IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelims Full Mock Test 10

1. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are 8 boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q. All are placed one above another. The bottom most box is no. 1 and top most box is no. 8.

There are 4 box placed between box P and box K. Box P is placed above box K. Only one box is placed between box K and box Q. There are as many box above box Q as below box N. There are as many box/boxes between box K and box O as between box Q and box L. Box O is placed at one of the even position. Box M is at one of the position below Box J. Box J is not immediate above or immediate below of Box L and Box Q respectively.

Question:

Which box is placed at bottom most position?

A. Box M

B. Box J

C. Box K

D. Box L

E. Box O

Solution

Given Information:

1) There are 4 box between box P and box K. Box P is placed above box K.

2) Only one box is placed between box K and box Q.

3) There are as many box/boxes above box Q as below box N.

Case 1
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8
7	P
6
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

4) There are as many box/boxes between box K and box O as between box Q and box L.

5) Box O is placed one of the even position.

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1

Case 1(b)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	L
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	O
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8	L
7	P
6	O
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

6) Box M is at one of the position below Box J.

7) Box J is not immediate above or immediate below of Box L and Box Q respectively.

(In case 1a, Box J is immediately above of Box L and in case 2, Box J is immediately below of box Q. So, both cases are invalid. Only case 1a satisfy all the condition.)

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7	J
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1	M

Hence, Box M is placed at bottom most position.

2. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are 8 boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q. All are placed one above another. The bottom most box is no. 1 and top most box is no. 8.

Question:

In a certain way box M is related to box N and box P is related to box Q similarly, box O is related to ?

A. Box P

B. Box N

C. Box M

D. Box K

E. Box Q

Solution

Given Information:

1) There are 4 box between box P and box K. Box P is placed above box K.

2) Only one box is placed between box K and box Q.

3) There are as many box/boxes above box Q as below box N.

Case 1
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8
7	P
6
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

4) There are as many box/boxes between box K and box O as between box Q and box L.

5) Box O is placed one of the even position.

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1

Case 1(b)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	L
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	O
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8	L
7	P
6	O
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

6) Box M is at one of the positions below Box J.

7) Box J is not immediate above or immediately below of Box L and Box Q respectively.

(In case 1a, Box J is immediately above of Box L and in case 2, Box J is immediately below of box Q. So, both cases are invalid. Only case 1a satisfy all the condition.)

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7	J
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1	M

There is a gap of two boxes between box M and Box N or box P and box Q. Similarly, there is a gap of two boxes between box O and box K.

Hence, box O is related to box K.

3. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are 8 boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q. All are placed one above another. The bottom most box is no. 1 and top most box is no. 8.

Question:

If all the boxes are arranged in alphabetical order from bottom to top, position of how many boxes are remain unchanged?

A. None

B. One

C. Four

D. Six

E. Three

Solution

Given Information:

1) There are 4 box between box P and box K. Box P is placed above box K.

2) Only one box is placed between box K and box Q.

3) There are as many box/boxes above box Q as below box N.

Case 1
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8
7	P
6
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

4) There are as many box/boxes between box K and box O as between box Q and box L.

5) Box O is placed one of the even position.

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1

Case 1(b)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	L
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	O
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8	L
7	P
6	O
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

6) Box M is at one of the position below Box J.

7) Box J is not immediate above or immediate below of Box L and Box Q respectively.

(In case 1a, Box J is immediately above of Box L and in case 2, Box J is immediately below of box Q. So, both cases are invalid. Only case 1a satisfy all the condition.)

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7	J
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1	M

If all the boxes are arranged in alphabetical order from bottom to top.

Case 1(a)		Arrange in alphabetical order
Position	Boxes	Arrange in alphabetical order
8	P	Q
7	J	P
6	O	O
5	Q	N
4	N	M
3	K	L
2	L	K
1	M	J

There is only box O which position is not change.

Hence the answer is one.

4. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are 8 boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q. All are placed one above another. The bottom most box is no. 1 and top most box is no. 8.

Question:

As many box/boxes placed between Box P and Q as many box/boxes placed between Box K and ?

A. Box M

B. Box N

C. Box P

D. Box Q

E. Box O

Solution

Given Information:

1) There are 4 box between box P and box K. Box P is placed above box K.

2) Only one box is placed between box K and box Q.

3) There are as many box/boxes above box Q as below box N.

Case 1
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8
7	P
6
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

4) There are as many box/boxes between box K and box O as between box Q and box L.

5) Box O is placed one of the even position.

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1

Case 1(b)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	L
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	O
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8	L
7	P
6	O
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

6) Box M is at one of the position below Box J.

7) Box J is not immediate above or immediate below of Box L and Box Q respectively.

(In case 1a, Box J is immediately above of Box L and in case 2, Box J is immediately below of box Q. So, both cases are invalid. Only case 1a satisfy all the condition.)

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7	J
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1	M

There are two boxes between P and Q. Similarly, there are two boxes between K and O.

Hence, the answer is O.

5. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are 8 boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q. All are placed one above another. The bottom most box is no. 1 and top most box is no. 8.

Question:

How many box/boxes are placed between box Q and box M?

A. Four

B. One

C. Three

D. Five

E. Two

Solution

Given Information:

1) There are 4 box between box P and box K. Box P is placed above box K.

2) Only one box is placed between box K and box Q.

3) There are as many box/boxes above box Q as below box N.

Case 1
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8
7	P
6
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

4) There are as many box/boxes between box K and box O as between box Q and box L.

5) Box O is placed one of the even position.

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1

Case 1(b)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7
6	L
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	O
1

Case 2
Position	Boxes
8	L
7	P
6	O
5	N
4	Q
3
2	K
1

6) Box M is at one of the position below Box J.

7) Box J is not immediate above or immediate below of Box L and Box Q respectively.

(In case 1a, Box J is immediately above of Box L and in case 2, Box J is immediately below of box Q. So, both cases are invalid. Only case 1a satisfy all the condition.)

Case 1(a)
Position	Boxes
8	P
7	J
6	O
5	Q
4	N
3	K
2	L
1	M

Hence, there are only three boxes placed between box M and Box Q.

6. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: There are seven members – A, B, C, D, E, F, and G in the family of three generations. No single person has a child. D is the son of C’s husband. G is the only daughter of B. E is the wife of F. D has a son. B is the mother-in-law of E.

Question:

Who among the following is grandmother of F?

A. A

B. B

C. G

D. C

E. D

Solution

Below table represents symbols used to draw a family tree,

1) D is son of C’s husband.

2) D has a son. So, C and D must be in 1^st and 2^nd generation respectively.

3) B is mother-in-law of E. So, B must be wife of D.

4) E is wife of F.

5) G is only daughter of B. So, G must be sister of F.

We can draw the following Family Tree from the information given above:

Hence, C is grandmother of F.

7. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: There are seven members – A, B, C, D, E, F, and G in the family of three generations. No single person has a child. D is the son of C’s husband. G is the only daughter of B. E is the wife of F. D has a son. B is the mother-in-law of E.

Question:

How is A related to B?

A. Father

B. Father-in-law

C. Son

D. Grandfather

E. Nephew

Solution

Below table represents symbols used to draw a family tree,

1) D is son of C’s husband.

2) D has a son. So, C and D must be in 1^st and 2^nd generation respectively.

3) B is mother-in-law of E. So, B must be wife of D.

4) E is wife of F.

5) G is only daughter of B. So, G must be sister of F.

We can draw the following Family Tree from the information given above:

Hence, A is father-in-law of B.

Confusion Points We have the total number of persons that is 7 (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) and no single person has a child. After solving the question, only one place is left, therefore A will be the husband of C.

8. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: There are seven members – A, B, C, D, E, F, and G in the family of three generations. No single person has a child. D is the son of C’s husband. G is the only daughter of B. E is the wife of F. D has a son. B is the mother-in-law of E.

Question:

How is G related to E?

A. Brother

B. Mother

C. Father-in-law

D. Sister-in-law

E. Father

Solution

Below table represents symbols used to draw a family tree,

1) D is son of C’s husband.

2) D has a son. So, C and D must be in 1^st and 2^nd generation respectively.

3) B is mother-in-law of E. So, B must be wife of D.

4) E is wife of F.

5) G is only daughter of B. So, G must be sister of F.

We can draw the following Family Tree from the information given above:

Hence, G is sister-in-law of E.

9. Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All shoes are legs.

Some legs are pair.

Some pair are hand.

Conclusions:

I. Some hand are shoes.

II. Some pair are shoes.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and II follow

D. Either conclusion I or II follows

E. Neither conclusion I or II follows

Solution

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions:

I. Some hand are shoes. → False (It is possible but not definite)

II. Some pair are shoes. → False (It is possible but not definite)

Hence, Neither conclusion I or II follows.

10. Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few pens are paper.

Some paper is chalk.

All pen is notebook.

Conclusions:

I. Some papers are pen.

II. Some notebook is paper.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and II follow

D. Either conclusion I or II follows

E. Neither conclusion I or II follows

Solution

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions:

I. Some papers are pen. → True (it is definitely true)

II. Some notebook is paper. → True (it is definitely true)

Hence, both conclusion I and II follows.

11. Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All cow is dog.

Some cow is fox.

Some fox is ox.

Conclusions:

I. Some dogs are fox.

II. No ox are cow.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and II follow

D. Either conclusion I or II follows

E. Neither conclusion I or II follows

Solution

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions:

I. Some dogs are fox. → True (it is definitely true)

II. No ox are cow. → False (It is possible but not definite)

Hence, only conclusion I follows.

12. Directions: Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions given below: B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D

Question:

If all the consonants are dropped from the above arrangement, how many letters will be left in the above arrangement?

A. Six

B. Five

C. Seven

D. Three

E. Eight

Solution

Given series are: Left side B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D Right side

If all the consonants are dropped then the new series will be:

A E I E O E O Thus, only seven letters will be left in the above arrangement.

13. Directions: Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions given below: B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D

Question:

If all the above arrangement is rearranged in reverse order, which will be the ninth element from the right side?

A. S

B. P

C. T

D. D

E. E

Solution

Given series are: Left side B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D Right side

If its rearranged in reverse order new series will be:

Left side D C B T O E S C B T D O Q E T P T S D T I E A T T B Right side The ninth element from the right side will be S.

14. Directions: Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions given below: B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D

Question:

How many such consonants are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately preceded and followed by a vowel?

A. One

B. Three

C. Six

D. Five

E. Seven

Solution

Given series are: Left side B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D Right side

Such consonants that are immediately preceded by a consonant and followed by a vowel are:

B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D Hence, only one consonant is there which is immediately preceded and followed by a vowel i.e. E Q O.

15. Directions: Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions given below: B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D

Question:

If all the ‘E’s are dropped from the above arrangement, how many vowels will be left?

