1. 2 men and 3 women can do a piece of work in 10 days while 3 men and 2 women can do the same work in 8 days. Then, 2 men and 1 woman can do the same work in.
A. 12 days
B. 12 ½ days
C. 13 days
D. 13 ½ days
Solutions
2. There are two groups A and B of a class, consisting of 42 and 28 students respectively. If the average weight of group A is 25 kg and that of group B is 40 kg, find the average weight of the whole class.
A. 69
B. 31
C. 70
D. 30
Solutions
3. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 3 hours and 5 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty in 2 hours. If all the three pipes are open, in how many hours the cistern will be full?
A. can’t be filled
B. 10 hours
C. 15 hours
D. 30 hours
Solutions
4. Nitin borrowed some money at the rate of 6% p.a. for the first three years, 9% p.a. for the next five years and 13% p.a. for the period beyond eight years. If the total interest paid by him at the end of eleven years is Rs.8,160, the money borrowed by him (in Rs.) was.
A. 12,000
B. 6,000
C. 8,000
D. 10,000
Solutions
5. By selling 80 ball pens for Rs.140 a retailer loses 30%. How many ball pens should he sell for Rs.104 so as to make a profit of 30%?
A. 32
B. 52
C. 48
D. 42
Solutions
6. Two boats A and B start towards each other from two places, 108 km apart. Speeds of the boats A and B in still water are 12 km/hr and 15km/hr respectively. If A proceeds down and B up the stream, they will meet after.
A. 4.5 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 5.4 hours
D. 6 hours
Solutions
7. A tradesman sold an article at a loss of 20%. If the selling price had been increased by 100, there would have been a gain of 5%. The cost price of the article (in Rs.) was.
A. 100
B. 200
C. 400
D. 500
Solutions
8. A man loses 12½ of his money and after spending 80% of the remainder, he is left with 175. How much did he have at first?
A. Rs. 1,200
B. Rs. 500
C. Rs. 800
D. Rs. 1,000
Solutions
9. A boy started from his house by bicycle at 10 a.m. at a. speed of 12 km per hour. His, elder brother started after 1 hr 15 mints by scooter along the same path and caught him at 1.30 p.m. The speed of the scooter will be (in km/hr)
A. 4.5
B. 36
C. 
D. 9
Solutions
10. A father distributed Rs 630 among his 3 sons Ravi, Amit, Alok in the ratio of 1/4 : 1/6 : 1/3 , then find the amount given to Alok.
A. Rs.140
B. Rs.210
C. Rs.280
D. Rs.350
Solutions
11. The duplicate ratio of (√7)2 : (√8)2 is 2x + 7:8x + 32x + 7:8x + 3 Find the value of 8x − 6.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
Solutions
12. In a class, the ratio of boys and girls is 5:7. If 10 girls fail and 2 boys are admitted in a class, then the total students in class is 64. Find the total number of girls in the class at the start.
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 42
Solutions
In a class, the ratio of boys and girls is 5:7, so the number of boys and girls in a class are 5x and 7x respectively.
According to given condition,
7x – 10 + 5x + 2 = 64
12x – 8 = 64
12x = 72
x = 6
The number of girls in the class at starting is = 7x = 7 × 6 = 42
13. Approximately in how many years, a sum of Rs 485 will become Rs 516 at 1.5 % p.a..
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
Solutions
14. A sum of Rs 460 becomes Rs 516 in 2 years at r% p.a. What will be the amount after 5 years on same principle if the rate of interest is reduced to half of its value?
A. Rs 520
B. Rs 530
C. Rs 540
D. Rs 550
Solutions
15. Find the amount on Rs 10,000 when compounded quarterly at 8% p.a. for 15 months.
A. Rs 11040.8
B. Rs 11060.8
C. Rs 11125.8
D. Rs 11128.8
Solutions
16. The average weight of 11 members of family is 50 kg. If two new members are added to the family, then the average is increased by 15 %. Find the average weight of new members of family.
A. 49.7 kg
B. 64 kg
C. 84 kg
D. 98.75 kg
Solutions
17. Find the value of ‘a’ if one-ninth of the 45% of (a+4) is 25% of ‘a’.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
Solutions
18. Three numbers are such that first number is 15% of third number and second number is 25% of third number. Find the product of numbers if the sum of three numbers is 14.
A. 15.5
B. 25.5
C. 37.5
D. 43.5
Solutions
19. P and Q travel a certain distance at 10 km/hr and 15 km/hr respectively. If the time difference between P and Q is 35 minutes, then find the time taken by P to cover the same distance.
A. 20 min
B. 55 min
C. 1 hr 30 min
D. 1 hr 45 min
Solutions
20. A boat sails 15 km of a river towards upstream in 5 hrs. How long will it take to cover the same distance downstream, if the speed of current is one-fourth the speed of the boat in still water:
A. 1.5 hrs
B. 3 hrs
C. 5 hrs
D. 6 hrs
Solutions
21. A shopkeeper marks up his goods by 20% and then gives a discount of 20%. Besides he cheats both his supplier and customer by 100 g, i.e., he takes 1100 g from his supplier and sells only 900 g to his customer. What is his net profit percentage? (Rounded off to two decimal points)
A. 26.5%
B. 17.33%
C. 27%
D. 22.5%
Solutions
22. Ajit and Bhanu enter into a partnership with their capitals in the ratio 7 : 9. At the end of 8th month, Ajit withdraws his capital. If they receive the profits in the ratio 8 : 9, find how long Bhanu’s capital was used?
