1. On a machine there is 12% trade discount on the marked price of ₹2,56,000, but the machine is sold for ₹2,05,000 after giving a cash discount. How much is this cash discount (in %)? (Rounded to the nearest whole number)
A. 12%
B. 8%
C. 9%
D. 10%
Solution
Given:
Marked price (MP) = ₹2,56,000
Trade discount (TD) = 12%
Selling price (SP) after cash discount = ₹2,05,000
Formula Used:
2. Amit covers a distance at a speed of 24 km/hr in 6 min. If he wants to cover the same distance in 8 min, what should be his speed?
A. 18 km/hr
B. 21 km/hr
C. 30 km/hr
D. 15 km/hr
Solution
Given:
Amit covers a distance at a speed of 24 km/hr in 6 min.
If he wants to cover the same distance in 8 min,
Formula used:
Distance(D) = Speed(S) × Time(T)
S = D / T
Calculation:
Distance = 24 km/hr × 6/60 minutes = 2.4 km
The required speed to be covered in 8 min
⇒ (2.4/8)× 60 min
⇒ S = 18 km/h
∴ Speed should be 18 km/h.
3. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of rices costing Rs. 28/kg and Rs. 35/kg respectively so as to get mixture of Rs. 30.5/kg.
A. 9 : 5
B. 8 : 10
C. 4 : 5
C. 1 : 3
Solution
Given:
Cost of 1st variety of rice = Rs. 28/kg
Cost of 2nd variety of rice = Rs. 35/kg
Cost of mixture = Rs. 30.5/kg
Concept Used:
If two ingredients A and B of price x and y respectively are mixed, then the price of resultant mixture is M(mean price).
Calculation:
By using allegation method,
∴ The required ratio is 9 : 5.
Mistake PointsWhen using Mixture and Allegation, take two ingredients in such a way that first ingredient is lower than the mean value and the other one is higher than the mean value.
4. The cost of an air conditioner is 150% more than that of an air cooler. If the price of an air conditioner is reduced by 20% and that of an air cooler is increased by 40%, then what is the net percentage increase/decrease in the total cost of 2 air conditioners and 3 air coolers?
A. Increase, 3.5%
B. Increase, 2.5%
C. Decrease, 2.5%
D. Decrease, 3.5%
Solution
Given:
AC cost = 150% more than cooler cost
AC price reduced by 20%
Cooler price increased by 40%
Quantity: 2 ACs and 3 coolers
Formula used:
Net Percentage Change = (New Total Cost – Original Total Cost) / Original Total Cost × 100
Calculations:
Assume cooler cost = 100, then AC cost = 250
Original total cost = 2*250 + 3 × 100 = 800
New AC cost = 250 – (20/100) × 250 = 200
New cooler cost = 100 + (40/100) × 100 = 140
New total cost = 2 × 200 + 3 × 140 = 820
Change = 820 – 800 = 20 (increase)
Percentage change = (20/800) × 100 = 2.5% increase
∴ Net increase is 2.5%.
5. The product of two numbers is 6760 and their H.C.F. is 13. How many such pairs can be formed?
A. 4
B. Only one
C. 3
D. 2
Solution
Given:
Product of two numbers = 6760.
HCF of two numbers = 13.
Calculation:
Let the two numbers be 13a and 13b.
Product of two numbers = 13a × 13b = 6760
⇒ a × b = 40.
So the pair (a, b) can be (8, 5), (4, 10), (2, 20), (1, 40)
But for the HCF to be 13, the pair (a, b) must not have any common factor (other than 1)
(2, 20) and (4, 10) both have 2 as a common factor, these are not considered.
So the considered pair is (a, b) = (8, 5), (1, 40)
when a = 8, b = 5.
13a = 104 and 13b = 65
1st pair (104, 65).
when a = 1 and b = 40
13a = 13 and 13b = 520
2nd pair = (13, 520)
∴ The pairs are two pairs.
6. The following bar chart shows the amount invested by a company in raw material over the duration of six years. Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it.
The sum of amount invested in raw materials in 2016 and 2021 was what percentage of the sum of the amount invested in raw materials in the year 2018 and 2020?
A. 77.22%
B. 78.36%
C. 79.98%
D. 79.56%
Solution
Given:
Concept used:
7. The ratio of the radius of the base and the height of a right circular cylinder is 3 : 2, and its volume is 19404 cm3. What is the curved surface area (in cm2) of the cylinder?
A. 1232
B. 1848
C. 1386
D. 924
Solution
Given:
The ratio of radius and height of the cylinder = 3: 2
Volume = 19404 cm3
Formula used:
The curved surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh
Volume of cylinder = πr2h
Here,
r = radius
h = height
Calculation:
Let the radius of the base and height of the cylinder be 3x and 2x
So,
π × (3x)2 × 2x = 19404
⇒ 9x2 × 2x = 19404 × (7/22)
⇒ 18×3 = 6174
⇒ x3 = 6174/18
⇒ x3 = 343
⇒ x = 7
So, radius = 7 × 3 = 21 cm, and height = 7 × 2 = 14 cm
Now,
Curved surface area = 2π × 21 × 14
⇒ 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 14
⇒ 2 × 22 × 21 × 2
⇒ 1848
∴ The curved surface area (in cm2) of the cylinder is 1848.
8.
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Solution
Concept used:
BODMAS Rule
Calculation:
9. The average weight of A, B and C is 60 kg. If the average weight of A and B is 30 kg and that of B and C is 70 kg, then what is the weight of B?