A. One

B. Four

C. Two

D. Three

D. None of these

Solution

Given series are: Left side B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D Right side

If all ‘E’s are dropped then the new series will be:

B T T A I T D S T P T Q O D T B C S O T B C D Thus, four vowels will be left.

16. Directions: Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions given below: B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D

Question:

How many Ts are there that are immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant?

A. Two

B. One

C. Three

D. Five

E. Four

Solution

Given series are: Left side B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D Right side

Ts that are there that are immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant is:

B T T A E I T D S T P T E Q O D T B C S E O T B C D Hence, there are two such T’s i.e. I T D, O T B.

17. Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

There are eight persons: E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L in a bank at different designations: MD, GM, AGM, DGM, Manager, AM, PO, and Clerk from higher to lower positions. Only four persons are junior to H who is senior to K. Three designations are there between I and K. As many persons are senior to I as junior to J. F is three posts senior to L who is junior to J. G is senior to E who is not the GM in the bank.

Question:

How many designations are there between H and G?

A. Two

B. Three

C. None

D. Four

E. One

Solution

Eight Persons: E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L

Designations: MD, GM, AGM, DGM, Manager, AM, PO, and Clerk

1) Only four persons are junior to H who is senior to K.

2) Three designations are there between I and K.

3) As many persons are senior to I as junior to J.

4) Fatima is three posts senior to L who is junior to J.

Case 1		Case 2
Designation	Person	Designation	Person
MD		MD
GM	I	GM
AGM		AGM	I
DGM	H	DGM	H
Manager	F	Manager	F
AM	K	AM	J
PO	J	PO	K
Clerk	L	Clerk	L

5) G is a senior to E who is not the GM in the bank.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 2, it will get canceled.

Final Arrangement:

Designation	Person
MD	G
GM	I
AGM	E
DGM	H
Manager	F
AM	K
PO	J
Clerk	L

Hence, two designations are there between G and H.

18. Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Question:

What is the designation of J in the bank?

A. Clerk

B. Manager

C. AM

D. PO

E. Cannot be determined

Solution

Eight Persons: E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L

Designations: MD, GM, AGM, DGM, Manager, AM, PO, and Clerk

1) Only four persons are junior to H who is senior to K.

2) Three designations are there between I and K.

3) As many persons are senior to I as junior to J.

4) Fatima is three posts senior to L who is junior to J.

Case 1		Case 2
Designation	Person	Designation	Person
MD		MD
GM	I	GM
AGM		AGM	I
DGM	H	DGM	H
Manager	F	Manager	F
AM	K	AM	J
PO	J	PO	K
Clerk	L	Clerk	L

5) G is a senior to E who is not the GM in the bank.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 2, it will get canceled.

Final Arrangement:

Designation	Person
MD	G
GM	I
AGM	E
DGM	H
Manager	F
AM	K
PO	J
Clerk	L

Hence, J is the PO in tha bank.

19. Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Question:

What is the designation of E in the bank?

A. DGM

B. Manager

C. AM

D. AGM

E. MD

Solution

Eight Persons: E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L

Designations: MD, GM, AGM, DGM, Manager, AM, PO, and Clerk

1) Only four persons are junior to H who is senior to K.

2) Three designations are there between I and K.

3) As many persons are senior to I as junior to J.

4) F is three posts senior to L who is junior to J.

Case 1		Case 2
Designation	Person	Designation	Person
MD		MD
GM	I	GM
AGM		AGM	I
DGM	H	DGM	H
Manager	F	Manager	F
AM	K	AM	J
PO	J	PO	K
Clerk	L	Clerk	L

5) G is a senior to E who is not the GM in the bank.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 2, it will get canceled.

Final Arrangement:

Designation	Person
MD	G
GM	I
AGM	E
DGM	H
Manager	F
AM	K
PO	J
Clerk	L

Hence, E is the AGM in the bank.

20. Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Question:

Who is the Manager in the bank?

A. K

B. F

C. E

D. J

E. L

Solution

Eight Persons: E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L

Designations: MD, GM, AGM, DGM, Manager, AM, PO, and Clerk

1) Only four persons are junior to H who is senior to K.

2) Three designations are there between I and K.

3) As many persons are senior to I as junior to J.

4) F is three posts senior to L who is junior to J.

Case 1		Case 2
Designation	Person	Designation	Person
MD		MD
GM	I	GM
AGM		AGM	I
DGM	H	DGM	H
Manager	F	Manager	F
AM	K	AM	J
PO	J	PO	K
Clerk	L	Clerk	L

5) G is a senior to E who is not the GM in the bank.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 2, it will get canceled.

Final Arrangement:

Designation	Person
MD	G
GM	I
AGM	E
DGM	H
Manager	F
AM	K
PO	J
Clerk	L

Hence, F is the Manager in the bank.

21. Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Question:

Who is the GM in the bank?

A. G

B. E

C. H

D. I

E. F

Solution

Eight Persons: E, F, G, H, I, J, K, and L

Designations: MD, GM, AGM, DGM, Manager, AM, PO, and Clerk

1) Only four persons are junior to H who is senior to K.

2) Three designations are there between I and K.

3) As many persons are senior to I as junior to J.

4) F is three posts senior to L who is junior to J.

Case 1		Case 2
Designation	Person	Designation	Person
MD		MD
GM	I	GM
AGM		AGM	I
DGM	H	DGM	H
Manager	F	Manager	F
AM	K	AM	J
PO	J	PO	K
Clerk	L	Clerk	L

5) G is a senior to E who is not the GM in the bank.

As the above condition is not satisfied in case 2, it will get canceled.

Final Arrangement:

Designation	Person
MD	G
GM	I
AGM	E
DGM	H
Manager	F
AM	K
PO	J
Clerk	L

Hence, I is the GM in the bank.

22. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘he is my nephew’ is coded as ‘one two four five’

‘she is my wife’ is coded as ‘one six three five’

‘I like my mobile’ is coded as ‘twelve nine ten one’

‘she doesn’t use mobile’ is coded as ‘six seven ten zero’

Question:

Which of the following is coded as ‘one six five’?

A. she is nephew

B. my like mobile

C. he like mobile

D. my is mobile

E. she is my

Solution

According to the coded language and their meaning:

my is in circle as same the code one also. According to the coded language and their meaning:
‘she is my’ is coded as ‘one six five’.

23. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘he is my nephew’ is coded as ‘one two four five’

‘she is my wife’ is coded as ‘one six three five’

‘I like my mobile’ is coded as ‘twelve nine ten one’

‘she doesn’t use mobile’ is coded as ‘six seven ten zero’

Question:

Code for ‘mobile’ is ___.

A. ten

B. done

C. one

D. two

E. nine

Solution

According to the coded language and their meaning:

my is in circle as same the code one also. According to the coded language and their meaning:

mobile is in same boundary as ten

Hence, Code for ‘mobile’ is ‘ten’.

24. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘he is my nephew’ is coded as ‘one two four five’

‘she is my wife’ is coded as ‘one six three five’

‘I like my mobile’ is coded as ‘twelve nine ten one’

‘she doesn’t use mobile’ is coded as ‘six seven ten zero’

Question:

If ‘my nephew is painter’ is coded as ‘don one four five’, then what would be the code for ‘he’?

A. nine

B. zero

C. done

D. two

E. three

Solution

According to the coded language and their meaning:

my is in circle as same the code one also.

According to the coded language and their meaning:

Code for ‘he is my nephew’ is ‘one two four five’

Code for ‘my nephew is painter’ is ‘don one four five’

Hence, possible code for ‘he’ is ‘two’.

25. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘he is my nephew’ is coded as ‘one two four five’

‘she is my wife’ is coded as ‘one six three five’

‘I like my mobile’ is coded as ‘twelve nine ten one’

‘she doesn’t use mobile’ is coded as ‘six seven ten zero’

Question:

Which among the following is coded as ‘one three’?

A. my mobile

B. my wife

C. mobile wife

D. wife like

E. she like

Solution

According to the coded language and their meaning:

my is in circle as same the code one also.

Similarly, wife is the only term in second line without any outline same as code three. Hence, ‘my wife’ is coded as ‘one three’.

26. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘ARTICULATE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English Alphabet?

A. None

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

E. Five

Solution

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Hence, one pair is there in the word ‘ARTICULATE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English Alphabet.

27. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which conclusion among the given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

R < K ≤ L ≤ E; Z = E ≥ S ≥ P

Conclusions:

I. R < S

II. K ≤ Z

A. Both Conclusions I and II are true.

B. Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

C. Either Conclusion I or II is true.

D. Only Conclusions I is true.

E. Only Conclusions II is true.

Solution

Given statements: R < K ≤ L ≤ E; Z = E ≥ S ≥ P

On combining: R < K ≤ L ≤ Z = E ≥ S ≥ P

Conclusions:

I. R < S → False (as R < K ≤ L ≤ E = Z ≥ S → relation can’t be determined between R and S)

II. K ≤ Z → True (as K ≤ L ≤ E = Z → , therefore, K ≤ Z)

Hence, only conclusion II is true.

28. Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement:

S ≥ U ≥ V = N < G < I

Conclusions:

I. S > N

II. S = N

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Either conclusion I or II follows

E. None follows

Solution

Given Statements: S ≥ U ≥ V = N < G < I

Conclusions:

I. S > N → False ( S ≥ U ≥ V = N ). Thus, it is not definite that S will be greater than N.

II. S = N → False ( S ≥ U ≥ V = N ). Thus, it is not definite that S will be equal to N.

Since, S ≥ N is true. Both the conclusions together form complementary pair. So, either conclusion I or II definitely follows.

Hence, the correct answer is either conclusion I or II follows.

29. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

F ≤ D; A < B = C; D ≤ E < C

Conclusions:

I. E > F

II. E = F

A. Either Conclusion I or II is true.

B. Both Conclusions I and II are true.

C. Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

D. Only Conclusion I is true.

E. Only Conclusion II is true.

Solution

Given statements:

F ≤ D; A < B = C; D ≤ E < C

On combining we get: A < B = C > E ≥ D ≥ F

Conclusions:

I. E > F → False (as E ≥ D ≥ F → E ≥ F)

II. E = F → False (as E ≥ D ≥ F → E ≥ F)

Note: Conclusion I and II are complementary pairs.

Hence, either conclusion I or II is true.

30. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements:

S = T = R; T = W = U < G

Conclusions:

I. S < G

II. G > R

A. Only Conclusion I is true.

B. Only Conclusion II is true.

C. Both Conclusions I and II are true.

D. Either Conclusion I or II is true.

E. Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

Solution

Given statements: S = T = R; T = W = U < G

On combining we get: S = R = T = W = U < G

Conclusions:

I. S < G → True (as S = R = T = W = U < G → therefore S < G)

II. G > R → True (as R = T = W = U < G → therefore R < G → G > R )

Hence, both conclusions I and II are true.

31. Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons sit between D and F. G sits immediate left of D. E does not sit at any of the extreme end. More than three persons sit between H and A. A sits left of H. Either H or A sits at one of the end. Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end. E and B is not an immediate neighbour of G and D. E sits second to the right of B.

Question:

Who is sitting between F and H?

A. E

B. D

C. G

D. B

E. C

Solution

1) Three persons sit between D and F.

2) Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end.

3) G sits immediate left of D.

4) E sits second to the right of B.

5) E and B is not an immediate neighbour of G and D.

6) E does not sit at any of the extreme end.

7) More than three persons sit between H and A.

8) A sits left of H.

9) Either H or A sits at one of the end. ( This eliminates the case 2)

The final arrangement will be:

Hence, E is sitting between F and H.

32. Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons sit between D and F. G sits immediate left of D. E does not sit at any of the extreme end. More than three persons sit between H and A. A sits left of H. Either H or A sits at one of the end. Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end. E and B is not an immediate neighbor of G and D. E sits second to the right of B.

Question:

Which of the following persons sits immediate left of E?

A. A

B. D

C. G

D. H

E. F

Solution

1) Three persons sit between D and F.

2) Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end.

3) G sits immediate left of D.

4) E sits second to the right of B.

5) E and B is not an immediate neighbor of G and D.

6) E does not sit at any of the extreme end.

7) More than three persons sit between H and A.

8) A sits left of H.

9) Either H or A sits at one of the end. ( This eliminates the case 2)

The final arrangement will be:

Hence, F sits immediate left of E.

33. Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons sit between D and F. G sits immediate left of D. E does not sit at any of the extreme end. More than three persons sit between H and A. A sits left of H. Either H or A sits at one of the end. Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end. E and B is not an immediate neighbor of G and D. E sits second to the right of B.

Question:

Which of the following persons sits third from the left end?

A. F

B. G

C. H

D. A

E. C

Solution

1) Three persons sit between D and F.

2) Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end.

3) G sits immediate left of D.

4) E sits second to the right of B.

5) E and B is not an immediate neighbor of G and D.

6) E does not sit at any of the extreme end.

7) More than three persons sit between H and A.

8) A sits left of H.

9) Either H or A sits at one of the end. ( This eliminates the case 2)

The final arrangement will be:

Hence, A sits third from the left end.

34. Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons sit between D and F. G sits immediate left of D. E does not sit at any of the extreme end. More than three persons sit between H and A. A sits left of H. Either H or A sits at one of the end. Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end. E and B is not an immediate neighbor of G and D. E sits second to the right of B.

Question:

Which of the following person sits second to the right of C?

A. D

B. E

C. F

D. G

E. A

Solution

1) Three persons sit between D and F.

2) Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end.

3) G sits immediate left of D.

4) E sits second to the right of B.

5) E and B is not an immediate neighbor of G and D.

6) E does not sit at any of the extreme end.

7) More than three persons sit between H and A.

8) A sits left of H.

9) Either H or A sits at one of the end. ( This eliminates the case 2)

The final arrangement will be:

Hence, F sits second to the right of C.

35. Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons sit between D and F. G sits immediate left of D. E does not sit at any of the extreme end. More than three persons sit between H and A. A sits left of H. Either H or A sits at one of the end. Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end. E and B is not an immediate neighbor of G and D. E sits second to the right of B.

Question:

How many persons sits between A and F?

A. Two

B. One

C. Three

D. Five

E. Four

Solution

1) Three persons sit between D and F.

2) Neither D nor F sits at any of the extreme end.

3) G sits immediate left of D.

4) E sits second to the right of B.

5) E and B is not an immediate neighbor of G and D.

6) E does not sit at any of the extreme end.

7) More than three persons sit between H and A.

8) A sits left of H.

9) Either H or A sits at one of the end. ( This eliminates the case 2)

The final arrangement will be:

Hence, Two persons sits between A and F.

36. A train crosses two different platforms of length of 0.20 km and 0.45 km in 40 seconds and 50 seconds respectively with the same speed. Find the length of the train.

A. 500 m

B. 300 m

C. 600 m

D. 400 m

E. 800 m

Solution

Given:

Length of first platform = 0.20 km

Length of second platform = 0.45 km

Time taken by crosses the first platform = 40 seconds

Time taken by crosses the second platform = 50 seconds

Speed will be same in both cases.

Concept:

1 km = 1000 m

Formula used:

Speed = [(Total distance covered)/(Time taken)]

Calculation:

Let the length of train be x m.

Length of first platform = 0.20 km

⇒ (0.20 × 1000)m

⇒ 200 m

Length of second platform = 0.45 km

⇒ (0.45 × 1000)m

⇒ 450 m

Speed of train when crosses first platform = [(Total distance covered)/(Time taken)]

⇒ (Length of train + Length of first platform)/(Time taken by crosses the first platform)

⇒ (x + 200)/40 m/s

And Speed of train when crosses second platform = [(Total distance covered)/(Time taken)]

⇒ (Length of train + Length of second platform)/(Time taken by crosses the second platform)

⇒ (x + 450)/50 m/s

According to question,

(x + 200)/40 = (x + 450)/50

⇒ (x + 200)/4 = (x + 450)/5

⇒ 5(x + 200) = 4(x + 450)

⇒ 5x + 1000 = 4x + 1800

⇒ 5x – 4x = 1800 – 1000

⇒ x = 800

∴ The length of train is 800 m.

37. A vessel has 50 liters of water. 5 liters of water is drawn out from this vessel and replaced by milk. This process was repeated further three times. How much water does the vessel now contain?

A. 32.8 liters

B. 36.2 liters

C. 34.8 liters

D. 42.8 liters

E. 36.8 liters

Solution

GIVEN :

A vessel has 50 liters of water.

5 liters of water is drawn out from this vessel and replaced by milk.

This process was repeated further three times.

CONCEPT :

Replacement of Mixture.

CALCULATION :

Amount of water left after 4 operations = 50 [1 – (5/50)]⁴

= 50 × 9/10 × 9/10 × 9/10 × 9/10 = 32.8

∴ The vessel now has 32.8 liters of water.

38. L is 25% as efficient as M. N does one-third of the work done by L and M together. If N alone does the work in 30 days, then in how many days will L, M and N together completes the work?

Solution

Given:

N = 30 days

L is 25% as efficient as M

N does one-third of the work done by L and M together

Calculations:

N’s 1 day’s work = 1/30

N does 1/3 work of (L + M)

⇒ (L + M)’s 1 day’s work = 3/30 = 1/10

⇒ ( L + M + N)’s 1 day’s work = (1/10) + (1/30) = 4/30 = 2/15

L, M and N together completes the work in 15/2 = 712712 days.

∴ L, M and N together completes the work in 712712 days.

39. Find the wrong term in the following series.

11, 24, 41, 60, 83, 100

A. 11

B. 24

C. 41

D. 60

D. 100

Solution

Given series:

11, 24, 41, 60, 83, 100

Calculation :

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 11 + 13 = 24

⇒ 24 + 17 = 41

⇒ 41 + 19 = 60

⇒ 60 + 23 = 83

⇒ 83 + 29 = 112

The wrong term is 100

Hence the wrong term in the series is 100.

40. Find the wrong term in the following series.

11, 155, 324, 520, 745, 1000

A. 11

B. 155

C. 1000

D. 520

E. 745

Solution

Given series:

11, 155, 324, 520, 745, 1000

Calculation :

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 11 + (12)² = 155

⇒ 155 + (13)² = 324

⇒ 324 + (14)² = 520

⇒ 520 + (15)² = 745

⇒ 745 + (16)² = 1001

The wrong term is 1000

Hence the wrong term in the series is 1000.

41. Find the wrong term in the following series.

90, 72, 56, 42, 30, 21

A. 90

B. 72

C. 56

D. 42

E. 21

Solution

Given series:

90, 72, 56, 42, 30, 21

Calculation :

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ (9)² + 9 = 90

⇒ (8)² + 8 = 72

⇒ (7)² + 7 = 56

⇒ (6)² + 6 = 42

⇒ (5)² + 5 = 30

⇒ (4)2 + 4 = 20

The wrong term is 21

Hence the wrong term in the series is 21.

42. Find the wrong term in the following series.

33, 76, 117, 154, 185, 210

A. 33

B. 76

C. 117

D. 154

E. 210

Solution

Given series:

33, 76, 117, 154, 185, 210

Calculation :

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ 33 + 43 = 76

⇒ 76 + 41 = 117

⇒ 117 + 37 = 154

⇒ 154 + 31 = 185

⇒ 185 + 29 = 214

The wrong term is 210

Hence the wrong term in the series is 210.

43. Find the wrong term in the following series.

8, 27, 125, 343, 1221, 2197

A. 8

B. 27

C. 125

D. 1221

E. 343

Solution

Given series:

8, 27, 125, 343, 1221, 2197

Calculation :

The series follows the following pattern:

⇒ (2)3 = 8

⇒ (3)³ = 27

⇒ (5)³ = 125

⇒ (7)³ = 343

⇒ (11)³ = 1331

⇒ (13)3 = 2197

The wrong term is 1221

Hence the wrong term in the series is 1221.

44. Direction: The following table shows the number of students in different colleges and ratio of boys and girls in respective colleges

College	Total Students	Boys : Girls
A	400
B	200	3 : 5
C		8 : 2
D	500
E		3 : 5

Question:

Find the total no. of boys in college C if total no. of students in school A and C is 700.

A. 160

B. 240

C. 340

D. 140

E. 60

Solution

Given:

Total no. students in college A and C = 700

Total no. of students in college A = 400

Ratio of boys to girls in college C = 8 : 2

Calculation:

Total no. of students in college C = 700 – 400 = 300

According to question,

Ratio of boys : girls = 8 : 2

Boys in college C = (8/10) × 300

⇒ 30 × 8 = 240

∴ Total number of boys in college C is 240.

45. Direction: The following table shows the number of students in different colleges and ratio of boys and girls in respective colleges

College	Total Students	Boys : Girls
A	400
B	200	3 : 5
C		8 : 2
D	500
E		3 : 5

Question:

Find the number of boys in college A if ratio between girls and boys in college A is 6 :4.

A. 260

B. 180

C. 240

D. 160

E. 140

Solution

Given:

Total number of students in college A = 400

Calculation:

Number of boys = (4/10) × 400

⇒ 4 × 40 = 160

∴ Total number of boys in college A is 160.

46. Direction: The following table shows the number of students in different colleges and ratio of boys and girls in respective colleges

College	Total Students	Boys : Girls
A	400
B	200	3 : 5
C		8 : 2
D	500
E		3 : 5

Question:

If in college E the total number of students is 200 and the ratio of boys and girls in college D is 4 : 1. Then find the total number of boys in college D and E.