A. 5 months
B. 9 months
C. 7 months
D. 3 months
Solutions
23. The interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 22 and the discount on the same sum for the same time and at the same rate is Rs. 20, find the sum?
A. Rs. 220
B. Rs. 134
C. Rs. 213
D. Rs. 218
Solutions
24. Suman is twice as good as workman as Binu and together they finish a piece of work in 18 days. Find the total number of days in which Binu can finish the work.
A. 54
B. 63
C. 48
D. 45
Solutions
25. From a container, 6 liters milk was drawn out and was replaced by water. Again 6 liters of mixture was drawn out and was replaced by the water. Thus the quantity of milk and water in the container after these two operations is 9:16. The quantity of mixture is:
A. 13
B. 22
C. 15
D. 26
Solutions
26. The price of an article was increased by r%. Later the new price was decreased by r%. If the latest price was Rs. 1, then the original price was:
A. Rs. 1
B. 
C.
D. 
Solutions
27. Mr. Sharma’s family has 10 males and a few females, the average monthly consumption of rice per head is 8 kg. If the average monthly consumption of rice per head be 10 kg in the case of males and 6 kg in the case of females, find the number of females in Sharma’s family?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Solutions
28. f x = (0.09)2, y = 1(0.09)2 and z = (1−0.09)2 − 1 then which of the following relation is true?
A. z < x < y
B. z < y < x
C. x < y < z
D. None
Solutions
29. Amar can do a piece of work in 8 days, man Daksh can do the same piece of work in 10 days while man Chaya can do it in 12 days. They started work together but after 2 days Amar left the work and the remaining work has been completed by Daksh and Chaya. Find when will the work be completed (Approximately).
A. 4 days
B. 7 days
C. 9 days
D. 5 days
Solutions
30. A dealer offers a cash discount of 20% and still makes a profit of 20%, when he further allows 16 articles to a dozen to a particularly sticky bargainer. How much per cent above the cost price were his wares listed?
A. 100%
B. 70%
C. 78%
D. 90%
Solutions
31. Two equal glasses are respectively 2/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They are then filled up with water and the contents are mixed in a tumbler. The ratio of milk and water in the tumbler is-
A. 7 : 11
B. 11 : 13
C. 13 : 15
D. Cannot be determined
Solutions
32. Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.
The following pie chart cost of constructing one house. The total cost was Rs. 6 lakhs.
The amount spent on Timber is-
A. Rs.60,000
B. Rs.67,000
C. Rs.1,50,000
D. Rs.45,000
Solutions
Observe that degree/percentage of Timber is not given the chart.
So, first task is to find degrees of timber.
In a circle Total = 360 degrees.
So Timber’s degree
= 360 – the degrees of remaining items
= 360 – (54 + 54 + 54 + 72 + 90)
= 36 degrees.
36 degrees is 10% of 360 degrees so, 10% of total cost = 60,000 rupees.
33. Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.
The following pie chart cost of constructing one house. The total cost was Rs. 6 lakhs.
The amount spent on labor exceeds the amount spent on supervisor by-
A. Rs.1,00,000
B. Rs.34,000
C. Rs.76,000
D. Rs.60,000
Solutions
There is no need to find absolute values for both items. Just observe the degrees.
Difference between labor and supervision = 90 – 54 = 36 degrees
36 degrees = 10% of a circle. (because total is 360 degrees)
So the amount spend = 10% of total (6,00,000)= one decimal leftwards = 60,000.
34. Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.
The following pie chart cost of constructing one house. The total cost was Rs. 6 lakhs.
The amount spent on cement, steel and supervisor is what percent of the total cost of construction?
A. 40%
B. 45%
C. 50%
D. 55%
Solutions
35. Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.
The following pie chart cost of constructing one house. The total cost was Rs. 6 lakhs.
The amount spent on labor exceeds the amount spent on steel by-
A. 5% of the total cost
B. 10% of the total cost
C. 12% of the total cost
D. 15% of the total cost
Solutions
36. Select the odd one out from given responses.
A. 341
B. 679
C. 385
D. 495
Solutions
341 ⇒ 4 – 3 = 1
679 ⇒ 7 – 6 = 1 ≠ 9
385 ⇒ 8 – 3 = 5
495 ⇒ 9 – 4 = 5
37. Select the odd one out from given responses.
A. Japan
B. India
C. Sri lanka
D. Denmark
Solutions
Denmark : Not an Asian country.
38. Select the odd word/letter/number from given alternatives :
A. Scurvy
B. Rickets
C. Night-blindness
D. Influenza
Solutions
Except option (D) all diseases are related to lack of vitamins.
39. Select the odd word/letter/number from given alternatives :
A. Jasmine
B. Lily
C. Coriander
D. Lotus
Solutions
Coriander → Not a flower.
