1.O is a centroid of △PQR .The median is PS and QT intersects at right angle triangle. If the length of PS =9 cm and QT= 12 cm then Find out the length of PQ.
A. 9.5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 11 cm
D. 10.5 cm
Solutions
PS = 9 cm
PO = ⅔ × 9 = 6 cm
QT = 12 cm
QO = ⅔ ×12 = 8 cm
∆POQ is a right angle triangle.
2. If θ is an acute angle and sin 4θ +cos4θ = 2 sin2θ cos2θ then find the value of tan θ.
A. 1
B. 2
C. √2
D. 0
Solutions
sin4θ +cos4θ -2 sin2θ cos2θ = 0
(sin2θ – cos2θ)2 = 0
sin2θ = cos2θ
tan2θ = 1
tanθ = + 1 (θ is an acute angle)
3. A Shopkeeper marked the price of a watch 20% above cost price. He allowed two successive discounts of 10% and 25% to a customer. As result he incurred a loss of Rs.684. At what price did he sell the watch to the customer?
A. 1770
B. 2170
C. 2916
D. 1996
Solutions
Let be CP = 100
MP = 120
Price after two successive discount = 120×90/100×75/100= 81
Loss = 100 – 81 = 19%
19 % of CP= 684
CP = 684 × 100/19 = 3600
SP = 3600×81/100 = 2916
4. A truck after travelling 100 km from Allahabad meets with an accident and then proceeds at 3/4 of its original speed and arrives Lucknow 90 minutes late. If the truck meets the accident 60 km further on, it would have reached 15 minutes sooner. Find the original speed of the truck?
A. 60km/hr
B. 120km/hr
C. 100km/hr
D. 80km/hr
Solutions
Let distance between Allahabad and Lucknow be D km
Real speed of a truck = S km/hr
First time truck takes 90 minutes more and second time car takes 75 minutes more than scheduled time.
So, T1 – T2 = 15/60 hr
15/60 = [100/S + (D -100)/(3S/4)] – [160/S + (D – 160)/(3S/4)]
1/4 = (300+4D-400)/3S-(480+ 4D-640)/3S
1/ 4 =(4D-100 +160 -4D)/3S
1/4 = 60/3S
S=80 Km/hr
5. The total age is 70 years if two times of the Isha’s age is included to her mother’s age. And if two times of the mother’s age is included to the Isha’s age, the total is 95. What is the age of Isha’s mother?
A. 40 years
B. 50 years
C. 55 years
D. 45 years
Solutions
Lets Isha age = I; Mother’s age = M
2I+M = 70 and I+2M= 95
M = 40
6. Find the sum of first five terms of the following series
1/(1 × 3) + 1/((3× 5) + 1/(5 × 7) + …… + ….
A. 11/5
B. 5/11
C. 10/11
D 12/5
Solutions
1/(1 × 3) + 1/((3× 5) + 1/(5 × 7)+ 1/(7 × 9)+ 1/(9 × 11)
= 1/2 (1-1/3) + 1/2 (1/3 -1/5) + 1/2 (1/5 -1/7) + 1/2 (1/7-1/9) + 1/2 (1/9 -1/11)
= ½ (1-1/3 +1/3 -1/5+1/5-1/7+1/7-1/9+1/9-1/11)
=½ (1-1/11)
=½ ×10/11=5/11
7. Find the next term in the series.
2 , 3 , 3 , 8 , ? , 55.5
A. 16
B. 17
C. 17.5
D. 18.5
Solutions
2 × 1 + 1 = 3 × 1.5 – 1.5 = 3 × 2 + 2 = 8 × 2.5 – 2.5 = 17.5 ×3 + 3 = 55.5
8. 1, 1, 6, ? , 86, 341
A. 15
B. 22
C. 25
D. 21
Solutions
1+ 12-1 = 1 +22+1=6 +42-1=21+ 82+1=86 + 162-1=341
9. Direction (9-10): In each of the following questions 3 statements are given. You have to determine which statement/statements are necessary to answer the given question:
a) Only II and III together are required
b) Only I and II together are required
c) I and either II or III are required
d) All I, II and III are required
What are the ages of Riya and Mira?
I. Three years ago, Riya was 5 years younger to Rishi and Mira was 7 years older to Rishi.
II. Ratio of present ages of Riya and Mira is 15:19
III. Sum of the ages of Rishi and Riya is 95
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
From I
3 years ago
Riya = Rishi – 5
Mira = Rishi +7
From II
At present ratio of Riya to Mira
Riya : Mira = 15 :19
From III
Rishi + Riya = 95
10. Direction (9-10): In each of the following questions 3 statements are given. You have to determine which statement/statements are necessary to answer the given question:
a) Only II and III together are required
b) Only I and II together are required
c) I and either II or III are required
d) All I, II and III are required
Rishi and Sameer together completed a work in 6 days. They got Rs. 1350 as remuneration. What would be the ratio in which the 1350 Rs would be split if Roshan worked along with Rishi and Sameer?