A. 2565

B. 120

C. 175

D. 255

E. 475

Solution

Given:

Total no. of students in college E = 200

Ratio of boys and girls in college E = 3 : 5

Total no. of students in college D = 500

Ratio of boys and girls in college D = 4 : 1

Calculation:

Number of boys in college E = (3/8) × 200

⇒ 3 × 25 = 75

Number of boys in college D = (4/5) × 500

⇒ 4 × 100 = 400

∴ Total number of boys in college D and E is 75 + 400 = 475

47. Direction: The following table shows the number of students in different colleges and ratio of boys and girls in respective colleges

College	Total Students	Boys : Girls
A	400
B	200	3 : 5
C		8 : 2
D	500
E		3 : 5

Question:

If in college F total no. of students is 1000 and ratio of girls to boys is 7 : 3. Then find the total no. of girls in college B and F.

A. 225

B. 175

C. 575

D. 700

E. 825

Solution

Given:

Total no. of students in college B = 200

Ratio of boys and girls in college B = 3 : 5

Total no. of students in college F = 1000

Ratio of girls to boys in college F = 7 : 3

Calculation:

Number of girls in college B = (5/8) × 200

⇒ 5 × 25 = 125

Number of girls in college F = (7/10) × 1000

⇒ 7 × 100 = 700

∴ Total no. of girls in college B and F = 125 + 700 = 825.

48. Direction: The following table shows the number of students in different colleges and ratio of boys and girls in respective colleges

College	Total Students	Boys : Girls
A	400
B	200	3 : 5
C		8 : 2
D	500
E		3 : 5

Question:

Ratio of boys and girls in college D is 4 : 1. College B and D merged in one college. Find the ratio of boys and girls after merger of college B and D.

A. 19 : 9

B. 1 : 3

C. 2 : 5

D. 5 : 2

E. 9 : 19

Solution

Given:

Total no. of students in college B = 200

Ratio of boys and girls in college B = 3 : 5

Total no. of students in college D = 500

Ratio of boys and girls in college D = 4 : 1

Calculation:

Number of boys in college B = (3/8) × 200

⇒ 3 × 25 = 75

Number of girls in college B = (5/8) × 200

⇒ 5 × 25 = 125

Number of boys in college D = (4/5) × 500

⇒ 4 × 100 = 400

Number of girls in college D = (1/5) × 100

⇒ 1 × 100 = 100

Total no. of boys and girls in college B and D after merger = 200 + 500 = 700

Total no. of boys in college B and D after merger = 75 + 400 = 475

Total no. of girls in college B and D after merger = 125 + 100 = 225

The ratio of boys to girls = 475 ∶ 225

⇒ 19 ∶ 9

∴ The ratio of boys and girls in college B and D after the merger is 19 ∶ 9.

49. The outer radius and inner radius of a hollow cylinder is 8.4 cm and 4.9 cm. If Height is 5757 of outer radius then, Find the total surface area ?

A. 794.2

B. 805.2

C. 783.2

D. 772.2

E. 816.2

Solution

Given:

The outer radius and inner radius of a hollow cylinder is 8.4 cm and 4.9 cm

Formula used:

Total surface area of a hollow cylinder = 2π (R + r) (R − r +H)2π (R + r) (R − r +H)

where r , R and H are inner radius , outer radius and height respectively

Calculation:

Height = 5757 of outer radius

= 57 × 8.457 × 8.4

= 6 cm

Total surface area of a hollow cylinder = 2π (8.4 + 4.9) (8.4 − 4.9 + 6)2π (8.4 + 4.9) (8.4 − 4.9 + 6)

= 2 × 227 × (13.3) ×(9.5)2 × 227 × (13.3) ×(9.5)

= 447 × (13.3) ×(9.5)447 × (13.3) ×(9.5)

= 5559.4 / 7

= 794.2 cm²

∴∴ The correct answer is 794.2 cm².

50. A shopkeeper sells 2 similar electronic heaters, one at a loss of 25% and the other at a gain of 20%. Find the overall gain or loss percentage in the whole transaction.

A. 2.5% gain

B. 2.5% loss

C. 30% gain

D. 30% loss

E. 15% gain

Solution

Formula Used:

Gain% = (SP – CP)/CP × 100

Loss% = (CP – SP)/CP × 100

where, SP → Selling Price, CP → Cost Price

Calculations:

Loss at which electronic heater is sold = 25%

⇒ CP1 : SP1 = 100% : 75%

⇒ CP1 : SP1 = 4 : 3 —-(1)

Gain at which other electronic heater is sold = 20%

⇒ CP2 : SP2 = 100% : 120%

⇒ CP2 : SP2 = 5 : 6 —-(2)

Heaters are similar, so CP of both is same

Multiplying (1) by 5 and (2) by 4, we get

CP1 : SP1 = (4 : 3) × 5 = 20 : 15

CP2 : SP2 = (5 : 6) × 4 = 20 : 24

⇒ (CP₁ + CP₂) : (SP₁ + SP₂) = (20 + 20) : (15 + 24)

⇒ (CP1 + CP2) : (SP1 + SP2) = 40 : 39

Overall loss % = (40 – 39)/40 × 100

⇒ Overall loss % = 2.5%

∴ The overall loss percentage in the whole transaction is 2.5%.

CP : SP

Heater 1 4 : 3 [25% = 1/4]

Heater 2 5 : 6 [20% = 1/5]

Heaters are similar, so CP of both is same

Multiplying (1) by 5 and (2) by 4, we get

Heater 1 20 : 15

Heater 2 20 : 24

⇒ Total cost price = (20 + 20) = 40

Total selling price = (15 + 24) = 39

Overall loss % = (40 – 39)/40 × 100

⇒ Overall loss % = 2.5%

∴ The overall loss percentage in the whole transaction is 2.5%.

51. Total amount invested by Akash, jaggu and yash together is Rs. 25,000 to start a glossary shop. Akash subscribes Rs. 2,000 more than jaggu and jaggu Rs. 2500 more than yash. The total profit earned by them together is Rs. 17,500, Akash receives:

A. Rs 7350

B. Rs 8200

C. Rs 7850

D. Rs 5500

E. None of these

Solution

Given:

Akash + jagu + yash = 25,000

Formula:

Profit = Investment × time

Calculations:

Let yash = x.

Then, jaggu = x + 2500 and

Akash = x + 2,500 + 2,000 = x + 4,500

⇒ x + x + 2,500 + x + 4,500 = 25,000

⇒ 3x = 25,000 – 7,000

⇒3x = 18,000

⇒x = 6,000

Akash : jagu : yash = 10,500 : 8,500 : 6,000 = 21 : 17 : 12.

Sum of ratios = 21 + 17 + 12 = 50

Akash’s share = 17,500 × (21/50) = 7350 Rs

∴ Akash receives the profit share of Rs. 7350

52. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

[4 × (82 + 23 + 72)] × 22 = 648 + (?)2

A. 100

B. 111

C. 121

D. 101

E. 99

Solution

[4 × (82 + 23 + 72)] × 22 = 648 + (?)²

⇒ [4 × (64 + 8 + 49)] × 22 = 648 + (?)²

⇒ [4 × 121] × 22 = 648 + (?)²

⇒ 484 × 22 = 648 + (?)²

⇒ 10648 = 648 + (?)²

⇒ 10648 – 648 = (?)²

⇒ 10000 = (?)²

⇒ 100 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is 100.

53. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(452 – 625 + 252 – 216) + 64 ÷ 80 = ?

A. 1839.8

B. 1980.8

C. 1809.8

D. 1890.8

E. 1089.8

Solution

(452 – 625 + 252 – 216) + 64 ÷ 80 = ?

⇒ (2025 – 625 + 625 – 216) + 64 ÷ 80 = ?

⇒ (2650 – 841) + 64 ÷ 80 = ?

⇒ 1809 + 64 ÷ 80 = ?

⇒ 1809 + 0.8 = ?

⇒ ? = 1809.08

Hence, 1809.08 will come in the place of (?).

54. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(24 – 16) × (2/6) × 180 – 125% of 800 = ?

A. 310

B. 410

C. 320

D. 520

E. -520

Solution

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step – 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in ‘Brackets’ must be solved second, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket

Step – 2: Any mathematical ‘Of’ or ‘Exponent’ must be solved next.

Step – 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain ‘Division’ and ‘Multiplication’ are calculated.

Step – 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain ‘Addition’ and ‘Subtraction’ should be calculated.

Calculations:

(24 – 16) × (2/6) × 180 – 125% of 800 = ?

⇒ 8 × (1/3) × 180 – 1000 = ?

⇒ 480 – 1000 = ?

⇒ ? = -520

Hence. -520 will come in the place of (?).

55. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

315.48 – 208.76 + 42.19 – 15% of 120 = ?

A. 130.81

B. 131.91

C. 129.91

D. 130.91

E. None of these

Solution

315.48 – 208.76 + 42.19 – 15% of 120 = ?

⇒ 315.48 – 208.76 + 42.19 – (0.15 × 120)

⇒ 315.48 – 208.76 + 42.19 – 18

⇒ 130.91

Hence, 130.91 will come in the place of (?).

56. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

12×35 + 72×16 + 32×48 + 66÷3 = ?

A. 3144

B. 3124

C. 3114

D. 3130

E. 3230

Solution

Solution :

Concept used :

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the question is given below:

Step 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in ‘ Brackets ‘ must be solved first and in the bracket,

Step 2: Any mathematical ‘ of ‘ or ‘exponent’ must be solved next,

Step 3: Next, The part of the equation that contains ‘Division’ and ‘multiplication’ are calculated,

Step 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contains ‘Addition ‘ and ‘Subtraction’ should be calculated

Given :

⇒ 12 × 35 + 72 × 16 + 32 × 48 + 66 ÷ 3 = ?

⇒ 420 + 1152 + 1536 + 22 = ?

⇒ ? =3130

Hence 3130 is the correct answer.

57. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question ?

( 17 × 25 ) + ( 45 × 22 ) + ( 30 × 44 ) = ?

A. 2245

B. 2976

C. 2735

D. 2045

E. 1919

Solution

Solution :

Concept used :

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the question given below:

Step 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in ‘ Brackets ‘ must be solved first and in the bracket,

Step 2: Any mathematical ‘ of ‘ or ‘exponent’ must be solved next,

Step 3: Next, The part of the equation that contains ‘Division’ and ‘multiplication’ are calculated,

Step 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contains ‘Addition ‘ and ‘Subtraction’ should be calculated.

Given :

⇒ ( 17 × 25 ) + ( 45 × 22 ) + ( 30 × 44 ) = ?

⇒ ( 425 ) + (990) + ( 1320 ) = ?

⇒ 425 + 990 + 1320 = ?

⇒ 1415 + 1320 = ?

⇒ ? = 2735

Hence 2735 is the correct answer.

58. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question ?