40. Select the odd word/letter/number from given alternatives :
A. Painting
B. Drawing
C. Sculpture
D. Music
Solutions
All other things except music can be seen, only music → Listen.
41. Select the missing number from the given alternatives.
A. 9504
B. 1850
C. 7790
D. 4156
Solutions
Multiplication of all outer numbers = Inner number
From Figure-X → 6 × 3 × 17 × 5 ⇒ 1530
From figure-Y → 9 × 8 × 22 × 6 ⇒ 9504
From figure-Z → 9 × 13 × 6 × 21 ⇒ 14742
42. Choose the related word/letter/numbers ?
Meat : Vegetarian : : Liquor : ?
A. Insane
B. Teetotaler
C. Folish
D. Introvert
43. Select the word which can not be formed by using the letters of given word :
LAUGHTER
A. HEAL
B. REAL
C. GAME
D. LATER
Solutions
44. If in a certain code “BOMBAY” is written as “MYMYMY” then what will the code for “TAMILNADU” ?
A. ALDALDALD
B. MNUMNUMNU
C. TIATIATIA
D. IATIATIAT
Solutions
BOMBAY [3rd & 6th letter] → MYMYMY
TAMILNADU [3rd, 6th & 9th letter] → MNUMNUMNU
45. The number of apples in a basket doubles every minute, if the basket is full of apples in an hour, when was the basket half filled ?
A. 30 minutes
B. 55 minutes
C. 59 minutes
D. 47 minutes
The correct answer is C. 59 minutes.
Here is the reasoning:
- The problem states that the number of apples in the basket doubles every minute.
- The basket is completely full at the 60-minute mark.
- Therefore, one minute before the basket was full, it must have been half full.
Since the basket was full at 60 minutes, it was half full at 59 minutes.
46. Complete the following series.
AFI , CHK, EJM, ?
A. GJN
B. HMP
C. GLO
D. RJL
Solutions
A F I ↓+3
C H K ↓+3
E J M ↓+3
G L O ↓+3
47. Select the correct alternative for missing place in following series :
c _ a c _ a a _ a a _ b c _ b
A. c a b b a
B. c c b b b
C. b b b b b
D. c b a c b
Solutions
c c a c c / a a b a a / b b c b b
48. To attend an exam in school, Jiya travelled 6 km towards South and after a left turn she travelled for about 12 km. She again made a left turn and reached to the school by travelling 10 km more. In which direction is Jiya’s school from her starting point?
A. South – West
B. North – West
C. South – East
D. North – East
Solutions
49. Select the diagram which correctly represent the relationship between given quantities :
Day, Week, Year
A
B
C
D
50. If the first and the second letters of the word ‘COMMUNICATIONS’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the 5th and 6th letters and so on, which letter would be the tenth letter counting from your right?
A. U
B. A
C. T
D. N
Solutions
51. Select the correct water image of given figures :
A
B
C
D
52. X is faster than Y and Y is faster than Z. P is faster than Q but slower than Y. Q is faster than Z. Who is slowest ?
A. X
B. Z
C. Q
D. P
Solutions
Order (क्रम) : X > Y > P > Q > Z
53. Select the which can not be formed by using letter of the given word.
PARANORMALITY
A. TINY
B. LATE
C. MORTAR
D. PROM
Solutions
54. In a certain code ”LEVEL” is written as ”MFWFM” then code for ”VELEL” is ?
A. WFMFM
B. WFFMW
C. WFMFW
D. FMFMW
Solutions
55. If 2 × 3 × 5 = 13 and 7 × 4 × 8 = 60 then 6 × 5 × 4 = ?
A. 17
B. 19
C. 28
D. 29
Solutions
5 × 2 + 3 = 13
8 × 7 + 4 = 60
6 × 4 + 5 = 29
56. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, when will Sunday be?
A. Tomorrow
B. Day after tomorrow
C. Today
D. Two days after today
Solutions
57. Find the missing number from given alternatives.
If 48 + 42 = 3 and 90 + 74 = 8 then 91 + 53 = ?.
A. 17
B. 21
C. 19
D. 23
Solutions
58. Sonu and Raju start walking at a rate of 3 km/hr and 4 km/hr respectively from same time and same point, Sonu walks in east direction while Raju walks in north direction. Find the distance between them after 2 hours.
A. 10 km
B. 14 km
C. 7 km
D. 5 km
Solutions
59. If ‘E’ is ‘A’, ‘A’ is ‘R’, ‘R’ is ‘X’, ‘M’ is ‘S’, ‘T’ is ‘W’, ‘P’ is ‘O’, ‘W’ is ‘E’ and ‘O’ is ‘T’ then code for ”WARM” is ?
A. ERXW
B. ERXS
C. ERXT
D. EXRS
Solutions
60. Select the missing number from given alternatives.
A. 56
B. 66
C. 60
D. 64
Solutions
61. If the letters of English alphabet is coded with natural numbers in reverse order. then which alternative does not makes a meaningful word.