I. Ratio of no of days taken by Rishi and Roshan is 5:9
II. Ratio of efficiency of Rishi and Sameer is 3:2
III. Roshan is the least efficient of all
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
From I
Ratio of no of days Rishi : Roshan = 5 :9
So efficiency ratio = 9 :5
From
II Efficiency Ratio of Rishi : Sameer= 3 :2
So using I and II we can get ratio of efficiency Rishi : Roshan : Sameer = 9 :5 : 6
11. Two types of coffee costing Rs 26 and Rs 35 respectively are mixed in a certain ration and the resulting mixture is sold at a profit of 20% at Rs 36. What is the respective ratio in which they are mixed?
A. 5 : 4
B. 4 : 1
C. 3 : 2
D. 5 : 9
Solutions
CP of mixture : x (120/100) =36 x = 30
Required ratio = 5 : 4
12. Rahul invested Rs.12200 partly invested in Scheme A at 8% pa SI for 5 years and partly in Scheme B at 10% pa CI for 2 years. Both the schemes earn equal interests. How much was invested in Scheme A?
A. Rs. 4000
B. Rs. 4400
C. Rs. 8000
D. Rs. 4200
Solutions
Amount invested in Scheme A = X
Amount invested in Scheme B= Y
X*8*5/100 = Y*21/100
40X/100 =21Y/100
X: Y =21/40
In scheme A he invested= 12200 * 21/61 = 4200
13. Ravi and Ankit invested rupees 4000 and 5000 respectively in a business. Ravi being an active partner will get rupee 50 every month extra for running the business. In a year if Ravi receives a total of 800 rupee, then what will Ankit get from the business?
A. 350
B. 200
C. 250
D. 400
Solutions
Ratio in which the profit will divide Ravi : Ankit – 4:5.
Ravi will get for running business 50×12 = 600 rupees
Ravi got Rs.200 from profit in which he and Ankit invested.
i.e (4/9)*Total Profit = 200,
Profit = 450.
So Ankit will get= 450 – 200 = 250 rupees
14. Out of total 10 Mirrors, six Mirrors are perfect and other four are damaged in some way. One has to choose two Mirrors. What is the probability that all two mirrors will perfect and not damaged?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/5
D. 1/6
Solutions
6C2 = 6×5/2×1 = 30/2 = 15
10C2 = 10×9/1×2 = 45
P =15/45 = ⅓
15. A factory canteen prepares food for 30 workers and if the number of workers increased by 5 then the expense is increased by 40 rupees per day. But the average expenditure diminishes by Rs.3. What is the original expenditure of the canteen?
A. Rs. 810
B. Rs. 970
C. Rs. 870
D. Rs. 910
Solutions
Let average expenditure be x.
(30x + 40)/35 = x – 3
30x+ 40 = 35x – 105
145 = 5x
x = 29
So expenditure = 29×30 = 870
16. Solve the Following 34×35÷5 + √20736 ÷12+∛2197×2=?
A. 276
B. 258
C. 358
D. 176
Solutions
34 × 7+ 144÷12 + 13 × 2
= 238+12+26=276
17. When (23)8 is divided by 22 what will be the remainder?
A. 15
B. 1
C. 5
D. 8
Solutions
(23)8 = (22+1)8
As we know that
(x+a)n = xn + nxn-1 .a + n(n-1)/1*2 xn-2a2 + n(n-1)(n-2)/(1*2*3) xn-3a3 +…………+an
We can see that all the term on the R.H.S have x as a factor except an
So here (22+1)8 all the term is divisible by 22 as all term have 22 as its factor except (1)8
So Remainder is (1)8 = 1
18. The area of the circle is 7546 sq cm. If the circumference of a circle is twice that of perimeter of a rectangle then what is the area of the rectangle if the length of the rectangle is 30cm?
A. 850 sq cm
B. 990 sq cm
C. 1080 sq cm
D. 1410 sq cm
Solutions
Area of circle = (22/7)R2
6688 = (22/7)R2
R2 = 7/22 × 7546
R2 = 7×343
R= 49
Circumference of the circle = 2(22/7)49 = 308 cm
Perimeter of rectangle= 2×Circumference of circle
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(30+b)
308/2 = 60+2b
154= 60+2b
2b = 94
b = 47cm
Area of Rectangle= LB=47×30 = 1410 sq cm
19. Three bags full with books. First bag contains 243 books. Second contains 304 books and last bag contains 127 books. Find the largest number of book that can be given equally to the children such that 3, 4 and 7 books are left in first, second and third bag respectively?