12% of 150 + 62% of 800 + 115 = ?

A. 729

B. 635

C. 629

D. 756

E. 593

Solution

Solution :

Concept used :

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the question given below:

Step 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in ‘ Brackets ‘ must be solved first and in the bracket,

Step 2: Any mathematical ‘ of ‘ or ‘exponent’ must be solved next,

Step 3: Next, The part of the equation that contains ‘Division’ and ‘multiplication’ are calculated,

Step 4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contains ‘Addition ‘ and ‘Subtraction’ should be calculated.

Given :

⇒ 12% of 150 + 62% of 800 + 115 = ?

⇒ 12 × 150 / 100 + 62 × 800 / 100 + 115 = ?

⇒ 18 + 496 + 115 = ?

⇒ ? = 629

Hence 629 is the correct answer.

59. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question ?

64² + 89² + 71² = ? – 345

A. 14406

B. 17403

C. 16502

D. 13985

E. 16523

Solution

Solution :

Given :

⇒ 64² + 89² + 71² = ? – 345

⇒ 64 × 64 + 89 × 89 + 71 × 71 = ? – 345

⇒ 4096 + 7921 + 5041 = ? – 345

⇒ 17058 = ? – 345

⇒ 17058 + 345 = ?

⇒ ? = 17403

Hence 17403 is the correct answer.

60. What should come in the place of ‘?’ in the following question?

110 + 1869 ÷ 21 + 53 – 7² = ? + √49

A. 109

B. 173

C. 196

D. 205

E. 217

Solution

Correct answer is: 3

Concept used:

The BODMAS rule should be followed to solve the question as per the given table:

Calculation:

110 + 1869 ÷ 21 + 53 – 72 = ? + √49

⇒ 110 + (1869/21) + 53 – 49 = ? + 7

⇒ 110 + 89 + 53 – 49 = ? + 7

⇒ 252 – 49 – 7 = ?

⇒ 252 – 56 = ?

⇒ ? = 196

∴The value of ? is 196

61. What should come in place of ‘?’ in the following question?

150 × 4% of 25 – 24 + 17² – 361 = ?

A. 30

B. 49

C. 41

D. 59

E. 54

Solution

Correct answer is: 5

Concept used:

The BODMAS rule should be followed to solve the question as per the given table:

Calculation:

150 × 4% of 25 – 24 + 172 – 361 = ?

⇒ 150 × 4/100 × 25 – 24 + 289 – 361 = ?

⇒ 150 × 1 – 24 + 289 – 361 = ?

⇒ 150 × – 24 + 289 – 361 = ?

⇒ 439 – 385 = ?

⇒ ? = 54

∴The value of ? is 54

62. What should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

453+723+519+643 =?√+79453+723+519+643 =?+79

A. 400

B. 6

C. 625

D. 5

E. 7

Solution

Given:

453+723+519+643 =?√+79453+723+519+643 =?+79

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below:

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in ‘Brackets’ must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical ‘Of’ or ‘Exponent’ must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain ‘Division’ and ‘Multiplication’ are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain ‘Addition’ and ‘Subtraction’ should be calculated.

Now,

Calculation:

173 + 233 + 469 + 223 = √? + 79173 + 233 + 469 + 223 = √? + 79

519+699+469+669= √?+79519+699+469+669= √?+79

2329= √? + 792329= √? + 79

2329 − 79= √?2329 − 79= √?

2259= √?2259= √?

√? = 25

? = 25²

? = 625

∴∴ The correct answer is 625.

63. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

175 × 8 + 540% of 58.33 – ?% of 1100 = 142

A. 145

B. 150

C. 143

D. 144

E. 140

Solution

Given:

175 × 8 + 540% of 58.33 – ?% of 1100 = 142

Concept Used:

a% of b = b% of a

Percentage to fraction conversion: For easy calculation, we will split the fraction as follows:

58.33% = 50% + 8.33% = 1/2 + 1/12 = 7/12

Calculation:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

According to the rule ‘of’ should be solved first

⇒ 175 × 8 + 540% of 58.33 – ?% of 1100 = 142

⇒ 175 × 8 + 58.33% of 540 – ?% of 1100 = 142

⇒ 175 × 8 + (50% + 8.33%) of 540 – ?% of 1100 = 142

⇒ 175 × 8 + (1/2 + 1/12) of 540 – ?% of 1100 = 142

⇒ 175 × 8 + (7/12) of 540 – ?% of 1100 = 142

⇒ 175 × 8 + 7 × 45 – 142 = ?% of 1100

⇒ (200 – 25) × 8 + 315 – 142 = ?% of 1100

⇒ 1600 – 200 + 315 – 142 = ?% of 1100

⇒ 1573 = ?% of 1100

⇒ ? = (1573 × 100)/1100

⇒ ? = 143

∴ The value of ‘?’ is 143.

64. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?14.5 of 18 + 15.5 of 28 = 10 × ?

A. 86.7

B. 69.5

C. 89.3

D. 87.4

E. 85.9

Solution

Given:

14.5 of 18 + 15.5 of 28 = 10 × ?

Concept Used:

Calculation:

14.5 of 18 + 15.5 of 28 = 10 × ?

⇒ 261 + 434 = 10 × ?

⇒ 695/10 = ?

⇒ ? = 69.5

∴ The value of (?) is 69.5

65. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

144 × 8.33% × 12167 ÷ (23)² = ?

A. 129

B. 324

C. 516

D. 276

E. 485

Solution

Concept Used:

Calculation:

144 × 8.33% × 12167 ÷ (23)2 = ?

⇒ 144 × (1/12) × 12167 ÷ 529 = ?

⇒ 144 × (1/12) × 23 = ?

⇒ 12 × 23 = ?

⇒ 276 = ?

∴ The value of (?) is 276.

66. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

8.33% of 240 + ?% of 400 = 25% of 320

A. 25

B. 10

C. 15

D. 35

E. 30

Solution

Given:

8.33% of 240 + ?% of 400 = 25% of 320

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

8.33% of 240 + ?% of 400 = 25% of 320

⇒ (1/12) × 240 + (?/100) × 400 = (25/100) × 320

⇒ 20 + ? × 4 = (1/4) × 320

⇒ 20 + ? × 4 = 80

⇒ ? × 4 = 80 – 20

⇒ ? × 4 = 60

⇒ ? = 60/4

⇒ ? = 15

∴ 15 will come in place of the question mark (‘?’).

The value of 8.33% is (1/12).

67. If a student scores 22% marks then he failed by 163 marks but if he scores 55% marks then he passed by 200 marks. find the passing percentage in the examination?

A. 35%

B. 36%

C. 36(7/11)%

D. 36(9/11)%

E. 35.5%

Solution

Given:

If a student scores 22% marks then he failed by 163 marks

If he scores 55% marks then he passed with 200 marks

Concept used:

If the student failed means we need to add the marks and if the student passed means we need to subtract the marks

calculations:

let the total marks get by student = x

⇒ (22x/100) + 163 = (55x/100) – 200

⇒ (55x/100) – (22x/100) = 163 + 200

⇒ (33x/100) = 363

⇒ x = 363 × (100/33)

⇒ x = 1100

Total Marks = 1100

Passing Marks = (22 × 1100)/100 + 163 = 405

Passing Marks = 405

Passing % = 405/1100 × 100

= 405/11

= 36(9/11)%

Required passing % = 36(9/11)%.

68. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 7. If the first number is increased by 40 and the second number is tripled, then the new ratio becomes 3 : 7. Find the difference between the initial numbers.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 30

D. 25

E. 20

Solution

Given:

Initial ratio = 5 : 7

Final ratio = 3 : 7

Calculation:

Let the numbers be 5x and 7x

A.T.Q

(5x + 40)/(21x) = 3/7

⇒ 35x + 280 = 63x

⇒ 28x = 280

⇒ x = 10

Required difference = 7x – 5x = 2x = 20

∴ The answer is 20

69. A man’s age is three times the sum of the ages of his two children, but after 30 years his age will be equal to the sum of the ages of his children. Find the present age of the man.

A. 51 yrs

B. 54 yrs

C. 48 yrs

D. 45 yrs

E. 42 yrs

Solution

GIVEN:

Man’s age = 3 × sum of two children’s age

Man’s age after 30 yrs = sum of two children’s age after 30 yrs

EXPLANATION:
Let the age of the man and his two children be x, y, z years.

A.T.Q

x = 3 (y + z) —-(1)

After 30 years,

Man’s age = (x + 30)

Children’s age = (y + 30), (z + 30)

So, x + 30 = y + 30 + z + 30

x – (y + z) = 30 —-(2)

Put x from (1) into (2),

2 (y + z) = 30

(y + z) = 15 yrs

x = 15 × 3 = 45 yrs

∴ The man’s age is 45 years.

70. Compound interest on a certain sum at the rate of 12% per annum after 2 years is Rs. 142464. Find the simple interest on the sum at the rate of 15% per annum for 7 years.

A. Rs. 5,00,000

B. Rs. 5,50,000

C. Rs. 5,88,000

D. Rs. 5,80,000

E. None of these

Solution

Given:

Compound interest = Rs. 142464, at the rate of 12% and time = 2 years

Formula used:

If P = Principal, R= Rate of Interest, and T = Time Period, then:

Simple interest = (P × R × T)/100, and

Compound interest = P(1 + R/100)t – P

Calculation:

C.I = P[(1 + 12/100)² – 1]

⇒ 142464 = P[(28/25)² – 1]

⇒ 142464 = P(159/625)

⇒ P = 142464 × (625/159)

⇒ P = Rs. 560000

So, S.I = (560000 × 15 × 7)/100 = Rs. 588000

∴ The simple interest on the sum at rate of 15 per annum for 7 years is Rs. 588000

71. Directions: In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C), (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuations if any.

He has been (A) / toiling hardly (B) / to be able to (C) / provide for his family. (D)

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

E. No error

Solution

The correct answer is ‘(B)‘

Key Points

In the given sentence, the error in the part is the inappropriate use of the adverb.
Adverb qualifies all the parts of speech.
In the given statement, the word ‘hardly‘ is being used to qualify a statement by saying that it is true to an insignificant degree.
- For eg.- The little house in which he lived was hardly bigger than a hut.
Whereas from the sentence we can gather that he works hard to be able to provide for his family.
Therefore, we will replace ‘hardly‘ with ‘hard’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Hence, option 2 is the most appropriate choice

The correct sentence will be: ‘He has been toiling hard to be able to provide for his family.’

Additional Information

For eg.- Their lives are spent toiling for the rich.

Toil means to work extremely hard or incessantly.

72. Directions: In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C), (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuations if any.

Unless these questions (A) / are not solved (B) / the region will (C) / remain a powder keg. (D)

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

E. No error

Solution

The correct answer is ‘(B)‘.