A. 4,12,9,23
B. 15,12,6,23
C. 5,14,19,7
D. 13,26,14,22
Solutions
4 12 9 23 , 15 12 6 23
W O R D, L O U D
62. From the given responses select the missing number :
A. 48
B. 22
C. 32
D. 320
Solutions
(6 + 2) × (15 – 5) = 80
(7 + 6) × (9 – 4) = 65
63. From the given responses select the missing number :
A. 2
B. 11
C. 3
D. 6
Solutions
64. Four position of dices is given below :
Which symbol will be on opposite face of “*” ?
A. >
B. ≠
C. #
D. $
Solutions
65. Four positions of a dice are given bellows, answer the following question.
Identify the number opposite to face 1.
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
Solutions
66. Select the correct mirror image from given responses :
A
B
C
D
67. Pointing towards Seema, Rakesh said, “Her brother is my father’s only son-in-law.” How is Seema’s father related to Rakesh’s sister?
A. Father-in-law
B. Brother-in-law
C. Brother
D. None of these
Solutions
68. A word is represented by only one set of numbers. While each letter is represented by a two digit number of which first digit is taken from row and second digit from column of given matrices. Select the suitable set for question :
MORE
A. 22, 58, 47, 49
B. 58, 37, 91, 45
C. 55, 13, 68, 02
D. 76, 13, 86, 03
Solutions
M O R E
55 13 68 02
69. A word is represented by only one set of numbers, while each letter is represented by a two digit number of which first digit is taken from row and second digit is taken from column of two given matrices. Select the response, which correctly represent the given word.
SHRI
A. 58,02,13,01
B. 85,42,31,14
C. 68,20,13,32
D. 85,02,44,30
Solutions
68, 20, 13, 32
S H R I
70. Select the missing number from the given alternatives.
A. 9504
B. 1850
C. 7790
D. 4156
Solutions
Multiplication of all outer numbers = Inner number
From Figure-X → 6 × 3 × 17 × 5 ⇒ 1530
From figure-Y → 9 × 8 × 22 × 6 ⇒ 9504
From figure-Z → 9 × 13 × 6 × 21 ⇒ 14742
71. Which one among the following compounds has same equivalent weight and molecular weight ?
A. H2SO4
B. CaCl2
C. Na2SO4
D. NaCl
The compound among the given options that has the same equivalent weight and molecular weight is D. NaCl.
Explanation
Equivalent weight is calculated by dividing the molecular weight by a factor, often called the ‘n-factor’ or ‘valency factor’. For the equivalent weight to be equal to the molecular weight, the n-factor must be 1.
- NaCl (Sodium Chloride): It is an ionic compound that dissociates into one Na⁺ ion and one Cl⁻ ion in solution.
- The total positive charge (n-factor) is 1.
- Therefore, its equivalent weight is equal to its molecular weight.
Why other options are incorrect
- H₂SO₄ (Sulfuric Acid): It is a strong acid that can donate two hydrogen ions (H⁺).
- Its n-factor (basicity) is 2, so its equivalent weight is half of its molecular weight.
- CaCl₂ (Calcium Chloride): It is an ionic compound that dissociates into one Ca²⁺ ion and two Cl⁻ ions.
- The total positive charge (n-factor) is 2, so its equivalent weight is half of its molecular weight.
- Na₂SO₄ (Sodium Sulfate): It is an ionic compound that dissociates into two Na⁺ ions and one SO₄²⁻ ion.
- The total positive charge (n-factor) is 2, so its equivalent weight is half of its molecular weight.
72. Arrange the following layers of atmosphere vertically from the surface of the Earth :
1- Medophere
2- Troposphere
3- Stratosphere
4- Thermosphere
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2,1,3,4
C. 2,3,1,4
D. 3,4,2,1
The correct answer is:
C. 2, 3, 1, 4
Explanation:
The Earth’s atmosphere has several layers arranged from the surface upward as follows:
- Troposphere – nearest to Earth’s surface (where weather occurs)
- Stratosphere – above the troposphere (contains the ozone layer)
- Mesosphere – above the stratosphere (protects Earth from meteoroids)
- Thermosphere – above the mesosphere (auroras occur here)
Hence, the correct vertical order is:
Troposphere → Stratosphere → Mesosphere → Thermosphere
So the answer is 2, 3, 1, 4.
73. Electricity is produced through dry cell from-
A. chemical energy
B. thermal energy
C. mechanical energy
D. nuclear energy
The correct answer is:
A. chemical energy
Explanation:
A dry cell (like those used in flashlights or remote controls) produces electricity through chemical reactions that occur between the electrolyte and electrodes inside the cell.
Thus, electrical energy is derived from chemical energy stored in the cell.
74. In respect of the difference of the gravitational force from electric and magnetic forces, which one of the following statements is true ?
A. Gravitational force is stronger than the other two.
B. Gravitational force is attractive only whereas the electric and the magnetic forces are attractive as well as repulsive.
C. Gravitational force has a very short range.
D. Gravitational force is a long range force, while the other two are short range forces.
The correct answer is:
B. Gravitational force is attractive only whereas the electric and the magnetic forces are attractive as well as repulsive.
Explanation:
- Gravitational force always attracts; it never repels.
- Electric and magnetic forces can either attract or repel depending on the charges or magnetic poles involved.