A. 21 kg
B. 17 kg
C. 18 kg
D. 20 kg
Solution
Given:
Average weight of A, B, and C = 60 kg
Average weight of A and B = 30 kg
Average weight of A and B = 70 kg
Formula used:
Average weight = Sum of the total weight / total number
Calculation:
Sum of the weight of A, B, and C = 60 × 3 = 180
Sum of the weight of A and B = 30 × 2 = 60
Sum of the weight of B and C = 70 × 2 = 140
So,
Weight of B = (140 + 60) – 180
⇒ 200 – 180 = 20kg
∴ The correct answer is option (4).
10. A library has an average of 219 visitors on Saturdays and an average of 281 on other weekdays. The average number of visitors per day in a month of 31 days, beginning with a Friday, is:
A. 277
B. 273
C. 271
D. 269
Solution
Given:
A library has an average of 219 visitors on Saturdays
An average of 281 on other weekdays
Formula used:
Average = sum of observations/Number of observations
Calculation:
If a month starts with Friday, then the number of Sundays in that month is 5
The remaining days = (31 – 5) = 26
The average number of visitors on Saturdays = 219
So,
⇒ 219 = sum of number of visitors on Saturdays/6
⇒ sum of number of visitors on Saturdays = (219 × 5) = 1095 ….(1)
Now,
The average number of visitors on other days = 281
So,
⇒ 281 = sum of number of visitors on other days/26
⇒ sum of number of visitors on other days = (281 × 26) = 7306 ….(2)
Total average = Total number of visitors/31
⇒ (1095 + 7306)/31
⇒ 8401/31
⇒ 271
∴ The average number of visitors per day in a month of 31 days, beginning with a Friday, is 271.
11. The length breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 4: 3: 2. If the volume of the cuboid is 1536 cm3, then what will be the total surface area of the cuboid?
A. 868 cm2
B. 416 cm2
C. 624 cm2
D. 832 cm2
Solution
Formula used:
The volume of cuboid = L × B × H
Total surface area of cuboid = 2(LB + BH + HL)
Calculation:
L × B × H = 1536
Let the length breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 4x: 3x: 2x
∴ 24x3 = 1536
1536/24 = 64 = x3 or x = 4
Total surface area of cuboid = 2 × (12x2 + 6x2 + 8x2) = 52x2
∴ Total surface area of cuboid = 52 × 16 = 832 cm2
12. Akhil rides first 12 km at a speed of 16 km/h and further 6 km at a speed of 20 km/h. Find his average speed (in km/h).
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Solution
Formula:
Average speed = Total distance covered ÷ Total time
Calculation:
Total distance covered = 12 + 6 = 18 km
Time taken for 12 km ride = 12/ 16 hr
Time taken for 6 km ride = 620 hr
Total time = 12/ 16 + 6/ 20 = 84/ 80 hr
Average speed = 18/84/80 = 18 × 80/84 = 17 1/7 km/h
The average speed is 17 1/ 7 km/h.
13. A person invested Rs.5000 in each of the years 2005, 2010, 2015 and 2020. The investment of the person doubles every five years. What will be the total amount, the person will receive in 2025?
A. 1,35,000
B. 1,30,000
C. 1,50,000
D. 1,20,000
Solution
Calculation:
Given that Investment doubles every 5 years.
He invested Rs.5000 in each of the years 2005, 2010, 2015 and 2020
Now, he invested 5000 in 2005 so the amount for 2005 is 5000
In 2010 the amount gets doubled,
The amount become 10000 and then he again invests 5000 so the total amount for the year 2010 = 5000 + 10000 = 15000.
Similarly in 2015, Total amount = 2 × 15000 + 5000 = 35000
In 2020, Total amount = 2 × 35000 + 5000 = 75000
So, In 2025, The amount received = 2 × 75000 = 150000
Important PointsHere, in 2025 the amount received is asked so he will not invest in 2025, and therefore 5000 more will not be added.
14. A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere. The radius of the hemisphere and that of the cone is 7 cm and height of the cone is 5 cm. The total surface area of the toy
is (rounded off to two places of decimal):
A. 2648.81 cm2
B. 2666.85 cm2
C. 497.25 cm2
D. 486.65 cm2
Solution
Given values:
Radius of the hemisphere = 7 cm
Radius of the cone = 7 cm
Height of the cone = 5 cm
Concept:
The total surface area of the toy = curved surface area of the cone + surface area of the hemisphere
Calculation:
Curved surface area of the cone = πrl (where l is the slant height)
⇒ Slant height, l = √(r2 + h2) = √(72 + 52) = √(49 + 25) = √(74)
⇒ Curved surface area of the cone = (22/7) × 7 × √(74)
Surface area of the hemisphere = 2πr2
⇒ Surface area of the hemisphere = 2 × (22/7) × 72
Total surface area of the toy = curved surface area of the cone + surface area of the hemisphere
Total surface area of the toy = (22/7) × 7 × √(74) + 2 × (22/7) × 72
Total surface area of the toy = 22 × 8.602 + 2 × 22 × 7 = 497.25
Therefore, rounding off to two places of decimal, the total surface area of the toy = 497.25 cm2.
15. Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the production (in thousands) of four different type of tractors by a company during five years.
| Year/Tractor Type | Type-A | Type-B | Type-C | Type-D |
| 2010 | 18 | 25 | 12 | 19 |
| 2011 | 15 | 24 | 14 | 10 |
| 2012 | 23 | 13 | 17 | 13 |
| 2013 | 17 | 23 | 12 | 11 |
| 2014 | 14 | 26 | 20 | 18 |
In which year was the production of Type-B tractor maximum?