Key Points

With until/unless ‘not’ is not used.
- For eg.-
  - Until all is over one’s ambition never dies.
  - Liberty is the only thing you cannot have unless you give it to others.
Therefore, we will omit ‘not‘ in part ‘(B)’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Hence, option 2 is the most appropriate choice

The correct sentence will be: ‘Unless these questions are solved, the region will remain a powder keg.’

Additional Information

For eg.- Since the riot, the city has been a powder keg waiting to explode.

To be a powder keg is a situation that is dangerous and that could become violent.

73. Directions: In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C), (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuations if any.

The brother-in-laws (A) / were very helpful (B) / and supportive of (C) / their choices. (D)

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

E. No error

Solution

The correct answer is ‘(A)’.

Key Points

In the given sentence, the error in the part is the inappropriate use of the noun number.
Nouns are words used to name person, place, animal, thing, emotion, or state.
In the given statement, the incorrect plural form of ‘brother-in-law‘ is being used.
Compound nouns are made plural by adding ‘s‘ to the main word.
- For eg.- Commander-in-chief – Commanders-in-chief, brother-in-law – brothers-in-law etc.
Therefore, we will replace ‘brother-in-laws‘ with ‘brothers-in-law’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Hence, option 1 is the most appropriate choice

The correct sentence will be: ‘The brothers-in-law were very helpful and supportive of their choices.’

Additional Information

For eg.- Members of parliament, mother-in-law, peacock, peahen, man-hater, etc.

A compound noun is a noun that is made with two or more words.

74. Directions: In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C), (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuations if any.

All pieces (A)/ of informations (B) / given by her (C) / were accurate. (D)

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

E. No error

Solution

The correct answer is ‘(B)‘.

Key Points

In the given sentence, the error in the part is the inappropriate use of the noun number.
Nouns are words used to name person, place, animal, thing, emotion, or state.
In the given statement, the incorrect plural form of ‘information’ is being used.
Nouns such as jewelry, evidence, information, work, etc are uncountable nouns and can’t be made plural by adding ‘s/es’ within a sentence.
Phrases like ‘all pieces of’, ‘many kinds of’, ‘slices of’ etc. are added before uncountable nouns to make them plural.
- For eg.- Many kinds of furniture are available in that shop.
Therefore, we will replace ‘informations‘ with ‘information’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Hence, option 2 is the most appropriate choice

The correct sentence will be: ‘All pieces of information given by her were accurate.’

Additional Information

Example: Milk, Water, etc.

Uncountable noun: Uncountable nouns are substances, concepts etc that we cannot divide into separate elements.

75. Directions: Read the following sentence and determine whether there is an error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, select ‘No Error’ as your answer.

Samantha felt it was more better (A) if she chose the job in London (B) as compared to Dubai (C) as it was closer to home. (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. No Error

Solution

The correct answer is A

Key Points

The given sentence is in the past tense as can be seen from the use of the verbs ‘felt’ and ‘chose’ in the past tense.
‘Better‘ is an adjective which means ‘of a more excellent or effective type or quality’.
By referring to something as ‘more’ in a certain quality than something else automatically means it is a comparison.
- E.g.: Dean was better than his brother at hunting.
‘More‘ is also a determiner which means ‘a greater or additional amount or degree of’
- E.g.: Patrick was more talented at carrom than Stewart.
Both of them mean the same thing and thus using both of them at the same time becomes redundant.

Hence, the ‘more‘ needs to be removed from the sentence in order to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Thus, the correct sentence: ‘Samantha felt it was better if she chose the job in London as compared to Dubai as it was closer to home.’

76. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Moves by the ATP and WTA — governing bodies of men’s and women’s tennis tours — to strip Wimbledon of its primary currency, the all-important ranking points, for the 2022 edition represent the harshest rebuke to the autonomous overreach by the oldest Grand Slam event in declining entries from Russian and Belarusian players. The ATP, on Friday, said the move were to protect the “integrity of the sport”, which was built upon “merit-based tournament entry” (through rankings) and a level playing field. The WTA concurred, basing its decision on its foundational principle of equal opportunity, championed by the legendary Billie Jean King. The International Tennis Federation (ITF) followed suit by removing points from the Junior and Wheelchair competitions. As a result, the most coveted tennis tournament in the world is set to be reduced to an exhibition event, barring a rethink from the feuding parties. A large-scale player drop-out may not _______, for Wimbledon holds too much allure, both in terms of prestige and prize money. But the saga is sure to upend the sport’s pecking orders. Tennis rankings work over a rolling 52-week period, updated by adding points earned in the previous week and subtracting those from the equivalent week in the previous year. Now, World No.1 Novak Djokovic’s 2000 points for winning the 2021 edition will be removed without any addition this year, causing severe disruptions in the upper echelons of men’s tennis.

More broadly, the fiasco is likely to end up leaving everyone bruised. Wimbledon has rightly been penalized for triggering the controversy by unfairly targeting Russians and Belarusians for the actions of their political leaders, despite the likes of World No.2 Daniil Medvedev and World No.7 Andrey Rublev publicly calling for peace. But the pushback by the ATP, WTA, and ITF will, unfortunately, inflict collateral damage on scores of players, especially those in the lower rungs, otherwise eligible to earn points. While the ATP has correctly stressed that an acceptable solution could have been found if Wimbledon had not chosen to act unilaterally based on “informal guidance” from the British government, it is a fact that tennis’s seven governing bodies — ATP, WTA, ITF, and the four Majors — mostly work at cross-purposes and act in self-interest. The ATP itself has not walked the talk, continuing to hand out a disproportionately high number of ranking points to its flagship multi-nation team competition ATP Cup despite the tournament being a closed-door event. Wimbledon has, for now, stopped expressing its disappointment and reserved its position, with the ongoing French Open providing fans with a welcome distraction. But any attempt to further this powerplay by driving another wedge, instead of charting out a progressive path, will only splinter the sport more.

Question:

According to the passage, why did Wimbledon ban Russian and Belarusian players?

A. Following their misbehavior in the last Wimbledon match.

B. Following merit-based tournament entry.

C. Following the unsuitability of weather for Russian and Belarusian players in Wimbledon.

D. Following the restrictions implied on them by their governments.

E. Following the actions of their political leaders.

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Following the actions of their political leaders.‘

Key Points

The second sentence of the second paragraph says “Wimbledon has rightly been penalized for triggering the controversy by unfairly targeting Russians and Belarusians for the actions of their political leaders, despite the likes of World No.2 Daniil Medvedev and World No.7 Andrey Rublev publicly calling for peace.”
From the above sentence, we can say that according to the passage, Wimbledon banned Russian and Belarusian players following the actions of their political leaders.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 5.

77. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Question:

Choose the antonym of the word ‘Concurred‘.

A. Differed

B. Accorded

C. Complied

D. Consented

E. Acceded

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Differed.‘

Key Points

The word ‘Concurred‘ means To be of the same opinion; agree.
- Example: Members of both parties concurred in urging passage of the bill.
Let’s look at the meaning of the given options:-
- Differed – To have a different opinion; disagree.
  - Example: The two leaders differed on the issue of sanctions.
- Accorded – To match; to agree with.
  - Example: His opinion accorded with mine.
- Complied – To act in accordance with a wish or command.
  - Example: All states have complied with this requirement.
- Consented – To agree to something.
  - Example: She finally consented to answer our questions.
- Acceded – To agree to a demand, request, or treaty.
  - Example: The government acceded to public pressure to review the tax.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 1.

Additional Information

The antonyms of the word ‘Concurred‘ are “Differed, Disagreed, Conflicted“.
The synonyms of the word ‘Concurred‘ are “Accorded, Complied, Consented”.

78. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Question:

Choose the synonym of the word ‘Rebuke‘.

A. Commendation

B. Citation

C. Reprimand

D. Praise

E. Compliment

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Reprimand.‘

Key Points

The word ‘Rebuke‘ means An expression of sharp disapproval or criticism.
- Example: His bad manners earned him a sharp rebuke.
Let’s look at the meaning of the given options:-
- Commendation – Formal or official praise.
  - Example: Several of the firefighters received a commendation for their bravery.
- Citation – A mention of a praiseworthy act in an official report.
  - Example: The citation described him as an officer of extreme gallantry.
- Reprimand – A formal expression of disapproval; rebuke.
  - Example: His boss gave him a reprimand for being late.
- Praise – The expression of approval or admiration for someone or something.
  - Example: His latest movie has won high praise from critics.
- Compliment – A polite expression of praise or admiration.
  - Example: I must compliment you on your handling of a very difficult situation.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word ‘Rebuke‘ are “Reprimand, Reproach, Censure”.
The antonyms of the word ‘Rebuke‘ are “Commendation, Citation, Praise”.

79. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Question:

Select the word from the passage that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

To give particular emphasis or importance to a point, statement, or idea.

A. Bruised

B. Triggering

C. Inflict

D. Stressed

E. Disappointment

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Stressed.‘

Key Points

Let’s see the meanings of the given words:-
- Bruised –To hurt someone’s feelings.
  - Example: Divorce generally leaves both partners feeling rather bruised.
- Triggering – To cause an event or situation to happen or exist.
  - Example: The Fed has said 2.5 percent growth is all the economy can manage without triggering rising inflation.
- Inflict – To cause something unpleasant or painful to be suffered by someone or something.
  - Example: It is unlawful for a teacher to inflict corporal punishment on pupils.
- Stressed –To give particular emphasis or importance to a point, statement, or idea.
  - Example: The director stressed that point in particular.
- Disappointment –Sadness or displeasure caused by the non-fulfillment of one’s hopes or expectations.
  - Example: Losing the match was a bitter disappointment for the team.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

80. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Question:

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: ”A large-scale player drop-out may not _______, for Wimbledon holds too much allure, both in terms of prestige and prize money.”

A. Materializes

B. Materialized

C. Materialize

D. Materializing

E. Materialistic

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Materialize.‘

Key Points

In the given sentence, the modal verb ”may” before the blank indicates the use of the base or root form of the verb in the blank.
We know that after”may, might, did, do, does, can, could, will, would, must, shall, should” we use thebase form of the verb.
- Example: You may know the horse by his harness.
The verbs that follow modal verbs should only be in their base form.
Therefore, the base or root form of the verb ‘Materialize’ should be used in the blank.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete Sentence: A large-scale player drop-out may not materialize, for Wimbledon holds too much allure, both in terms of prestige and prize money.

Additional Information

Let us explore the other options:
- Materializes is the third-person present singular form of the verb.
- Materialized is the past tense form of the verb.
- Materializing is the gerund or present participle form of the verb.
- Materialistic is an adjective that means excessively concerned with material possessions; money-oriented.

81. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Question:

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the passage:

Hand out

A. To provide or share something.

B. To put your hand out of your pocket.

C. Difficult to control a situation.

D. No longer in control of something or someone.

E. To be chaotic or unmanageable.

Solution

The correct answer is ‘To provide or share something.‘

Key Points

Given Idiom: Hand out means To provide or share something.
- Example: Today the country’s nationalists rule the roost and hand out the jobs.
From the given options, the first option is the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Mistake Points

We may think from the phrase “Hand out” that it is all about putting your hand out of your pocket.

Additional Information

This idiom was first used and published in the late 1800s.

82. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Question:

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the passage:

End up

A. A person’s death.

B. To finish something.

C. The furthest or last part of something.

D. A person’s share of an activity.

E. To reach some conclusion.

Solution

The correct answer is ‘To reach some conclusion.‘

Key Points

Given Idiom: End up means To reach some conclusion, state, or situation due to a particular course of action.
- Example: If you don’t work hard, you’ll end up nowhere.
From the given options, the fifth option is the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Mistake Points

We may think from the phrase “End up” that it is all about something related to a person’s death.

Additional Information

This idiom was first used and published in the first half of the 1900s.

83. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

Russian and Belarusian players.

C. The ATP and WTA are the governing bodies of both men’s and women’s tennis tours.

A. Only A

B. Both A and B

C. Only B

D. Both B and C

E. Only C

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Both A and B.‘

Key Points

The second sentence of the second paragraph says “Wimbledon has rightly been penalized for triggering the controversy by unfairly targeting Russians and Belarusians for the actions of their political leaders, despite the likes of World No.2 Daniil Medvedev and World No.7 Andrey Rublev publicly calling for peace” and the fourth sentence of the second paragraph says ”While the ATP has correctly stressed that an acceptable solution could have been found if Wimbledon had not chosen to act unilaterally based on “informal guidance” from the British government, it is a fact that tennis’s seven governing bodies — ATP, WTA, ITF, and the four Majors — mostly work at cross-purposes and act in self-interest”.
- From the above sentences, we can say that statements A and B are incorrect according to the given passage.
The first sentence of the passage says “Moves by the ATP and WTA — governing bodies of men’s and women’s tennis tours — to strip Wimbledon of its primary currency, the all-important ranking points, for the 2022 edition represent the harshest rebuke to the autonomous overreach by the oldest Grand Slam event in declining entries from Russian and Belarusian players.”
- From the above sentence, we can say that statement C is correct according to the given passage.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

84. Direction: A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Five alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the option corresponding to “No improvement”.

The Jet Airlines fly to Mumbai will be ready to board tomorrow.

B. The Jet Airlines flying

A. The Jet Airlines flight

C. The Jet Airlines flies

D. The Jet Airlines flow

E. No improvement

Solution

The correct answer is ‘The Jet Airlines flight’.

Key Points

The use of the phrase ‘The Jet Airlines fly’ is inappropriate for the given sentence.
‘The Jet Airlines flight’ is a noun phrase.
Flight means the action or process of flying through the air.
- Example:
  - The jet was the first to achieve supersonic flight.
Hence, the underlined part of the sentence should be replaced by ‘The Jet Airlines flight’
.

Correct sentence: The Jet Airlines flight to Mumbai will be ready to board tomorrow.

Additional Information

She was the devil in disguise.

‘Noun phrase’ is a word or group of words containing a noun and functioning in a sentence as subject, object, or prepositional object.

Example:

He knows the back streets.

85. Direction: A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Five alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the option corresponding to “No improvement”.

Upto many tries, he finally cracked his examination.

A. After many tries

B. Instead of many tries

C. By many tries

D. Because of many tries

E. No improvement

Solution

The correct answer is ‘After many tries’.
Key Points

The use of ‘Upto many tries’ is inappropriate for the given sentence.
‘After many tries’ is a prepositional phrase.
The word ‘after’ can be used as a preposition, an adverb and a conjunction.
When it is used as a preposition, it is followed by a noun.
Hence, the underlined part of the sentence should be replaced by ‘After many tries’.

Correct sentence: After many tries, he finally cracked his examination.

Additional Information

With a reusable tote in hand, Tiya walked to the farmer’s market.

Every prepositional phrase is a series of words consisting of a preposition and its object.

In a prepositional phrase, the object may be a noun, pronoun, gerund, or clause.

A prepositional phrase can function as an adjective or adverb.

Example:

With a reusable tote in hand, Tiya walked to the farmer’s market.

86. A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Five alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the option corresponding to “No improvement”.

While India’s economic activity have remained muted, there has been a consistent acceleration in inflation.

A. has remained

B. had remained

C. remained

D. have been remaining

E. No improvement

Solution

The correct answer is ‘has remained‘.

Key Points

The subject of the verb is ‘India’s economic activity‘ which is a singular noun. Therefore, the underlined phrase, i.e. ‘have remained‘ should be replaced.

‘Past perfect tense‘ is used to denote that one action was taken before another in the past.
- Example: I had completed my home work before my mother arrived.
- Therefore, option 2) cannot be chosen here.
‘Simple past tense‘ is used to denote a past event. It is used to talk about a finished action.
- Example: My father went to Delhi.
- Hence, option 3) cannot be used here.
‘Present perfect continuous tense‘ is used to talk about an action which started in the past and is still going on.
- Example: She has been working here since last year.
- Hence, option 4) cannot be used.
‘Present perfect tense‘ is used when the time of a past event is not mentioned.
- Example: I have written a novel.
- No specific time of the action in the given sentence is mentioned. Hence, present perfect tense should be used.
- The subject of the verb is a singular noun. So, ‘has‘ should be used instead of ‘have‘.
- Therefore, option 1) is the answer.

Correct sentence: While India’s economic activity has remained muted, there has been a consistent acceleration in inflation.

Important Points

The construction of a sentence in present perfect tense:

Rahul	has	written	a story.
subject	has/have	verb³	object

87. A sentence/ a part of the sentence is underlined. Five alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed. Click the option corresponding to “No improvement.”

The mob killed the sub-divisional officer, didn’t they?

A. didn’t it?

B. do it?

C. do they?

D. hadn’t they?

E. No improvement

Solution

The correct answer is ‘didn’t it?’.

Key Points

Here in the given sentence, the wrong question tag has been used.
A collective noun takes a singular verb and singular pronoun in the question tag.
- Example- The jury has taken its decision, hasn’t it?
So, here in the given sentence collective noun mob has been used.
So, we need to use the singular pronoun in the question tag.
‘They’ will be replaced by ‘it’.
The sentence and question tag must be in the same tense.
The given sentence is in past tense so the question tag should be in the past tense.

The correct sentence: The mob killed the sub-divisional officer, didn’t it?

Additional Information

A question tag is a confirmatory question asked from the second person.

What is a question tag?

88. Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

ADOPTED

A. They adopted for rescheduling rather than outright cancellation.

B. The committee ultimately adopted his suggestions.

C. The child has now been legally adopted.

A. Only A

B. Both A and B

C. Only B

D. Both B and C

E. Only C

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Both B and C.’

Key Points

The word ‘Adopted‘ as a verb means To formally approve or accept a report or suggestion.
The word ‘Adopted‘ as a verb means To legally take another person’s child and bring it up as one’s own.
- In sentence A, the word ‘Adopted‘ is inappropriately used and doesn’t fit the context of the sentence.
- In sentence B, the word ‘Adopted‘ has been correctly used as a verb as the sentence is talking about approving or accepting suggestions by the committee.
- In sentence C, the word ‘Adopted‘ has been correctly used as a verb as the sentence is talking about legally taking another person’s child.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

89. Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

AROUND

A. I went to the house but there was nobody around.

B. His personal wealth is estimated at around $100 million.

C. There was a lot of mud on the around.

A. Only A

B. Both A and B

C. Only B

D. Both B and C

D. Only C

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Both A and B.’

Key Points

The word ‘Around‘ as an adverb means Present, living, in the vicinity, or in active use.
The word ‘Around‘ as an adverb means Approximately.
- In sentence A, the word ‘Around‘ has been correctly used as an adverb as the sentence is talking about nobody present in the vicinity of the house.
- In sentence B, the word ‘Around‘ has been correctly used as an adverb as the sentence is talking about the estimation of someone’s wealth estimated at approximately $100 million.
- In sentence C, the word ‘Around‘ is inappropriately used and doesn’t fit the context of the sentence.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

90. Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

AIMED

A. She aimed the gun at the target and fired.

B. They aimed to make the country safe from terrorist attacks.

C. The photographs will look nice aimed in red.

A. Only A

B. Both A and B

C. Only B

C. Both B and C

D. Only C

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Both A and B.’

Key Points

The word ‘Aimed‘ as a verb means To point or direct something at a target before trying to hit it.
The word ‘Aimed‘ as a verb means To intend to do or achieve something.
- In sentence A, the word ‘Aimed‘ has been correctly used as a verb as the sentence is talking about pointing the gun towards a target.
- In sentence B, the word ‘Aimed‘ has been correctly used as a verb as the sentence is talking about intending to make the country safe from terrorist attacks.
- In sentence C, the word ‘Aimed‘ is inappropriately used and doesn’t fit the context of the sentence.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

91. Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the word.

MARSHAL

A. A federal marshal was killed in a shoot-out.

B. Police were brought in to marshal the crowd.

C. The general has ordered a marshal withdrawal of troops from the area.

A. Only A

B. Both A and B

C. Only B

D. Both B and C

E. Only C

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Both A and B.’

Key Points

The word ‘Marshal‘ as a noun means An officer of the highest rank in the armed forces of some countries.
The word ‘Marshal‘ as a verb means To assemble and arrange a group of people, especially troops in order.
- In sentence A, the word ‘Marshal‘ has been correctly used as a noun as the sentence is talking about an officer of the highest rank who was killed in a shoot-out.
- In sentence B, the word ‘Marshal‘ has been correctly used as a verb as the sentence is talking about bringing police to assemble and arrange the crowd.
- In sentence C, the word ‘Marshal‘ is inappropriately used and doesn’t fit the context of the sentence.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.

92. Pick out the appropriate words from the options given below the sentence to complete it meaningfully.

John _____ in pain when he was hit by the ball while playing cricket.

A. howled

B. growled

C. screamed

D. yelled

E. groaned

Solution

The correct answer is “groaned”

Key Points

Groan means to make a deep inarticulate sound conveying pain.
- Example: The beast groaned in pain after being shot.
John is hit by a ball and is in pain.
Thus “groaned” should be used.

Additional Information

Let us take a look at the other options:

Example: I yelled at Rohan to get his attention.

howled: a long, doleful cry uttered by an animal such as a dog or wolf.

Example: The wolf howled in the forest.

growled: (of an animal, especially a dog) make a low guttural sound in the throat.

Example: The dog growled at the stranger.

screamed: give a long, loud, piercing cry or cries expressing extreme emotion or pain.

Example: I was screamed at by our professor.

yelled: to utter a loud cry, scream, or shout.