A. 40
B. 30
C. 60
D. 20
Solutions
HCF of (243-3, 304-4, 127-7)
HCF of 240, 300, 120 = 60
20. 600 students appear in a exam, 40% of the students passed in English, 5% of the students failed in Maths and English, and 20% of the students passed in both the subjects. Find the number of student passed only in Maths?
A. 270
B. 330
C. 470
D. 370
Solutions
Total students = 600
Failed in both = 5% of 600 = 30
Passed in both = 20% of 600 = 120
Passed in English = 40% of 600 = 240
Those passed only in English = 240 – 120 = 120 students.
Passed only in Maths =600 – (120 + 120 + 30) = 330
21. (325+326+327+328) is divisible by which of the following
A. 11
B. 16
C. 25
D. 8
Solutions
325(1 + 3 + 32 + 33)
= 325(1 + 3 + 9 + 27)
= 325 × 40
= 325 × 8 ×5
So we can clearly see given equation is completely divisible by 8.
22. Solve the following 40 % of 4900 ÷ 28 ÷ 7× 444 ÷ 12 = ?
A. 370
B. 259
C. 270
D. 389
Solutions
40 /100×4900 ×1/28×1/7 × 444/12
= 10 × 37 = 370
23. PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral PQ and SR produced meet at O. If PO =8 cm, OQ = 6cm, OR = 4 cm then find the length of OS.
A. 8 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 6 cm
Solutions
If two chords intersect internally or externally then the product of the lengths of the segments are equal.
PO ×QO = SO×RO
8×6 = SO × 4
SO = 12 cm
24 If a graph of equation x + y = 0 and 5y +7x = 24 intersect at (m, n).Find the value of m + n.
A. 24
B. 0
C. 12
D. -1
Solutions
y =-x —— (1)
5y + 7x = 24 —— (2)
Substituting (1) into (2)
5 (-x) + 7x = 24
2x = 24
x = 12
y =-12
m = x = 12 , n = y = – 12
m+ n =12 – 12 = 0
25. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “PROFESSOR” be arranged so that vowels always occur together?
A. 5400
B. 3780
C. 7560
D. 15120
Solutions
No of ways = 7!3!/2!2!= 7560
26. In a two digit positive number, the units place digit is equal to twice the digit in ten’s place and the difference between the number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 36. What is 25% of the original number?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 48
D. 36
Solutions
Let the number be =10y+x and x=2y
After interchanging the digit the number = 10x+y
(10x +y) – (10y +x) =36
x – y = 4
2y – y = 4
y = 4
x = 8
Number = 48
25 % of 48 = 12
27. Direction (27 – 29): Study the following table carefully answer the questions that follow:
Total number of Students – 4500
The total number of students in Class 10th is what percent of the total number of students in Class 8th & Class 11th together?
A. 300/9 %
B. 400/9 %
C. 604/9 %
D. 500/9%
Solutions
20/ (30 +15)100 = 20/45×100 = 400/9 %
28. Direction (27 – 29): Study the following table carefully answer the questions that follow:
Total number of Students – 4500
What is the difference between the number of females in Class 8th & Class 10th together & the number of males in Class 9th & Class 12th together?
A. 250
B. 325
C. 225
D. 375
Solutions
Number of females in Class 8 = (4500×30)/100 × (60/100) = 8100
Number of females in Class 10 = (4500×20)/100 × (45/100) = 135
Number of males in Class 9 = (4500×10)/100 × (70/100) = 315
Number of males in Class 12 = = (4500×25)/100 × (60/100) = 1275
= (45 × 18 + 45 × 9) – (45× 7 + 45 × 15)
= 45 (18 + 9) – 45 (7 + 15)
= 45 × 27 – 45 × 22= 45 (27 – 22) = 45 × 5 = 225]
29. Direction (27 – 29): Study the following table carefully answer the questions that follow:
Total number of Students – 4500
If 40% of males in Class 12th & 40% of females in Class 12th want to leave the class, then what is the approximate total number of students who want to leave?
A. 250
B. 330
C. 560
D. 450
Solutions
40 % of males in Class 12 = 4500× (25/100) × (60/100) × (40/100) = 45×25×4
40 % of females in Class 12 = 4500× (25/100) × (40/100) × (40/100) = 45×25×6
40 % of males and females in Class 12 = 45 (4 + 6) = 450
30. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours to cover a certain distance, while it takes 5 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of the stream respectively?