A. 2010
B. 2012
C. 2013
D. 2014
Solution
GIVEN:
Production of 4 different type of tractors in five years ( in thousands)
CALCULATION:
Production of Type -B tractor in 2010 = 25000
Production of Type- B tractor in 2011 = 24000
Production of Type-B tractor in 2012 = 13000
Production of Type-B tractor in 2013 = 23000
Production of Type-B tractor in 2014 = 26000
Hence, production of Type-B tractor in 2014 is maximum .
16. At simple interest, a sum doubles after 20 years. The rate of interest per annum is
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. Data inadequate
Solution
Given:
A sum of money doubles itself in 20 years.
Concept Used:
⇒ 20 R = 100
⇒ R = 5%
∴ A sum of money doubles itself in 20 years in simple interest at 5% interest rate.
17. For what value of A, 2545A is divisible by 8?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 6
Solution
Given:
Number: 2545A
Formula Used:
A number is divisible by 8 if the last three digits of the number are divisible by 8.
Calculation:
Last three digits: 45A
To find A, 45A should be divisible by 8.
Check each option:
For A = 5:
Last three digits: 455
455 ÷ 8 = 56.875 (not divisible by 8)
For A = 4:
Last three digits: 454
454 ÷ 8 = 56.75 (not divisible by 8)
For A = 2:
Last three digits: 452
452 ÷ 8 = 56.5 (not divisible by 8)
For A = 6:
Last three digits: 456
456 ÷ 8 = 57 (divisible by 8)
The correct value of A is 6.
18. A can do a work in 40 days which B can do in 25 days. B worked for 10 days and left. Find the time in which A completes the remaining work.
A. 24 days
B. 19 days
C. 15 days
D. 18 days
Solution
Given:
A can do a work in 40 days.
B can do the same work in 25 days.
B worked for 10 days and left.
Formula Used:
Work done by A in 1 day = 1/40
Work done by B in 1 day = 1/25
Remaining work = Total work – Work done by B
Time = Remaining work / Work done by A in 1 day
Calculation:
Work done by B in 10 days = 10/25 = 2/5
Remaining work = 1 – 2/5
Remaining work = 5/5 – 2/5
Remaining work = 3/5
Time taken by A to complete the remaining work:
Time = (3/5) / (1/40)
Time = 3/5 × 40
Time = 3 × 8
Time = 24 days
The time in which A completes the remaining work is 24 days.
19. Revanth sold 8 shirts for a total profit of Rs. 480 and 12 shirts for a total profit of Rs. 160. At what profit per shirt should he sell the remaining 20 shirts so that he gets an average profit of Rs. 20 per shirt?
A. Rs. 4
B. Rs. 2
C. Rs. 8
D. Rs. 6
Solution
Given:
Profit for 8 shirts = Rs. 480
Profit for 12 shirts = Rs. 160
Total shirts = 40
Average profit per shirt = Rs. 20
Concept used:
Profit = Number of Shirts x Profit per Shirt
Solution:
Total profit = 40 shirts x Rs. 20/shirt = Rs. 800.
Profit already earned = Rs. 480 + Rs. 160 = Rs. 640.
Required profit for remaining 20 shirts = Total profit – Profit already earned = Rs. 800 – Rs. 640 = Rs. 160.
Required profit per shirt = Required profit / Number of shirts = Rs. 160 / 20 shirts = Rs. 8/shirt.
Therefore, he should sell the remaining 20 shirts at a profit of Rs. 8 per shirt.
20. A invested 125% as much money as B, C invested 80% as much money as B. The total of all the three is ₹61,000. How much did C invest?
A. ₹18,000
B. ₹14,000
C. ₹16,000
D. ₹12,000
Solution
Given:
A invested 125% of as much as money as B
C invested 80% of as much as money as B
Total amount = Rs. 61000
Calculations:
Let the amount invested by B be 100x
Then, A invested 125% of B = 100x × 125%
= 100x × 125/100
= 125x
C invested 80% of B = 100x × 80%
= 100x × 80/ 100
= 80x
Now, A + B + C = 61000
125x + 100x + 80x = 61000
305x = 61000
x = 61000/305
x = 200
Amount invested by C = 80x = 80 × 200 = 16000
∴ The answer is Rs. 16000
21. Two Statements are given followed by Two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All buses are cars.
No jeep is a car.
Conclusions:
I. No car is a jeep.
II. No jeep is a bus.
A. Only conclusion II follows.
B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
C. Both conclusions I and II follows.
D. Only conclusion I follows.
Solution
Given Statements:
All buses are cars.
No jeep is a car.
The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:
Conclusions:
I. No car is a jeep – True (Because, No jeep is a car).
II. No jeep is a bus – True (Because, All busses are Cars and No jeep is a car).
So, Only conclusion I and II follow.
Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.
22. From the given alternatives select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution
On close observation, we find that the problem figure is embedded in option (3) as shown below :
Hence, the correct answer is “option (3)”.
23. Which will replace the question mark (?) in the given Sequence?
81 : 9 :: 49 : ?
A. 7
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Solution
LOGIC: √(First Number) = Second Number
In 81 : 9 →
√81 = 9
Similarly;
In 49 : ? →
√49 = 7
Hence, the correct answer is “7”.
24. Five sacks – 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 – have different weights. 2 is heavier than 5 but lighter than 1. Only one sack is heavier than 4. 1 is not the heaviest. Which of them is the second lightest?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
Solution
1) 2 is heavier than 5
2 > 5
2) 2 is lighter than 1
2 < 1
Only one sack is heavier than 4 and1 is not the heaviest.