93. The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

Curled up in a corner of the seat I amused ____ for hours making funny little holes in bits of cardboard.

A. yourself

B. herself

C. himself

D. myself

E. None of the above

Solution

The correct answer is myself.

Key Points

Myself – used by a speaker to refer to himself or herself as the object of a verb or preposition when he or she is the subject of the clause.

The sentence should be read as :Curled up in a corner of the seat I amused myself for hours making funny little holes in bits of cardboard.

Important Points

All listed options are examples of ‘reflexive pronouns’.
“Myself” is a reflexive pronoun used when you are the object of your own action.
Hence it is correct for the given sentence.

Additional Information

Reflexive pronouns are words ending in -self or -selves that are used when the subject and the object of a sentence are the same (e.g., I believe in myself).

94. he given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.

Her skin was so ____ that even the mildest creams burned it.

A. sympathetic

B. tricky

C. sensitive

D. perceptive

E. None of the above

Solution

The correct answer is sensitive.

Key Points

sensitive – easily damaged, injured, or distressed by slight changes.

The sentence should be read as :Her skin was so sensitive that even the mildest creams burned it.

Additional Information

Let us look at the meaning of the other words:

sympathetic – feeling, showing, or expressing sympathy.
tricky – deceitful or crafty.
perceptive – having or showing sensitive insight.
responsive – reacting quickly and positively.

Important Points

This makes sensitive the correct word for the given blank.

The sentence talks about the negative reaction of the subject’s skin to even mild creams.

This indicates that delicate nature of the subject’s skin.

95. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.

The golden period of India began under the _________ of the Guptas.

A. Chastise

B. Crusade

C. Glorious

D. Regime

E. No correction required

Solution

The correct answer is Regime.

Key Points

Regime: reign or authority
- The context says that the golden period of India began under the authority of the Guptas.
Therefore, the correct answer is: The golden period of India began under the regime of the Guptas.

Additional Information

WordMeaningChastise rebuke or reprimand severely.Crusade a vigorous campaign for political, social, or religious change.Glorious marked by great beauty or splendour.

96. Directions: Below in each question, some sentences are given, find the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme and OUT of the passage or find the odd sentence and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph.

(A) Consequently, NBCC Ltd, a Government of India enterprise, will now build the residences, pay off the borrowers and hand over the apartments to home buyers over the next four years.

(B) The management under the Resolution Professional was able to focus on delivery.

(C) Home buyers and lenders have recently unanimously (over 97 percent) voted for NBCC Ltd to take over the bankrupt Jaypee Infratech.

(D) While Walmart expects the company to report a similar amount of losses this year from last year, its business ‘discipline’ has earned praise.

(E) It may, however, be noted that during the resolution process, Jaypee was able to deliver more than 6000 apartments to the home buyers.

A. ABCD

B. AEDC

C. CDEA

D. DEBC

E. CAEB

Solution

The correct answer is option (5) i.e. CAEB

Key Points

How to attempt:

In this type of questions, take a bird’s eye view, find out the common theme which is described in all the statements, and rearrange the jumbled up sentences. The statement which is not contributing to the main theme of the passage needs to be kept out.
After going through the five sentences given above, we can easily mark sentence D as the odd one because it is irrelevant to our paragraph which is mainly concerned with the home loans.
CAEB – This arrangement forms a coherent paragraph.

The complete paragraph is given below:

Homebuyers and lenders have recently unanimously (over 97 percent) voted for NBCC Ltd to take over the bankrupt Jaypee Infratech. Consequently, NBCC Ltd, a Government of India enterprise, will now build the residences, pay off the borrowers and hand over the apartments to home buyers over the next four years. It may, however, be noted that during the resolution process, Jaypee was able to deliver more than 6000 apartments to the home buyers. The management under the Resolution Professional was able to focus on delivery.

97. Directions: Below in each question, some sentences are given, find the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme and OUT of the passage or find the odd sentence and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph.

(A) As the government desperately looks to offload its stake in the cash-strapped airline, it permitted NRIs to buy a complete stake in the airline as opposed to the earlier 49% limit.

(B) The NRI investment will be treated as domestic investment and will not violate SOEC norms

(C) Indians settled abroad can now buy India’s national carrier Air India as the government has allowed NRIs to own up to 100% stake in the airline.

(D) Therefore, the likelihood of travellers shifting from the road and existing rail links to SHSR is very high”.

(E) Earlier, the government had said that it does not want to keep its stake in the national carrier.

A. ABCD

B. CDEA

C. BDCE

D. CABE

E. BEDC

Solution

The correct answer is option (4) i.e. CABE

Key Points

How to attempt:

In this type of questions, take a bird’s eye view, find out the common theme which is described in all the statements, and rearrange the jumbled up sentences. The statement which is not contributing to the main theme of the passage needs to be kept out.
After going through the five sentences given above, we can easily mark sentence D as the odd one because it is talking about rail link that is irrelevant to our paragraph which is mainly concerned with the Air-India and NRI.
CABE – This arrangement forms a coherent paragraph.

The complete paragraph is given below:

Indians settled abroad can now buy India’s national carrier Air India as the government has allowed NRIs to own up to 100% stake in the airline. As the government desperately looks to offload its stake in the cash-strapped airline, it permitted NRIs to buy a complete stake in the airline as opposed to the earlier 49% limit. The NRI investment will be treated as domestic investment and will not violate SOEC norms. Earlier, the government had said that it does not want to keep its stake in the national carrier.

98. Direction: Below in each question, some sentences are given, find the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme and OUT of the passage or find the odd sentence and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph.

(A) In the last one year, 62 equity schemes gave negative returns out of the 333 schemes, show data from Value Research.

(B) The common features of the instruments available for retirement savings are that such instruments are of long-term nature and they are tax efficient.

(C) Of a total universe of 333 equity schemes, nearly 45% of the schemes has given negative returns in the last two years.

(D) Market participants say that, going forward, investors should moderate their expectations as far as returns are concerned as Indian markets are likely remain volatile due to the slowing economic growth.

(E) Returns of equity schemes have been poor for the last two years due to intense polarisation seen in the markets.

A. EABC

B. BCDE

C. ECAD

D. ABCD

E. EDCA

Solution

The correct answer is option (3) i.e. ECAD

Key Points

How to attempt:

In this type of questions, take a bird’s eye view, find out the common theme which is described in all the statements, and rearrange the jumbled up sentences. The statement which is not contributing to the main theme of the passage needs to be kept out.
After going through the five sentences given above, we can easily mark sentence B as the odd one because that is irrelevant to our paragraph which is mainly concerned with the poor returns of equity and shares.
ECAD – This arrangement forms a coherent paragraph.

The complete paragraph is given below:

Returns of equity schemes have been poor for the last two years due to intense polarisation seen in the markets. Of a total universe of 333 equity schemes, nearly 45% of the schemes has given negative returns in the last two years. In the last one year, 62 equity schemes gave negative returns out of the 333 schemes, show data from Value Research. Market participants say that, going forward, investors should moderate their expectations as far as returns are concerned as Indian markets are likely remain volatile due to the slowing economic growth.

99. Directions: Below in each question, some sentences are given, find the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme and OUT of the passage or find the odd sentence and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph.

(A) VK Yadav, Chairman, Railway Board was recently speaking at the 7th PHD Global Rail Convention 2020 where he was quoted saying that the system of modernisation will give an integrated approach for enhancing the capacity of the Indian Railways ecosystem.

(B) India’s richest man and Reliance Industries Ltd. chairman Mukesh Ambani also witnessed a slide in his net worth

(C) Indian Railways New Delhi and Mumbai railway stations to be world-class soon! With an aim to transform passenger experience at Indian Railways. stations.

(D) In this regard, the Railway Board will be inviting bids in the month of April 2020 for redeveloping the New Delhi railway station and Mumbai station.

(E) Piyush Goyal-led Railway Ministry is redeveloping several stations across the network.

A. EDCB

B. CEDA

C. BCDE

D. BEAC

E. AEDC

Solution

The correct answer is option (2) i.e. CEDA

Key Points

How to attempt:

In this type of questions, take a bird’s eye view, find out the common theme which is described in all the statements, and rearrange the jumbled up sentences. The statement which is not contributing to the main theme of the passage needs to be kept out.
After going through the five sentences given above, we can easily mark sentence B as the odd one because it is talking about Reliance industry that is irrelevant to our paragraph which is mainly concerned with the Upgradation of Indian railway stations.
CEDA – This arrangement forms a coherent paragraph.

The complete paragraph is given below:

Indian Railways New Delhi and Mumbai railway stations to be world-class soon! With an aim to transform passenger experience at Indian Railways stations, Piyush Goyal-led Railway Ministry is redeveloping several stations across the network. In this regard, the Railway Board will be inviting bids in the month of April 2020 for redeveloping the New Delhi railway station and Mumbai station, according to officials quoted in a recent PTI report. VK Yadav, Chairman, Railway Board was recently speaking at the 7th PHD Global Rail Convention 2020 where he was quoted saying that the system of modernisation will give an integrated approach for enhancing the capacity of the Indian Railways ecosystem.

100. Direction: Below in each question, some sentences are given, find the sentence which is not really contributing to the main theme and OUT of the passage or find the odd sentence and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph.

(A) With dematerialisation of equities and improvements in technology, particularly in the payment/settlement space, continuation of DDT has become redundant.

(B) Dividend distribution tax (DDT) was first introduced in India in 1997.

(C) Moreover, the DDT has added such complexities to the tax system that the Task Force on Direct Tax Code has recently recommended its abolition to promote investment.

(D) At that time, collecting income tax from a large number of shareholders receiving dividends was considered difficult.

(E) Introduced in 2004 to provide pension to government employees who joined their services after December 31, 2003, NPS was later made available for the general public from 2009.

A. BDAC

B. EABC

C. BCDE

D. DCBA

E. ECDA

Solution

The correct answer is option (1) i.e. BDAC

Key Points

How to attempt:

In this type of questions, take a bird’s eye view, find out the common theme which is described in all the statements, and rearrange the jumbled up sentences. The statement which is not contributing to the main theme of the passage needs to be kept out.
After going through the five sentences given above, we can easily mark sentence E as the odd one because that is irrelevant to our paragraph which is mainly concerned with the Dividend distribution tax.
BDAC – This arrangement forms a coherent paragraph.

The complete paragraph is given below:

Dividend distribution tax (DDT) was first introduced in India in 1997. At that time, collecting income tax from a large number of shareholders receiving dividends was considered difficult. With dematerialisation of equities and improvements in technology, particularly in the payment/settlement space, continuation of DDT has become redundant. Moreover, the DDT has added such complexities to the tax system that the Task Force on Direct Tax Code has recently recommended its abolition to promote investment.

IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelims Full Mock Test 10

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