- Gravitational, electric, and magnetic forces are all long-range forces (they act over large distances), so options C and D are incorrect.
- Gravitational force is actually much weaker than electric and magnetic forces, so option A is also incorrect.
Hence, B is the correct statement.
75. Creation of something from nothing is against the law of :
A. constant proportions
B. conservation of mass-energy
C. multiple proportions
D. conservation of momentum
The correct answer is:
B. conservation of mass-energy
Explanation:
The law of conservation of mass-energy states that mass and energy can neither be created nor destroyed; they can only be transformed from one form to another.
Thus, the idea of creating something from nothing violates this law.
76. Seismic gaps are :
A. Pars of plate boundaries in oceans where tsunamis occur frequently.
B. Sections of plate boundaries that have reptured repeatedly in the recent past.
C. Sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past.
D. Plate boundaries having no volcanic activity
Seismic gaps are C. sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured in the recent past.
Explanation
The concept of seismic gaps is based on the idea that tectonic stress builds up at a relatively constant rate along a fault line. When a segment of the fault ruptures in a large earthquake, it releases the built-up stress. A seismic gap is a segment of that same fault that has not experienced a major earthquake for a long time compared to other parts of the fault.
Therefore, according to this hypothesis, stress continues to accumulate in the seismic gap, making it a potential location for a significant earthquake in the future.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- A. Parts of plate boundaries in oceans where tsunamis occur frequently: While tsunamis are often caused by underwater earthquakes, this describes a different phenomenon. A seismic gap is defined by the absence of recent ruptures, not the presence of tsunamis.
- B. Sections of plate boundaries that have ruptured repeatedly in the recent past: This is the opposite of a seismic gap. A repeatedly ruptured section has released its stress, whereas a seismic gap is a zone where stress is still accumulating.
- D. Plate boundaries having no volcanic activity: Seismic activity and volcanic activity are related but separate geological phenomena. Seismic gaps are defined by a lack of seismic, not volcanic, activity.
77. Which one among the following metals is prominently used in mobile phone batteries ?
A. Copper
B. Zinc
C. Nickel
D. Lithium
The correct answer is:
D. Lithium
Explanation:
Most modern mobile phones use lithium-ion (Li-ion) or lithium-polymer (Li-Po) batteries. Lithium is preferred because it is lightweight, has a high energy density, and allows for rechargeable and long-lasting battery performance.
78. Who among the following proposed that atom is individual ?
A. Dalton
B. Berzelius
C. Rutherford
D. Avogadro
The correct answer is:
A. Dalton
Explanation:
John Dalton, in his Atomic Theory (1803), proposed that:
- Matter is made up of tiny, indivisible particles called atoms.
- Atoms cannot be created, divided, or destroyed in chemical reactions.
Thus, Dalton was the one who proposed that the atom is indivisible (individual).
79. If 82o 30′ east longitude (Allahabad) shows 6 : 00 am of Sunday (local time), what would be the local time of Florida (USA) located on 82o west longitude ?
A. 7 : 02 pm of Saturday
B. 7 : 02 pm of Sunday
C. 6 : 58 pm of Sunday
D. 6 : 58 pm of Saturday
Let’s carefully calculate step by step:
- Longitude Difference:
Allahabad: 82° 30′ E
Florida: 82° W
Total difference from east to west:
82° 30′ + 82° = 164° 30′ (i.e., 164.5 degrees). - Time Difference per Degree:
Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours.
Time difference for 1° = 24 hr ÷ 360 = 4 minutes per degree. - Total Time Difference:
164.5° × 4 min = 658 min = 10 hours 58 minutes. - Direction of Time:
Florida is west of Allahabad.
Local time decreases when moving west.
So Florida time = 6:00 am (Sunday) − 10 hr 58 min. - Calculation:
6:00 am − 10:58 = previous day (Saturday):
6:00 am − 10:00 hr = 8:00 pm (Saturday previous day)
Now subtract remaining 58 min: 7:02 pm (Saturday).
Thus, the correct answer is:
A. 7:02 pm of Saturday
80. How many elements are there in the 5th period of modern periodic table ?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 18
D. 36
The correct answer is:
C. 18
Explanation:
The 5th period of the modern periodic table starts with Rubidium (Rb, atomic number 37) and ends with Xenon (Xe, atomic number 54).
From 37 to 54, there are 18 elements in total.
Thus, the 5th period contains 18 elements, so the correct option is C. 18.
81. An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes :
A. downward to the right
B. upward to the right
C. horizontally
D. upward to the left
The correct answer is:
B. upward to the right
Explanation:
Normally, a demand curve slopes downward to the right, showing that demand decreases as price increases.
However, an exceptional demand curve (as seen in cases like Giffen goods or Veblen goods) slopes upward to the right, meaning demand increases as price increases.
Hence, the exceptional demand curve is upward to the right.
82. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this schedule ?
A. Assam
B. Manipur
C. Meghalaya
D. Tripura
The correct answer is:
B. Manipur
Explanation:
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for autonomous district councils for the administration of tribal areas in certain northeastern states. It applies to:
- Assam
- Meghalaya
- Tripura
- Mizoram
Manipur is not covered under the Sixth Schedule. Instead, it has other mechanisms (like District Councils in hill areas) provided under separate constitutional provisions.