– > 4
So, by the combining equation 1 and 2 .
we, get;
3 > 4 > 1 > 2 > 5
The second lightest is “2”.
Hence, the correct answer is “2”.
25. Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the series were to be continued?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution
The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:
1) For ‘
‘ element → No change
2) For ‘
‘ element → Number of ‘
‘ element is increasing subsequently.
3) For ‘
‘ element →
4) For ‘
‘ element →
5) For ‘
‘ element →
Final series is
Hence, ‘option – (3)’ is the correct answer.
Alternate Method
26. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the statements.
Statements:
All chairs are tables.
Some tables are desks.
All desks are almirahs.
Conclusions:
I. Some almirahs are chairs.
II. Some almirahs are tables.
III. Some desks are chairs.
IV. No almirah is a chair.
A. Either conclusion I or IV follows.
B. Either conclusions I or IV and II follow.
C. Either conclusion I or IV and III follow.
D. All conclusions follow
Solution
Given:
All chairs are tables.
Some tables are desks.
All desks are almirahs.
I. Some almirahs are chairs → FALSE, there is no definite case between chairs and almirahs.
II. Some almirahs are tables → TRUE, definite case between desks-tables and tables-almirahs
III. Some desks are chairs → FALSE, no definite case between desks and chairs.
IV. No almirah is a chair → FALSE, no definite case between chairs and almirahs.
But conclusion I and IV make complimentary pairs. So, they will follow either – or case.
And conclusion II truly follows.
Hence, the correct answer is “Option (2)“.
27. Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the following series.
23, 30, 39, ?, ?, 78, 95
A. 48, 61
B. 50, 63
C. 50, 65
D. 49, 63
Solution
The logic followed here is shown below:
Hence, ‘option 2)’ is the correct answer.
28. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?
ZF2Y, WK3R, TP5K, QU7D, ?
A. NZ11W
B. MZ9X
C. NY9W
D. NZ11X
Solution
The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:
Hence, the correct answer is NZ11W.
29. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution
The figure that will complete the pattern is:
+ 
→ 
Hence, ‘option 2’ is the correct answer.
30. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Odometer ∶ Distance∶∶ ?
A. Ammeter ∶ Electric current
B. Anemometer ∶ Body temperature
C. Scales ∶ Length
D. Pressure ∶ Barometer
Solution
The logic follows here is:
1st word is the “name of the instrument” to measure the 2nd word.
- Odometer ∶ Distance
→ Here, ‘Odometer‘ is an instrument to measure the ‘Distance’.
Similarly,
- Ammeter ∶ Electric current
→ Here, ‘Ammeter ‘ is an instrument to measure the ‘Electric current‘.
Hence, the correct answer is “Electric current”.
Additional Information
| Instruments | Measures |
| Anemometer | Wind speed |
| Barometer | Atmospheric pressure |
| Scales | Weight |
| Thermometer | Body temperature |
Confusion PointsIn option (4) → Pressure ∶ Barometer, 2nd word is the instrument’s name, which contradicts the logic.
31. If in a certain code language ‘GAME’ is written as ‘0720012613140522’, then how will ‘NOT’ be coded in that language?
A. 141315122007
B. 141315127002
C. 131415122007
D. 121413152007
Solution
The logic follows here is:
The positional value of the letter is written then the positional value of its reverse letter is written.
- ‘GAME’ is written as ‘0720012613140522’
Similarly,
- ‘NOT’ will be coded as:
Thus the code for ‘NOT‘ will be “141315122007“.
Hence, the correct answer is “141315122007“.
32. In a certain code ‘PAISE’ is coded as ‘QBJTF’ and ‘CEASE’ is coded as ‘DFBTF’. How will ‘TRANGLE’ be coded in the same code?
A. USBOIMF
B. USBMHMF
C. USOBIMF
D. USBOHMF
Solution
The positional value of letter in alphabet series is;
Given;
‘PAISE’ is coded as ‘QBJTF’
‘CEASE’ is coded as ‘DFBTF’.
Similarly;
‘TRANGLE’ will be coded as
Hence, the correct answer is “Option(4)”.
33. In a certain code language, “ana fila gala rija” means “raj wears white shirt”, “fila rija hol” means “shirt is white” and “rija fgg jal gala” means “raj has blue shirt”. What is the code of raj?
A. rija
B. ana
C. gala
D. fila
Solution
According to given coding language, we have:
Hence, code for ‘raj’ is ‘gala’.
34. In a code language, TOUCH is written as UTOHC. How will PLANT be written in that language?
A. TPANM
B. TPNLA
C. QMBOU
D. ALRPT
Solution
The logic followed here is :-
TOUCH is written as UTOHC
Similarly,
PLANT will be written as :
Hence, the correct answer is “TPNLA”.
35. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
(3, 9, 2)
(8, 6, 8)
(5, 3, ?)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
A. 22
B. 13
C. 10
D. 5
Solution
Logic: (Second number × Third number)/6 = First number
(3, 9, 2) ⇒ (9 × 2) / 6 = 18/6 = 3= First Number
(8, 6, 8) ⇒ (6 × 8) / 6 = 48/6 = 8 = First Number
(5, 3, ?)
⇒ (3 × ?) / 6 = 5
⇒ 30 /3 = 10
Hence, the correct answer 10.
36. Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.
PAINTING : KZRMGHMF :: CATEGORY : ?