A. 3 : 13
B. 13 : 3
C. 11 : 3
D. 3 :17
Solutions
Let the boat’s speed of upstream = x kmph
Let the boat’s speed of downstream = y kmph
Then, the distance covered upstream in 8 hours = Distance covered downstream in 5 hours
Distance = Speed × Time
8x = 5y
31. In each question below is given a statement, followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Statement:
Poverty in our country has been on the rise over the past few years due to increasing gap in distribution of wealth.
Courses of action:
I. Tax rates should be increased for those earning higher incomes.
II. Subsidized food should be provided to those who cannot afford to buy it from the market.
III. The finance minister should take moral responsibility and resign from his office.
A. If only I and II follows
B. If only II and III follows
C. All I, II and III follows
D. None follows
Solutions
Statement III is not a solution and will not improve the given situation in any way. So only I and II follows.
32. There are six flats namely A, B, C, D, E, F. A is 2 km North of B and 4 km to the West of C. D is 8 km to the west of C and 4 km north of E. F is 6 km to the east of E. E is in which direction of C?
A. South
B. West
C. Northeast
D. Southwest
Solutions
33. In the following question two figures carrying certain characters is given. Assuming that the characters in each set follows a similar pattern. Find the missing character.
A. 127
B. 142
C. 158
D. 198
Solutions
(101+15) – (35+43) = 38
(184+48) – (34+56) = 142
34. The series is given, with one term missing. Choose amongst the given responses
and complete the series
PI, HJ, DP, BQ, ?
A. AZ
B. WB
C. AW
D. CW
Solutions
For first letters P – 8 = H – 4 = D – 2 = B – 1 = A
For second letters I + 1 = J + 6 = P + 1 = Q + 6 = W
35. In the following question Figure A, B, C and D constitute the problem set. Select a figure from answer which will substitute this question mark so that a series is formed by the figure A, B, C and D taken in order.
A
B
C
D
Solutions
In each step pair line segment and symbol rotate 90 degree clockwise. Symbol gets changed by a new one.
36. Manav said, pointing to Mahesh “He is son of my grandfather’s daughter who is only sister of my father’. How is Manav related to Mahesh?
A. Grandfather
B. Uncle
C. Brother
D. Cousin
Solutions
37. In a certain code language “ROAD” is written as “NLYC” how is “LAME” written in that Code?
A. HXKD
B. HYKE
C. KYLE
D. HXKE
Solutions
38. If A denoted ÷, B denotes ×,C denotes + ,D denotes – then find the value of following.
18 B 12 A 4 C 5 D 6 ?
A. 63
B. 59
C. 53
D. 65
Solutions
18 × 12÷ 4 + 5 -6 = 54-1 = 53
39. Direction (39-40): In the question two statements are given. You have to decide which of the statement/statements are necessary to answer the given question:
How many siblings does D have?
Statements:
I. D is sister of C who is son of A.
II. A is mother of C who is brother of D.
A. Only I and II together required
B. Only I is required
C. Only II is required
D. Either Only I or Only II is sufficient alone.
Solutions
From I:
From II:
40. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement. Give Answer
Statement:
The number of unemployed youths in urban areas has increased since last year.
Assumptions
I. All the people living in rural areas are employed.
II. A similar survey was conducted last year.
A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption II is implicit
C. If both I and II are implicit
D. If neither I nor II is implicit
Solutions
Assumption I is not implicit because of the word ‘All’. The statement is given on the basis of last year’s survey. So, assumption II is implicit.
41. In the following question four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Choose the odd one out.
A. Pratyush
B. Param
C. Mihir
D. Tejas
Solutions
All are super computer name except Tejas. Tejas is a fighter jet
42. Direction (42 – 43): In the questions given below, there is a question and two statements numbered I and II. Study carefully and decide which of the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read the statements and Give answer according to the conditions given in the options.
a) Only I and II together
b) Only I alone sufficient
c) Only II alone sufficient
d) I and II together are not sufficient
How is ‘break’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Prison easily breaks wall one door’ is written as ‘pdd lee ojj roo utt oyy’ in that code language.
II. ‘Dig one tunnel wall easily door’ is written as ‘pdd lee oll roo iww oyy’ in that code language.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
From using both we can get code of Prison and Break ojj utt but still we can not decide which is the code for break.
43. Direction (42 – 43): In the questions given below, there is a question and two statements numbered I and II. Study carefully and decide which of the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read the statements and Give answer according to the conditions given in the options.
a) Only I and II together
b) Only I alone sufficient
c) Only II alone sufficient
d) I and II together are not sufficient
Who scores the highest marks?
