbs combine with prepositions or adverbs to form phrasal verbs that convey a new meaning.

Example: She looked up the meaning of the word online.

190. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Fanatic

A. Extremist

B. Tolerant

C. Lunatic

D. Fantastic

Solutions

Fanatic: A person filled with excessive zeal, often in religion or politics; someone who is intolerant towards differing opinions. (कट्टर विचारों वाला व्यक्ति)
Example: He was a religious fanatic who couldn’t accept any other views.

Tolerant: Willing to accept or respect different opinions, beliefs, or behavior. (सहिष्णु)
Example: A good teacher must be tolerant of differing student perspectives.
Synonyms: zealot, extremist, radical, bigot.
Antonyms: moderate, open-minded, tolerant, understanding.

191. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Living organisms (1) _________ their own kind through a process called reproduction. Plants also increase in number through the process of reproduction. Different plants reproduce in different ways. Most of the flowering plants produce seeds. Plants produce many seeds. Few of these seeds (2) _________ and germinate into new plants. When a seed gets the (3) _________ amount of air, water, soil and sunlight, it grows into a plant. Fruits have seeds (4) _________ them. When a fruit (5) _________ up, the seeds inside it can be used to grow new plants of the same kind.

Select the option to fill in the blank no. 1

A. design

B. construct

C. spread

D. create

Solutions

The word that can be filled in the blank is ‘ create’ to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

• ‘ Create’ means to bring something into existence (उत्पन्न करना).
• As per the context, “Living organisms create their own kind” is appropriate, as reproduction involves the generation of similar organisms.

192. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Select the option to fill in the blank no. 2

A. prevail

B. exist

C. survive

D. bear

Solutions

The word that can be filled in the blank is ‘ survive’.

• ‘ Survive’ means to remain alive or continue to exist (बचे रहना).
• In the context of seeds, only a few survive the environment and grow into plants.

193. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Select the option to fill in the blank no. 3

A. helpful

B. equal

C. right

D. valid

Solutions

The correct option to fill in the blank is (c) right.
• ‘ Right’ means correct, suitable, or appropriate (उचित).
• Seeds need the right amount of conditions like water, air, etc., to grow.

Grammatical Rule Used:
Adjective usage: “Right” acts as an adjective here, modifying the noun “amount.”
Example: You need the right tools to fix the machine.

194. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Select the option to fill in the blank no. 4

A. interior

B. inside

C. inner

D. inward

Solutions

The word that can be filled in the blank is ‘ inside’.

• ‘ Inside’ is used as a preposition here, meaning within something (के अंदर).
• “Seeds inside fruits” is the natural and grammatically correct structure.

195. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Select the option to fill in the blank no. 5

A. soaks

B. dries

C. wipes

D. dehydrates

Solutions

The correct word to fill the blank is ‘ dries’.

• ‘ Dries’ means loses moisture and becomes dry (सूखना).
• Fruits dry up, and then their seeds can be extracted and planted.

196. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Climate policy must now put health at the centre and promote climate change mitigation policies that bring health benefits simultaneously. Health-focused climate policy would help bring about a planet that has cleaner air, more abundant and safer freshwater and food, more effective and fairer health and social protection systems and, as a result, healthier people. Investment in clean energy will yield health gains that repay those investments twice over. There are proven interventions able to reduce emissions of short-lived climate pollutants, for instance applying higher standards for vehicle emissions, which have been calculated to save approximately 2.4 million lives per year, through improved air quality and reduce global warming by about 0.5°C by 2050. The cost of renewable sources of energy has decreased significantly in the last few years, and solar energy is now cheaper than coal or gas in most major economies.

What is the ANTONYM for the word ‘intervention’, from the passage?

A. Specific

B. Evidence

C. Non-involvement

D. Data

Solutions

Intervention refers to taking action to improve a situation or stop something from worsening (Hindi: हस्तक्षेप / दख़लअंदाज़ी). The opposite would be non-involvement, meaning choosing not to take part or interfere in a situation (Hindi: हस्तक्षेप न करना / निष्क्रियता).

Explanation of context: The passage encourages positive interventions in climate policy that simultaneously improve health, so the antonym must reflect lack of action or avoidance.
( अनुच्छेद में यह बताया गया है कि जलवायु नीति में स्वास्थ्य-आधारित हस्तक्षेप जरूरी है। इसका विलोम ‘non-involvement’ यानी कोई हस्तक्षेप न करना होगा।)

197. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

What is the ANTONYM for the word ‘promote’, from the passage?

A. Conduct

B. Obstruct

C. Invade.

D. Exclude

Solutions

Promote means to support or encourage the development of something (Hindi: बढ़ावा देना / प्रोत्साहित करना).
Its antonym is Obstruct, which means to hinder or block the progress of something (Hindi: रोकना / बाधा डालना).

Explanation of context: The passage calls for promoting climate and health policies, so the opposite action would be creating obstacles or delaying such efforts.
( प्रोत्साहन देना और बाधा डालना एक-दूसरे के विपरीत हैं। यहाँ ‘promote’ के लिए सही विलोम ‘obstruct’ है।)

198. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Which of the following represents the structure of the passage?

A. Chronology

B. Critique

C. Problem-solution

D. Definition

Solutions

Problem-solution structure identifies a problem and then offers one or more solutions.
The passage highlights the climate-health crisis (problem) and then suggests climate policy intervention, renewable energy, and emission control (solutions).

Explanation of context: The writer presents environmental and health concerns, then explains how specific climate actions can solve both.
( लेखक पहले जलवायु और स्वास्थ्य की समस्या बताते हैं, फिर उसके समाधान देते हैं। यह संरचना ‘समस्या-समाधान’ कहलाती है।)

199. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Which of the following most accurately states the central idea of the passage?

A. Greenhouse gases

B. Pollution

C. Climate policy for health

D. Fossil fuels

Solutions

The central idea of the passage is that climate policy should integrate health benefits, and that such policies—like using clean energy and reducing pollutants—can improve public health while addressing climate change.

Explanation of context: The whole passage focuses on aligning climate strategies with health outcomes.
( अनुच्छेद का मुख्य विचार यह है कि जलवायु नीतियों को स्वास्थ्य लाभों के साथ जोड़ा जाना चाहिए।)

200. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Which is the best description of the tone of the passage?

A. Biased

B. Cynical

C. Technical

D. Humanistic

Solutions

Humanistic tone reflects concern for human well-being and values. The passage talks about climate action through the lens of improving human health, clean air, safe water, and fairer systems—reflecting care for humanity.

Explanation of context: The focus is on using climate policy not just to save the planet but also to make life better for people.
( इस अनुच्छेद की भाषा और उद्देश्य मानव कल्याण के प्रति चिंता दर्शाते हैं, जो इसे ‘humanistic’ बनाता है।)

SSC CPO Tier I 2025 Mock Test 1

Reasoning

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