A. XZDGTIXN
B. XZGDTNIX
C. XGZDTNXI
D. XZGTDINX
Solution
The logic followed here is :-
- PAINTING : KZRMGHMF
Similarly,
- CATEGORY :
Hence, the correct answer is “XZGDTNIX”.
37. 6 persons G, H, K, M, R and T are sitting in a row facing towards south (not necessarily in the same order). Three person are sitting between R and K. K is towards the right of R. G is the immediate neighbour of H and M. R is not at any of the end of the row. If H is to the immediate right of G, then what is the position of T with respect to M?
A. Fourth to the right
B. Second to the left
C. Second to the right
D. Immediate right
Solution
According to the given information :
6 persons G, H, K, M, R and T are sitting in a row facing towards south.
1) Three persons are sitting between R and K. K is towards the right of R.
- So, there are two possibilities:
2) G is the immediate neighbour of H and M.
3) R is not at any of the end of the row.
- So, Case 2 will be eliminated as it contradicts the given statement.
4) H is to the immediate right of G.
- Thus, the final arrangement is:
Clearly, ‘T is second to the left with respect to M’.
Hence, the correct answer is “Second to the left”.
38. Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Sahil is an immediate neighbour of both Soma and Deshad. Dhaval is sitting second to the right of Deshad. Nisha is sitting third to the right of Soma. Chaitali is an immediate neighbour of both Dhaval and Soma. Who is sitting between Sahil and Nisha?
A. Dhaval
B. Soma
C. Deshad
D. Chaitali
Solution
Given: Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
Dhaval is sitting second to the right of Deshad.
Sahil is an immediate neighbour of both Soma and Deshad.
Chaitali is an immediate neighbour of both Dhaval and Soma.
Nisha is sitting third to the right of Soma.
Here, Deshad sits between Sahil and Nisha.
Hence, the correct answer is ‘Option 3’.
39. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solution
The mirror image of the given figure is:
Now we consider the given options:
Option 1)
Face of ‘{‘ should be towards the left.
Option 2)
The figure is correct.
Option 3)
The strike over ‘=’ is in the wrong orientation.
Option 4)
The orientation of the heart is incorrect.
Hence the correct answer is option 2).
40. In the following question, find the missing number from the given series.
5.5, 11, 17.5, 25, 33.5, 43, ?
A. 51.5
B. 53.5
C. 54.5
D. 52.5
Solution
The missing number from the given series are –
Hence, the correct answer is 53.5.
41. Which of the following texts on music were written by Rana Kumbha?
A. Sangeetraj
B. Sangeet Mimansa
C. Sudhprabandh
D. Kalanidhi
A. A, B
B. A, C, D
C. A, B, C
D. A, B, C, D
Solution
The correct answer is A, B, C.
Key Points
- Western India’s Mewar kingdom was ruled by Rana Kumbha.
- He belonged to the Rajput Sisodia clan.
- In the year 1433 CE, he replaced Rana Mokal Singh as the monarch of Mewar.
- He was the 48th Rana of Mewar.
- A commentary on Gita Govinda of Jaidev and an explanation of Chandisatkam were written by him.
- The treatises “Sageet raj,” “Sangeet mimansa,” “Sangeet ratnakar,” and “Shudprabandha” are among his other works on music.
- He wrote four plays using the Sanskrit, Prakrit, and regional Rajasthani dialects.
- The fort of Kumbhalgarh, constructed by Kumbha, is the main fortress of Mewar.
Additional Information
- Kalanidhi:
- Mandan’s son, Govind, wrote Kalanidhi and Dwar Deepika.
42. Which of the following are small-sized in animal cells while in plant cells these are very large in size?
A. Lysosomes
B. Plastids
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Vacuoles
Solution
The correct answer is Vacuoles.
Key Points
- Vacuoles are membrane-bound organelles found in both plant and animal cells, but they differ significantly in size and function between the two.
- In plant cells, vacuoles are typically very large and can occupy up to 90% of the cell’s volume, serving as storage for nutrients, waste products, and helping in maintaining turgor pressure.
- In animal cells, vacuoles are generally smaller and more numerous, primarily involved in storage, waste disposal, and intracellular digestion.
- The large central vacuole in plant cells plays a crucial role in maintaining the cell’s shape and structure by exerting internal pressure against the cell wall.
Additional Information
- Lysosomes
- Lysosomes are small organelles containing digestive enzymes, primarily involved in breaking down waste materials and cellular debris.
- They are more prominent in animal cells and play a role in autophagy, the process of degrading and recycling cellular components.
- Plastids
- Plastids are a group of organelles found in plant cells and some algae, involved in the synthesis and storage of food.
- Chloroplasts, a type of plastid, are responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells.
- Golgi Apparatus
- The Golgi apparatus is involved in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for secretion or use within the cell.
- It is present in both plant and animal cells, but does not differ significantly in size between the two.
43. In which of the following cities is the Agera festival celebrated?
A. Kolkata
B. Lucknow
C. Mumbai
D. Chennai
Solution
The correct answer is Mumbai
Key Points
- Agera festival is celebrated in the city of Mumbai.
- The Agera festival is a harvest festival celebrated by the East Indian community in Mumbai.
- It marks the beginning of the harvest season and is associated with the blessing of the newly harvested crops.
- The festival is celebrated with much fervor and includes processions, prayers, and cultural performances.
- The celebration highlights the cultural richness and traditions of the East Indian community in Mumbai.
Additional Information
- The East Indian community is one of the oldest communities in Mumbai, with a distinct cultural and historical heritage.
- Mumbai, being a melting pot of cultures, witnesses a variety of festivals celebrated by different communities throughout the year.