I. Among A , B, C, D and E, each scores different marks. B scores more than only C and E but less than D and A.
II. A does not score highest marks. C scores more than E.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
From I A, D>B>C,E
From II A is not highest D>E
D > A > B > C > E
44. Find the value of question mark T + E : X + F : : 4 : ?
A. 12
B. 8
C. 4
D. 6
Solutions
(Place value of T) ÷ (Place Value of E) = 20 ÷ 5 = 4
(Place value of X) ÷ (Place Value of F) = 24 ÷ 6 = 4
45. Find the Number of squares in the following diagram.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 5
D. 7
Solutions
BDEL LEFK, DEIH, EFJI, BHJK, BAKE = 6
46. There are 75 Persons in a meeting. The number of Female are twice the number of Male, Abhishek ranked 19th from the top. If there are 10 Female ahead of Abhishek, then what is the number of Male after him in rank?
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 16
Solutions
Number of Females is 50 and number of Male are 25.
If 10 Female ahead of Abhishek, means only 8 Male are ahead of him so number of Male after him = 25 – 8 -1 = 16
47. Which of the following character will be the sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?
F ^ O W 7 N $ V @ G E 8 © X 1 A C % P 2 4 Q I N 6 M * Z 5
A. F
B. O
C. U
D. V
Solutions
Sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left means = (14 – 6) from the left
8th character from the left = V
48. Direction (48-50): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
There are eight friends i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W who lives in a building which has eight floors. First floor is lowermost and eighth floor is top most floors. W does not live on odd numbered floor. T lives on odd numbered floor but above the floor on which U lives. There are three floor between the floor on which U lives and R lives. R lives below U who lives on odd numbered floor. P lives just immediate above the floor on which W lives. Q lives on above the floor on which S lives but not on Top most floors.
Who among the following lives on top floor?
A. V
B. S
C. W
D. T
Solutions
49. Direction (48-50): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
There are eight friends i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W who lives in a building which has eight floors. First floor is lowermost and eighth floor is top most floors. W does not live on odd numbered floor. T lives on odd numbered floor but above the floor on which U lives. There are three floor between the floor on which U lives and R lives. R lives below U who lives on odd numbered floor. P lives just immediate above the floor on which W lives. Q lives on above the floor on which S lives but not on Top most floors.
How many people live between P and T?     Â
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. None
Solutions
50. Direction (48-50): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
There are eight friends i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W who lives in a building which has eight floors. First floor is lowermost and eighth floor is top most floors. W does not live on odd numbered floor. T lives on odd numbered floor but above the floor on which U lives. There are three floor between the floor on which U lives and R lives. R lives below U who lives on odd numbered floor. P lives just immediate above the floor on which W lives. Q lives on above the floor on which S lives but not on Top most floors.
Which of the following combination is correct?
A. Q- 5th floor
B. S- 1st floor
C. W- 2nd floor
D. V- 4th floor
Solutions
51. Three statements are given below followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the following conclusion logically follows.
Statement
1. All Zones are Railway
2. Some Railway are local
3. Some local are metro.
Conclusion
I. All Railways are Zones
II. All Metro Can be Railway.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. None follows
D. Both Follows
Solutions
52. Find the odd one out
A. 6-8
B. 12-16
C. 12-14
D. 15-20
Solutions
First number= ¾ second number
6= ¾ × 8
12= ¾ ×16
15= ¾ × 20
53. In the following question choose the correct mirror image of the given figure.
A
B
C
D
Solutions
54.If the seventh day of the month is three days earlier than Thursday what day will it be on the sixteenth day of the month?
A. Friday
B. Sunday
C. Wednesday
D. Tuesday
Solutions
Three days before Thursday is Monday
Monday – 7th day of the month
Next Monday is 14th day of the month
Tuesday – 15th days of the month
Wednesday – 16th day of the month
55. Choose the odd one out
A. NDMOYA
B. IYAFDR
C. IOSNUY
D. UTDEASY
Solutions
Except C all other make days name Monday, Friday, and Tuesday after shuffling.
56. Name the capital of kanishka?
A. Mathura
B. Taxila
C. Pataliputra
D. Purushapura
Solutions
Peshawar was the capital of the ancient Kushan Empire. Purushapura (Peshawar) is the capital of the Pakistani province of Khyber Pakhtunkhwa.
57. The attorney general of India is appointed by whom ?
A. Prime minister
B. President
C. UPSC
D. Chief Justice of india
Solutions
The 15th and current Attorney General is K. K. Venugopal. He was appointed by Pranab Mukherjee, the President of India at that time. He was formally appointed as with effect from 30 June 2017 and shall have a tenure of 3 years.
58. Which of the following is river is known as “Dakshin Ganga”?
A. Ganga
B. Narmada
C. Godavari
D. Krishna
Solutions
Godavari is the longest river of peninsular India. Godavari, also known as ‘Dakshin Ganga’ – the South Ganges, the second longest river of India after the Ganges, is the longest river of peninsular India.