83. The Tungbhadra river provided sustenance to which empire ?
A. Chola
B. Vijayanagara
C. Vakataka
D. Pandya
The correct answer is:
B. Vijayanagara
Explanation:
The Tungabhadra River flowed through the heartland of the Vijayanagara Empire, providing water for agriculture, irrigation, and supporting its capital city, Hampi, which is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra. This river was crucial for the empire’s prosperity and sustenance.
84. Notification regarding commencement or cession of a state of war is the responsibility of :
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Defence
C. Ministry of External Affairs
D. None of the above
The correct answer is:
C. Ministry of External Affairs
Explanation:
Under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for issuing official notifications related to the commencement or cessation of a state of war, as these matters pertain to India’s external relations with other countries.
85. Which of the following sets of news papers reflected the concerns of educated Indian Muslims during the Khilafat Movement ?
A. Comrade and Hamdard
B. Comrade and Hindustan Times
C. Zamindar and Muslim voice
D. Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar and Al Hilal
The correct answer is:
D. Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar and Al Hilal
Explanation:
During the Khilafat Movement, several newspapers voiced the concerns of educated Indian Muslims and supported the cause:
- Comrade and Hamdard – started by Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar
- Zamindar – run by Maulana Zafar Ali Khan
- Al-Hilal – founded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
All of these played a significant role in expressing Muslim political concerns of that era.
Hence, the most comprehensive and correct answer is D.
86. And Then One day : A Memoir ‘ is an autobiography of :
A. Kamal Hasan
B. Shahrukh Khan
C. Naseeruddin Shah
D. Karan Johar
The correct answer is:
C. Naseeruddin Shah
Explanation:
“And Then One Day: A Memoir” is the autobiography of renowned Indian actor Naseeruddin Shah, where he narrates his life journey, personal struggles, and experiences in theatre and cinema.
87. Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System ?
A. Dual citizenship
B. Distribution of power between the Federal and the State Governments
C. Supremacy of the Constitution
D. Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
The correct answer is:
A. Dual citizenship
Explanation:
In a true federal system like the USA, citizens have dual citizenship (citizenship of the country and of their respective state).
However, in India:
- There is only one citizenship — that of India.
- Other federal features like distribution of powers between the Union and States, supremacy of the Constitution, and judicial review by courts do exist.
Hence, dual citizenship is not a feature of the Indian political system.
88. Indian Coast Guard is :
A. a branch of the Indian Navy
B. an organization under the Central Board of Excise and customs
C. an organisation under the Ministry of Defence
D. a para-military force under the Ministry of Home Affairs
The correct answer is:
C. an organisation under the Ministry of Defence
Explanation:
The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is an armed force responsible for maritime security, search and rescue, and enforcement of maritime laws within India’s territorial waters and Exclusive Economic Zone. It functions under the Ministry of Defence, not as a branch of the Navy or a paramilitary force under the Home Ministry.
89. Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can be provided in respect of :
A. National Security Council Secretariat
B. Assam Rifles
C. Border Road Development Board
D. Border Road Organisation
The correct answer is:
D. Border Road Organisation (BRO)
Explanation:
Under the RTI Act, 2005, many intelligence and security organizations are exempted from providing information (except in cases of corruption or human rights violations).
- National Security Council Secretariat, Assam Rifles, and Border Roads Development Board are in the exemption list (Second Schedule of RTI Act).
- Border Roads Organisation (BRO), however, is not in the exemption list and hence information can be sought from it under RTI.
Thus, the correct option is D.
90. Which of the following is not a part of contemporary Indian foreign policy in relationships with its neighbours ?
A. Look East policy for linking up withy South-East Asia via Myanmar
B. Non-alignment
C. Panchsheel
D. SAARC
The correct answer is:
B. Non-alignment
Explanation:
- Look East Policy (now Act East Policy) focuses on strengthening economic and strategic ties with Southeast Asia via Myanmar — part of contemporary policy.
- Panchsheel principles (peaceful coexistence) still influence India’s relations with neighbours — part of contemporary policy.
- SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) — India remains an active member — part of contemporary policy.
- Non-alignment, however, was primarily a Cold War–era policy of staying neutral between power blocs. While its legacy remains, contemporary Indian foreign policy is more multi-aligned and pragmatic rather than strictly non-aligned.
Hence, Non-alignment is not a major feature of contemporary Indian foreign policy.
91. The interest of the British Government of India in Afghanistan in the nineteenth century came about in order to :
A. make use of the natural resources of Afghanistan.
B. ensure that the Russian empire did not have an influence over Afghanistan.
C. increase the reach of the British Empire
D. establish a monopoly over the markets of Afghanistan.
The correct answer is:
B. ensure that the Russian empire did not have an influence over Afghanistan.
Explanation:
During the 19th century, Britain feared Russian expansion towards India. Afghanistan was seen as a strategic buffer state between British India and the Russian Empire. The British intervened in Afghan affairs mainly to prevent Russian influence and secure India’s northwestern frontier.
Hence, the main motive was geopolitical security, not economic exploitation.