- Other notable festivals in Mumbai include Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali, Holi, and Eid, among others.
- The city’s vibrant cultural scene is a testament to its diverse population and rich traditions.
44. Charaka known as the father of Indian medicine and one of the principal contributors to Ayurveda, lived during the reign of __________.
A. Pushyamitra
B. Haryanka
C. Bimbisara
D. Kanishka
Solution
The correct answer is Kanishka.
Key Points
- Charaka (1st-2nd centuries C.E.)
- He is usually known as the father of Indian medicine.
- He was one of the principal contributors to Ayurveda, a system of medicine and lifestyle developed in Ancient India.
- He lived during the reign of Kanishka, the king of the Kushan dynasty that ruled over the northern part of the Indian subcontinent, Afghanistan, and possibly areas of Central Asia north of the Kashmir region.
Additional Information
- Kushan dynasty (1st Century AD-3rd Century AD):
- Kujula Kadphises was the first Yuezhi chief to lay the foundation of the Kushana dynasty in India.
- The second king was Vema Kadphises who issued gold coins.
- The most famous Kushan ruler was Kanishka (78 AD-101AD)
- Kanishka was also known as ‘Second Ashoka’.
- He started the Saka era in 78 AD.
- The Kushans controlled the famous silk route.
- The 4th Buddhist council was held in Kundalvana, Kashmir during his reign.
45. With reference to the No ex-post-facto law, consider the following statements:
1. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act.
2. No person shall be subjected to a penalty greater than that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission of the act.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution
The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
Key Points
Article 20: Protection in Respect of Conviction for Offences
- Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether citizen or foreigner or legal people like a company or a corporation.
- It contains three provisions in that direction:
- No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be
- (i) convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the act, nor
- (ii) subjected to a penalty greater than that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission of the act. Hence, Both statements are correct.
- An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively (retroactively), that is, upon acts already done or which increases the penalties for such acts.
- No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
- No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
- The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. In other words, it is not available in proceedings before departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.
- The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence.
46. Who conferees the awards for National Teachers Award every year on the occasion of the Birth Anniversary of Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan?
A. Education Minister of India
B. Prime Minister of India
C. President of India
D. Vice President of India
Solution
The correct answer is President of India.
Key Points
- National Teachers Award is organised by the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education.
- It was 1st started on 5th September 1958.
- It was given to honour Radhakrishnan’s remarkable approach toward education and students.
- National Teachers Award 2022 is held in Delhi.
- President Droupadi Murmu conferred 45 selected teachers with awards.
Additional Information
| Ministry | Headed By |
| The Ministry of Science and Technology | Dr Jitendra Singh |
| The Ministry of Home Affairs | Amit Shah |
| The Ministry of Corporate Affairs | Nirmala Sitharaman |
| The Ministry of Education | Dharmendra Pradhan |
47. ‘Alarippu’ is a dance piece from which of the following classical dances of India?
A. Bharatanatyam
B. Kathakali
C. Odissi
D. Kathak
Solution
The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.
Key Points
- Bharatanatyam:-
- It originated in Tamil Nadu.
- Bharatanatyam is the oldest Indian classical dance and it originated hundreds of years ago in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
- This dance form expresses the religious themes and spiritual ideas of South India.
- The ancient Tamil epic Silappatikaram contains the description of Bharatanatyam.
- ‘Alarippu’ is a dance piece from Bharatanatyam classical dance.
- The Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on eight Indian classical dance styles: Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathak (North, West and Central India), Kathakali (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Odissi (Odissa), Manipuri (Manipur), Mohiniyattam (Kerala), and Sattriya (Assam).
Additional Information
- 8 Classical Dances of India and States: DanceStateBharatanatyamTamil NaduKathakUttar PradeshKathakaliKerala.KuchipudiAndhra Pradesh.OdissiOdishaSattriyaAssamManipuriManipurMohiniyattamKerala
48. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in India ?
A. Energy
B. Tourism
C. Service
D. Transport
Solution
The correct answer is Service.
Key Points
- The Services Sector also known as the tertiary sector contributes the most to the GDP of India.
- The Contribution by the services sector is 53% while the contribution by Industry and Agriculture & Allied Sector is 30% and 17% respectively.
- The service sector, also known as the tertiary sector, is the third tier in the three-sector economy.
- Instead of product production, this sector produces services maintenance and repairs, training, or consulting.
- Examples of service sector jobs include housekeeping, tours, nursing, and teaching.
- The services sector is the largest sector in India.
- The services sector accounts for 53.66% of the total India’s GVA of Rs. 137.51 lakh crore.
- The industrial sector is in the second spot and contributes around 31% of the Indian GDP.
- The service sector makes an important contribution to GDP in most countries, providing jobs, inputs, and public services for the economy.
- Trade-in services can improve economic performance and provide a range of traditional and new export opportunities.
- The MSME sector is regarded as the backbone of the Indian economy.
- It churns out over 6000 products that are highly sought after across the global marketplaces.
- It employs 40% of the country’s workforce, next only to the agricultural sector.
Important Points
- Primary Sector:
- It includes the extraction of raw materials.
- It includes agricultural and allied activities.
- Examples of the primary sector include Farming, Fishing, Coal mining, Oil extraction, Diamond mining, etc.
- Secondary Sector:
- It includes the production of finished goods and components.
- Examples of the secondary sector include turning metals into tools and automobiles, Refining petroleum into gasoline, energy production, etc.
- Tertiary Sector:
- It includes commercial services.