59. In which state narla Tata rao thermal power station located?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu
Solutions
Dr Narla Tata Rao Thermal Power Plant or Vijayawada Thermal Power Plant is located at Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh. It is named after, Dr. Narla Tata Rao, the erstwhile chairman of the Andhra Pradesh State Electricity board. The power plant is one of the coal-based power plants of APGENCO.It is well placed between Ibrahimpatnam and Kondapalli villages.
60. Which ministry launched “Mid day meal “ scheme?
A. Social Development Ministry
B. Woman and Children Welfare
C. Rural Development Ministry
D. Human Resources development
Solutions
Mid-Day Meal Scheme. With a view to enhancing enrolment, retention and attendance and simultaneously improving nutritional levels among children, the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NP-NSPE) was launched as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme on 15th August 1995
61. Who is the present chairperson of SIDBI?
A. R.K.Verma
B. Mohammad Mustafa
C. Shivraman
D. Harsh kumar bhanwala
Solutions
Small Industries Development Bank of India ( SIDBI) is a development financial institution in India, headquartered at Lucknow. Formed: 2 April 1990.
62. When human rights day is celebrated?
A. 12 jan
B. 1 Dec
C. 10 Dec
D. 25 Jan
Solutions
Human Rights Day is observed every year on 10 December, which is the anniversary of the day that the United Nations General Assembly adopted, in 1948, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. In 2018, Human Rights Day will mark the 70th anniversary of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
63. Indian Cricketer who became the first player to pick up a hat-trick in the history of cricket’s newest format T-10 League?
A. R Ashwin
B. Pravin Tambe
C. Virat Kohli
D. Shikhar Dhawan
Solutions
Indian Cricketer Pravin Tambe became the first player to pick up a hat-trick in the history of cricket’s newest format T-10 League. Playing for Sindhis, He picked 5 wickets in his two-over spell by giving just 15 runs against Kerala Knights. His performance helped Sindhis beat Kerala Knights by nine wickets.
64. Where is the 3rd India International Cherry Blossom Festival celebrated?
A. Gangtok, Sikkim
B. Shillong, Meghalaya
C. Shimla, Himachal Pradesh
D. Imphal, Manipur
Solutions
The festival celebrates the unique autumn flowering of the Himalayan Cherry Blossoms.
65. Who is the author of the book” democracy on road”?
A. Ruchir Sharma
B. Vinod Mehta
C. Mark Tully
D. Kuldeep Nayar
Solutions
A global investor and writer of highly acclaimed books, Ruchir Sharma, will be publishing “Democracy on the Road”, which is said to provide an insightful account of how Indian democracy works.
66. Where is National Rail Museum located?
A. Rewari
B. Mumbai
C. New Delhi
D. Vadodara
Solutions
The National Rail Museum in Chanakyapuri, New Delhi, displays exhibits on the history of rail transport in India. The museum was inaugurated on 1 February 1977, and spans over 10 acres.
67. The third battle of panipat was fought between Marathas and ________
A. Sher Suri
B. Mughals
C. British
D. Ahmad Shah
Solutions
The Third Battle of Panipat was a major battle of Indian history, fought on 14th January 1761. It was fought between the Afghan forces of Ahmad Shah Durrani along with his local Rohilla and other Pathan and Oudh allies, against the Maratha Empire.
68. Which Union territory has the lowest se ration according to census 2011?
A. Pondicherry
B. Lakshadweep
C. Dadar Haveli
D. Silvassa
Solutions
UT which has highest sex ratio is Pondicherry.
69. Bhotiya dance is associated with which state?
A. Uttarakhand
B. Odisha
C. Meghalaya
D. Sikkim
Solutions
Barada Nati, Bhotiya Dance, Chancheri, Chhapeli, Choliya Dance, Jagars, Jhora, Langvir Dance, Langvir Nritya, Pandav Nritya, Ramola, Shotiya Tribal Folk Dances, Thali-Jadda and Jhainta are some of the folk dances performed in various occasions in Uttarakhand.
70. Which railway station in India is first railway station to be run entirely by women?
A. Chanakyapuri station, Delhi
B. Rewa, Madhya Pradesh
C. Matunga, Mumbai
D. Gandhi Nagar, Jaipur
Solutions
First Railway Station Run by Women in a bid to empower women, Central Railway appointed an all-female staff at suburban Matunga station in Mumbai, Maharashtra, making it the first station in the country to be run entirely by women.
71. When momentum is doubled, kinetic energy becomes _________
A. Half of the time
B. Remain same
C. Four times
D. None of these
Solutions
Momentum is directly proportional to velocity. If the momentum of an object is doubled, but its mass does not increase (so velocity remains well below the speed of light), then its velocity is doubled. If the velocity is doubled then the kinetic energy increases by the square of 2, or four time.