92. Which of the following is not true for SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area} ?
A. It is a to warding a South Asian customs union and common market.
B. The agreement came into effect in 2006.
C. The SAFTA is a trade liberalization regime.
D. The SAFTA agreement takes precedence over any other agreement a member country may have with states outside SAFTA.
The correct answer is:
D. The SAFTA agreement takes precedence over any other agreement a member country may have with states outside SAFTA.
Explanation:
- SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area) is an agreement among SAARC countries aimed at reducing tariffs and promoting trade among member nations.
- Statements A, B, and C are true:
- SAFTA is seen as a step toward a South Asian customs union and eventually a common market.
- It came into effect in 2006.
- It promotes trade liberalization among members.
- Statement D is not true: SAFTA does not override or take precedence over any trade agreements member states may have with countries outside SAFTA.
Hence, D is the incorrect statement.
93. Which city was host Yoga Day 2016 ?
A. Chandigarh
B. New Delhi
C. Banguluru
D. Goa
The main event for International Yoga Day 2016 was held in A. Chandigarh. Prime Minister Narendra Modi led a mass yoga demonstration at the Capitol Complex in the city, where thousands of people participated.
94. Who has been appointed as chairman Indria Gandhi National Center for Arts Board ?
A. Ramashankar Rai
B. Harishankar Goyanka
C. Ram Bahadur Rai
D. Prahlad Rai
The Chairman of the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) Board is C. Ram Bahadur Rai. He was appointed President of the IGNCA Trust in 2016. According to the IGNCA website and recent press releases from the Press Information Bureau (PIB), he continues to hold this position.
95. Third Asia Ministerial Conference on Tiger Conservation has been started in which city ?
A. Mumbai
B. Hyderabad
C. Banglore
D. New Delhi
The Third Asia Ministerial Conference on Tiger Conservation was held in D. New Delhi.
Key details of the conference:
- It took place from April 12-14, 2016.
- It was inaugurated by India’s Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi.
- High-level representatives from all 13 tiger range countries participated to discuss tiger conservation.
96. Indian Mughal paintings originated during the rule of which Mughal Emperor?
A. Humayun
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Shah Jahan
Solutions
Indian Mughal paintings originated during the rule of Mughal Emperor, Humayun (1530-1540). When he came back to India from the exile, he also brought along two excellent Persian artists, Mir-Sayyid Ali and Abd-us-samad.
97. Which of the following award is given for distinguished service in any field including service rendered by the Government servants?
A. Ashok Chakra
B ada Saheb Phalke Awards
C. Arjuna Award
D. Padma Shri
Solutions
Padma Shri (also Padma Shree) is the fourth highest civilian award in the Republic of India, after the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan and the Padma Bhushan. Awarded by the Government of India, it is announced every year on India’s Republic Day.
98. Himalayan Hydro Expo 2018 is being organised at ________.
A. Pokhara
B. Kathmandu
C. Darjeeling
D. Siliguri
Solutions
The Himalayan Hydro Expo 2018 kicked off at Kathmandu, the capital Nepal. President of Nepal Bidya Devi Bhandari inaugurated the exhibition. Delegates from various countries including India, China, Austria, Czech Republic and Norway are participating in the expo. The basic objective of Expo is to unleash massive hydropower potential of Nepal and bring all stakeholders under one roof.
99. Who is the author of the book named ‘Flood of Fire’?
A. Naina Lal Kidwai
B. Sagar Baheti
C. Sudarshan Pattnaik
D. Amitav Ghosh
Solutions
Flood of Fire is a 2015 novel by Indian novelist Amitav Ghosh.
100. What is the capital of New Zealand?
A. Port Vila
B. Palikir
C. Wellington
D. Majuro
Solutions
The capital city of New Zealand is Wellington. It is the location of the country’s major government institutions.
101. What is the difference between GDP and GNP?
A. Depreciation
B. Taxes and Subsidies
C. Net income from abroad
D. All of the above
Solutions
Gross Domestic Product is the value of sum of all final goods and services that are produced in the country. If the income from foreign sources is added to it, it becomes Gross National Product.
102. To protect the rich aquatic biodiversity of river Ganga ____________ sanctuary will be built in ___________.
A. Mugger Crocodile, Murshidabad
B. Ganges Shark, Kashi
C. Turtle, Allahabad
D. Dugong, Kannauj
Solutions
In order to protect the rich aquatic biodiversity of river Ganga from escalating anthropogenic pressures a Turtle sanctuary is built in Allahabad. The Sanctuary along with a River Biodiversity Park at Sangam have been approved under Namami Gange programme. The project would include development of River Biodiversity Park at Sangam and establishment of a Turtle Rearing Centre.
103. ______________ scheme was launched by the Central Government to create awareness about the cleanliness of the children.
A. Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
B. Bal Swachta Mission
C. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
D. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana
Solutions
Bal Swachhata Mission has been launched by the Government of India on November 14th, the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
Objectives of National Bal Swachhta Mission:
1. Clean Anganwadis
2. Clean Surroundings like Playgrounds
3. Clean Self (Personal Hygiene/Child Health)
4. Clean Food
5. Clean Drinking Water
6. Clean Toilets
104. ‘Entomology’ is the science that studies
A. Insects
B. Formation of rocks
C. Behavior of human beings
D. None of these
Solutions
Entomology is the branch of zoology concerned with the study of insects.