- Examples of the Tertiary sector include Restaurants, School teachers, Tourism, etc.
- Quaternary Sector:
- It is related to ICT and research development.
- Examples of the Quaternary sector include research and development, data processing, financial services, etc.
Additional Information
- The Agriculture sectors:
- It comprises establishments primarily engaged in growing crops, raising animals, and harvesting fish and other animals from a farm, ranch, or their natural habitats.
- Agriculture is the most important sector of the Indian Economy.18 percent of India’s gross domestic product (GDP) provides employment to 50% of the country’s workforce.
- India is the world’s largest producer of pulses, rice, wheat, spices, and spice products.
- The Manufacturing sector:
- It comprises establishments engaged in the mechanical, physical, or chemical transformation of materials, substances, or components into new products.
49. Brihadiswara Temple of Tanjore was built by which of the following Chola emperors?
A. Rajendra I
B. Raja Raja Chola
C. Chamunda Raya
D. Vijayalaya
Solution
The correct answer is Raja Raja Chola
Key Points
- Raja Raja Chola was the Chola emperor who built the Brihadiswara Temple of Tanjore.
- The Brihadiswara Temple, also known as Peruvudaiyar Kovil, is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva and is located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, India.
- It is one of the largest temples in India and is an exemplary example of Dravidian architecture.
- The temple was built around 1010 AD and is a part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site known as the “Great Living Chola Temples”.
- Raja Raja Chola I was one of the greatest rulers of the Chola dynasty and his reign marked the peak of Chola power and influence.
Additional Information
- Raja Raja Chola I ruled between 985 and 1014 AD and expanded the Chola Empire to its zenith.
- The Brihadiswara Temple is renowned for its massive Vimana (temple tower) which is one of the tallest in the world.
- The temple complex includes a massive statue of Nandi (the sacred bull) and features intricate carvings and frescoes.
- Raja Raja Chola’s contributions to art, architecture, and culture have left a lasting legacy in South India.
- The temple is still an active place of worship and attracts thousands of visitors and pilgrims every year.
50. Where is the world’s largest stupa located?
A. India
B. Sri Lanka
C. Java
D. Afghanistan
Solution
The correct answer is Java.
Key Points
- Stupa is an important form of Buddhist architecture.
- It is a dirt burial mound faced with stone, often containing religious objects and used as a place of meditation.
- Borobudur
- Borobudur is the world’s largest stupa located in Java, Indonesia.
- It was built it in the 8th and 9th centuries AD during the reign of the Shailendra Dynasty.
- It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Additional Information
| India | India has the world’s 2nd largest Buddhist stupa named Kesaria stupa in Bihar. It has been noted that the Kesaria stupa shares many architectural similarities with the Borobudur temple. |
| Sri Lanka | Stupas, also called Dagebas in Sri Lanka, are the largest brick structures known to the pre-modern world. |
51. According to the Census of India 2011, which is the second most literate state in India?
A. Mizoram
B. Karnataka
C. Odisha
D. Tripura
Solution
The correct answer is Mizroram
Key Points
- Mizoram is the second most literate state in India according to the 2011 Census, with a literacy rate of 91.33%:
- Mizoram: 91.33%
- Kerala:93.91%
- Mizoram’s high literacy rate is also reflected in its female literacy rate, which was 89.27% in 2011.
- The state government has implemented policies to improve literacy rates, especially for women.
- The two most literate districts in India are in Mizoram, with Serchhip and Aizawl having literacy rates of 98.76% and 98.50%, respectively.
52. Where is Akhil Bharatiya Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Mandal, which works for the promotion and propagation of Indian classical music and dances, located?
A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Bhopal
D. Lucknow
Solution
The Correct answer is Mumbai.
Key Points
- The Akhil Bharatiya Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Mandal is a premier institution dedicated to the promotion and propagation of Indian classical music and dance.
- Located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, this institution plays a pivotal role in preserving the rich heritage of Indian classical art forms.
- It conducts examinations and offers certificates and diplomas, ensuring the academic recognition of Indian classical music and dance.
- The Mandal has a vast network of affiliated schools and students across the country, making classical arts accessible to a broader audience.
- Its efforts in education, examination, and event organization significantly contribute to the cultural landscape of India.
Additional Information
- New Delhi
- The capital city of India, known for its rich political and cultural history.
- It houses various institutions of national importance and serves as a center for arts and culture.
- Bhopal
- The capital city of Madhya Pradesh, known for its scenic beauty and historical monuments.
- It has a vibrant cultural scene with institutions promoting classical music and arts.
- Lucknow
- Known as the city of Nawabs, it has a rich heritage of classical music, dance, and Urdu poetry.
- Lucknow’s cultural fabric is woven with traditional arts, making it a significant cultural hub in Northern India.
53. Which one of the following sectors provides most of the employment in Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata?
A. Primary
B. Quaternary
C. Secondary
D. Service
Solution
The correct answer is Service.
Key Points
- The service sector is the part of the economy that provides various services, as opposed to providing tangible goods such as cars and televisions.
- The service sector is the largest sector of the economy in developed nations.
- The fact that the service sector is designated as the tertiary sector should not be in any way taken to mean that it occupies third place in terms of economic importance.
- Examples of Service Industries
- Travel Industry
- Information Technology Industry
- Media and Entertainment Industry
- The service sector consists of the production of services instead of end products. Services include attention, advice, access, experience, and affective labour. The production of information has been long regarded as a service, but some economists now attribute it to a fourth sector, the quaternary sector.
- Service sectors provides most of the employment in Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.