72. G is constant called universal gravitational constant. The value of G is ___________
A. 6.67 × 10-11 N m2/kg2
B. 6.67 × 10-12 N m2/kg2
C. 6.66 × 10-11 N m2/kg2
D. 6.67 × 11-11 N m2/kg2
Solutions
G is called the universal gravitational constant since it has a constant value all throughout the Universe.
The law of gravitation says that two massive bodies, when kept at some distance, attract each other by a force called the force of gravity. This law is valid for every massive body in the universe and is thus called the universal law of gravitation. According to this law,
Fg = G (mM/r2 )
Where,
Fg is the magnitude of force between the two bodies measured in Newton (N).
m and M are the masses of two bodies measured in kilogram (kg).
r is the distance between the two bodies measured in meter (m).
G is the universal gravitational constant. It has a constant value of 6.67 × 10-11 N m2/kg2 anywhere in the universe.
73. If the list is stationary or moving with uniform speed (either upward or down ward), the apparent weight of a body is equal to its _________
A. 1/3rd of the true weight
B. Double that of weight
C. Half of the weight
D. True weight
Solutions
The accelerating elevator will effect affect the weight of both sides of the beam balance. So the net effect of the accelerating elevator cancels out, and we get the actual mass.
74. A 30 kg boulder was initially moving at a velocity of 10 m/s, in order to stop it 10 N of constant retarding force is applied on it. After how long will the boulder stop?
A.30 s
B. 15 s
C. 45 s
D. 6 0 s
Solutions
Given, m = 30 kg.
Retarding force = -10N
u = 10 m/s
v = 0.
We know, F = ma
-10 = 30 x a
a = -1/3 ms-2
Also, v = u + at
0 = 10 – t/3
Therefore, t = -10 x (-3) = 30 s.
75. Speed of the planet is __________ when it is at perigee
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Remains same
D. None of these
Solutions
For the Earth at perihelion, which is slightly faster than Earth’s average orbital speed of 29,800 m/s, as expected from Kepler’s 2nd Law.
76. The force of attraction between the molecules of different substances is called
A. Adhesive force
B. Cohesive force
C. Surface tension
D. Capillarity
Solutions
Cohesive forces are the intermolecular forces (such as those from hydrogen bonding and Van der Waals forces) which cause a tendency in liquids to resist separation. These attractive forces exist between molecules of the same substance.
77. The maximum velocity up to which fluid motion is streamline is called
A. Terminal velocity
B. Viscous force
C. Critical velocity
D. Viscosity
Solutions
Critical velocity is the speed that a falling object reaches when gravity and air resistance equalize on the object. If the velocity of flow is below critical velocity, flow is streamline and of the velocity is above the critical velocity, flow is turbulent.
78. Who is discovered Infra red Rays?
A. Henry Becqueral
B. William Herschel
C. Issac Newton
D. Marcony
Solutions
Infrared radiation was discovered in 1800 by astronomer Sir William Herschel, who discovered a type of invisible radiation in the spectrum lower in energy than red light, by means of its effect on a thermometer.
79. Which of the following is non metal element?
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Silver
D. Sulphur
Solutions
Sulphur is a non metal element.
80. Which of the following helps to determine if a chemical reaction has taken place?
A. Change in colour
B. Evolution of gas
C. Change in state
D. All of the above
Solutions
When a chemical reaction takes place there is a change in colour, change in temperature, change in state and evolution of gas.
81. Slaked lime is otherwise known as
A Calcium oxide
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Carbon monoxide
Solutions
Calcium oxide when reacts with water produces slaked lime (calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)2) along with enormous amount of heat.
82. The given reaction is an example of
Fe[s] + CuSO4[aq] FeSO4[aq] + Cu[s]
A. Decomposition reaction
B. Displacement reaction
C. Combination reaction
D. Double displacement reaction
Solutions
In this reaction the iron has displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. So this is known as displacement reaction.
83. When a metal reacts with an acid it forms into
A. Salt
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Salt with hydrogen gas
D. None of the above
Solutions
When a metal reacts with an acid, it typically forms a salt and hydrogen gas. The specific salt formed depends on the metal and the acid involved in the reaction.
Here’s a more detailed explanation:
Single Displacement Reaction:
The reaction between a metal and an acid is a type of single displacement reaction. In this type of reaction, the metal displaces the hydrogen from the acid, forming a new compound (the salt).
General Equation:
The general chemical equation for this reaction is: Metal + Acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas.
Examples:
Zinc (Zn) reacting with hydrochloric acid (HCl) forms zinc chloride (ZnCl2) and hydrogen gas (H2).
Magnesium (Mg) reacting with sulfuric acid (H2SO4) forms magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) and hydrogen gas (H2).