105. Exchange of gases in lungs takes place in?
A. Alveoli
B. Trachea
C. Bronchi
D. Bronchiole
Solutions
Exchange of gases in lungs, which enables exhalation of CO2 and inhalation of O2 takes place in Alveoli.
106. Which of the following part of the eyes contains larger refractive index :
A. Aqueous humor
B. Vitreous humar
C. Cornea
D. None of the above
Solutions
The cornea is the transparent front part of the eye that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber. The cornea, with the anterior chamber and lens, refracts light, with the cornea accounting for approximately two-thirds of the eye’s total optical power. In humans, the refractive power of the cornea is approximately 43 dioptres. While the cornea contributes most of the eye’s focusing power, its focus is fixed. The curvature of the lens, on the other hand, can be adjusted to “tune” the focus depending upon the object’s distance.
107. Energy is measured in the same unit in which
A. Work is measured
B. Force is measured
C. Momentum is measured
D. Inertia is measured
Solutions
Because energy is defined via work (i.e. the capacity of a physical system to do work), the SI unit for energy is the same as the unit of work – the joule (J).
108. High temperatures are detected by
A. Nanometer
B. Photometer
C. Spectrometer
D. Pyrometer
Solutions
Pyrometer is used to detect high temperatures
109. Which of the following is also known as Carbolic Acid?
A. Phenol
B. Hydroxide
C. Sulphuric Acid
D. Ethanol
Solutions
Phenol is also known as Carbolic Acid. It is a white, crystalline, water-soluble, poisonous mass obtained from coal tar or a hydroxyl derivative of benzene. It is primarily used to synthesize plastics and related materials.
110. Which of the following is an ore of iron?
A. Dolomite
B. Epsom Salt
C. Siderite
D. Galena
Solutions
Siderite is an ore of iron. It is a mineral composed of iron(II) carbonate (FeCO3) and is a valuable iron mineral, since it is 48% iron and contains no sulfur or phosphorus. Dolomite is a common rock formed from calcium magnesium carbonate while Galena is the natural mineral form of lead(II) sulfide and Epsom Salt is compound of magnesium and sulfate.
111. India’s first supercomputer was
A. Aryabhatta
B. FREEDOM 25
C. PARAM
D. SATYA
Solutions
PARAM is a series of supercomputers designed and assembled by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) in Pune. PARAM 8000, which was installed in 1991 is considered India’s first supercomputer.
112. Which of the following instruments was invented by Willem Einthoven?
A. ECG Machine
B. Internet Router
C. Transmitter
D. Air Conditioner
Solutions
ECG Machine was invented by Willem Einthoven in 1903.
113. Which of the following diseases is related to Blackwater fever?
A. Malaria
B. Cholera
C. Rabies
D. None of the above
Solutions
Blackwater fever is a complication of malaria in which red blood cells burst in the bloodstream, releasing hemoglobin directly into the blood vessels and into the urine, frequently leading to kidney failure.
114. On which river Omkareshwar dam is located?
A. Tapti
B. Ravi
C. Ganga
D. Narmada
Solutions
The Omkareshwar Dam is a gravity dam on the Narmada River just upstream of Mandhata in Khandwa district, Madhya Pradesh, India. It is named after the Omkareshwar temple located downstream.
115. Which of the following cannot be as ‘Factors of production’?
A. Capital Goods
B. Land
C. Human Labour
D. Consumer Goods
Solutions
Consumer goods are finished products. They are not factors of production, but products.
116. Which of the following is associated with ‘Norman Borlaug’?
A. Industrialisation
B. Green Revolution
C. White Revolution
D. Microfinance
Solutions
Borlaug was an American biologist, humanitarian and Nobel laureate who has been called “the father of the Green Revolution”.
117. Constituent Assembly was formed on which date?
A. 15th Aug, 1946
B. 26th Jan, 1946
C. 9th Dec, 1946
D. 26th Nov, 1949
Solutions
The Constituent Assembly was formed on 9th December of 1946, which had to draft the Constitution of India.
118. The system of Permanent settlement was introduced in India in
A. 1747
B. 1797
C. 1780
D. 1793
Solutions
Permanent Settlement was agreement between the East India Company and Bengali landlords to fix revenues to be raised from land, with far-reaching consequences for both agricultural methods and productivity in the entire Empire and the political realities of the Indian countryside. It was concluded in 1793, by the Company administration headed by Charles, Earl Cornwallis.
119. The Battle of Buxar was fought in
A. 1760
B. 1764
C. 1755
D. 1768
Solutions
The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the forces under the command of the British East India Company led by Hector Munro and the combined army of Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal, Nawab of Awadh and Mughal King Shah Alam II.
120. In which year did the Sepoy Mutiny or the first war of independence take place?
A. 1820
B. 1857
C. 1880
D. 1898
Solutions
The Sepoy Mutiny, also known as the first war of Independence took place in the year 1857.