Salt Formation:
The salt formed is a compound made up of the metal cation and the anion from the acid. For instance, in the reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid, the zinc ion (Zn²⁺) combines with the chloride ion (Cl⁻) to form zinc chloride.
84. Which of the following conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron’s cell body
A. Axon
B. Dentrite
C. Synapse
D. Impulse
Solutions
Axon is a long slender projection of a nerve cell or neuron that conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron’s cell body.
85. Which deficiency causes goitre in our body?
A. Calcium
B. Iodine
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Solutions
Iodine deficiency causes goitre. The symptom of the disease is swollen neck.
86. Which of the following helps in regulating metabolism of body growth?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Pituitary gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Insulin
Solutions
Thyroid gland helps in regulating metabolism of body growth. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxin hormone.
87. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
A. Amoeba
B. Yeast
C. Plasmodium
D. All of the above
Solutions
Budding is a form of asexual reproduction. In this a parent organism creates a bud from its own cells which then forms the basis of the offspring organism and develop into a parent
88. According to Ohm’s law which of the factors on which resistance of a conductor does not depend?
A. Length
B. Area of cross section
C. Nature of material
D. Direction of current
Solutions
Factors on which resistance of a conductor depends on are length, area of cross section and nature of material.
89. Which of the following does not indicate electric power?
A. I2R
B. VI
C. IR2
D. V2/R
Solutions
Power can be denoted by I2R, VI, V2/R.
90. Instrument used for measuring the colour intensity of sky is known as
A. Coulombmeter
B. Aneometer
C. Cyanometer
D. Chronometer
Solutions
Cyanometer is an instrument used for measuring ‘blueness’ specifically the colour intensity of the sky.
Aneometer measures the wind velocity.
Chronometer is a mechanical time piece that meets certain precision standards.
Coulombmeter measures the electrostatic charge of a material.
91. The angle between centripetal force and centrifugal force is
A. 45°
B. 0°
C. 90°
D. 180°
Solutions
Centripetal force is the component of force acting on a body in curvilinear motion towards the center of curvature. Centrifugal force is the apparent force equal and opposite to centripetal force.
So the angle between the centripetal and centrifugal force is 180°.
92. In desserts day temperature is very high and night temperature is too low because of
A. Low specific heat of sand
B. High specific heat of sand
C. Low conductivity of sand
D. High conductivity of sand
Solutions
Since the sand has very low specific heat it absorbs the heat resulting in raise of temperature by a large degree in the day. At night the sand radiates the heat equally readily making the temperature loss. This study comes under Newton’s Law of Cooling.
93. The mirage effect occurs due to
A. efraction of light
B. Total internal reflection
C. Dispersion of light
D. None of the above.
Solutions
The phenomena of mirage occurs due to Total internal reflection.
94. The angle of contact for water and silver is
A. 0°
B. 90°
C. 135°
D. 180°
Solutions
The angle of contact for water and silver is 90°.
Zero for pure water and clean glass.
135° for mercury and glass.
8° for ordinary water and glass.
95. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a
A. Very high resistance in its series
B. Very low resistance in its series
C. Very high resistance in parallel
D. Shunt
Solutions
A galvanometert can be converter into a voltmeter by connecting a very high resistance called multiplier in series to the voltmeter. Galvanometer is a device used to measure electric current.
96. ___________ is also known as Blue Vitriol
A. Potassium nitrate
B. Copper sulphate
C. Magnesium hydreoxide
D. Baking soda
Solutions
Copper sulphate when anhydrous, is white and when associated with water of crystallisation( i.e., CuSo4.5H2O), is blue, so it is called Blue Vitriol. It is used to test the presence of water.
97. What is the shape of sulphur tetrafluoride?
A. Trigonal bipyramidal
B. Octahedral
C. Tetrahedral
D. Bi-planar
Solutions
Sulphur Tetrafluoride has 10 electrons around the central sulphur atom. This means there are 5 electron pairs arranged in a trigonal bipyramidal shape.
98. What is the nature of pH of milk?
A. Slightly acidic
B. Highly acidic
C. Slightly basic
D. Highly basic
Solutions
pH of milk is around 6.5-6.7, which makes it slightly acidic.
99 ________ states that the strain produced in a body is directly proportional to the stress applied to it.
A. Kirchoff’s law
B. Hooke’s law
C. Ohm’s law
D. Kepler’s law
Solutions
Hooke’s law states that within the limit of elasticity, the strain produced in a body is directly proportional to the stress applied to it. It is also known as modulus of elasticity.
100. A new born baby’s heart weight is about
A. 100g
B. 20g
C. 50g
D. 150g
Solutions
The average weight of the heart at birth is a little over 20 Gm.