Additional Information
- The service sector is the sector of the economy that produces and offers services.
- According to the tri-sector macroeconomic theory, there are three major economic sectors – primary, secondary, and tertiary.
- The services sector is not only the dominant sector in India’s GDP but has also attracted significant foreign investment, has contributed significantly to export and has provided large-scale employment.
- India’s services sector covers a wide variety of activities such as trade, hotel and restaurants, transport, storage and communication, financing, insurance, real estate, business services, community, social and personal services, and services associated with construction.
54. Which of the following is NOT a type of Lavani?
A. Khulla Lavani
B. Shringari Lavani
C. Baithakichi Lavani
D. Nirguni Lavani
Solution
The Correct answer is Khulla Lavani.
Key Points
- Lavani is a traditional song and dance form of Maharashtra.
- It is known for its powerful rhythm, energetic performance, and unique blend of traditional and folk music and dance.
- Khulla Lavani is not a recognized type within the traditional categorization of Lavani, making it the correct answer.
- The term ‘Lavani’ derives from the word Lavanya, meaning beauty, and is performed to the beats of Dholki, a percussion instrument.
- Lavani is particularly famous for its combination of traditional song and dance, which narrates stories with a socio-political commentary and humor.
Additional Information
- Shringari Lavani
- Shringari Lavani is a type of Lavani that focuses on themes of love and beauty.
- It is known for its graceful movements and expressive gestures that depict emotions of love.
- Baithakichi Lavani
- Baithakichi Lavani is performed in a seated position and is known for its emphasis on vocal performance and lyrical richness.
- It often involves a dialogue or banter between the performer and the audience.
- Nirguni Lavani
- Nirguni Lavani is a spiritual genre of Lavani that focuses on philosophical themes and devotion.
- Unlike other forms, it is less about entertainment and more about imparting wisdom and spiritual messages.
55. Which Mauryan archaeological site is associated with the remains of a wooden palisade?
A. Bhita
B. Mathura
C. Taxila
D. Bulandibagh
Solution
The Correct answer is Bulandibagh.
Key Points
- Bulandibagh is an archaeological site located in Pataliputra, Bihar.
- The site is associated with the remains of a wooden palisade, which is indicative of ancient fortifications and urban planning during the Mauryan Empire.
- The wooden palisade remnants are crucial as they provide evidence of the structural techniques used during the Mauryan period.
- Pataliputra, the capital of the Mauryan Empire, was a highly advanced urban center known for its fortified architecture.
- The discovery of wooden palisades at Bulandibagh highlights the strategic importance of this site in protecting the city from invasions.
- The Mauryan archaeological remains at Bulandibagh include structures that reflect the military and administrative organization of the empire.
- The site provides valuable insights into the engineering capabilities and materials used during ancient times.
Additional Information
- Bhita
- Bhita is an ancient archaeological site located near Allahabad (Prayagraj), Uttar Pradesh.
- The site is known for its Gupta period remains, including sculptures, pottery, and terracotta objects.
- It reflects the cultural and economic significance of the region during ancient India.
- Mathura
- Mathura is a historically significant city located in Uttar Pradesh, India.
- It is famous for its artistic and religious heritage, especially during the Kushan period.
- Mathura is known for its Buddhist and Jain sculptures, along with Hindu religious artifacts.
- Taxila
- Taxila is an ancient city located in present-day Pakistan.
- It was a major center of learning and culture during ancient times, particularly during the Gandhara period.
- Taxila is famous for its monasteries, stupas, and ancient universities.
56. Dharmapala is known to have founded which of the following universities near Bhagalpur in Bihar?
A. Takshila
B. Valabhi
C. Nalanda
D. Vikramashila
Solution
The correct answer is Vikramashila.
Key Points
- Vikramshila University was a Buddhist monastery and learning center in what is now Bihar, India.
- King Dharmapala established the university in the late 8th or early 9th century.
- It was one of the most important Buddhist universities of its time, along with Nalanda and Odantapuri.
- The university was a center of Tantric Buddhism.
- The university was destroyed by Muslim invaders in the 12th century. Today, only the ruins of the university remain.
Additional Information
- Taxila University:-
- The University of Ancient Taxila was founded by Bharata and named after his son Taksha, who was the established ruler of the university.
- It was a center of learning and knowledge in ancient times, particularly during the Maurya Empire and Greek rule in the 2nd and 3rd centuries BCE.
- It was known for its study of medicine, Vedic science, and the arts.
- Nalanda University:-
- Emperor Kumaragupta I of the Gupta Empire established Nalanda University around 427 CE in modern-day Bihar.
- It was the world’s first residential university.
- Hiuen Tsang, a famous Chinese Buddhist scholar and traveler, studied at Nalanda University in the 7th century.
- Valabhi University:-
- Valabhi University was an ancient university in western India that was a center of Buddhist learning and religious studies.
- It is located in what is now the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat, India.
- It is a center of Hinayana Buddhism, religious tolerance, and mental freedom.
- Chinese travelers Xuanzang and Yijing visited the university.
Important Points
- In June 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated a new 450-acre campus of Nalanda University in Rajgir, Bihar.
- The new campus is a “Net Zero” Green Campus that focuses on environmental conservation.
57. The first Law Minister of Independent India was –
A. K.M. Munsi
B. S.P. Mukharji
C. Baldev Singh
D. B.R. Ambedkar
Solution
The correct answer is B. R. Ambedkar.
Important Points
- Babasaheb Ambedkar is one of the foremost thinkers of modern India.
- He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution and defended its key provisions with scholarly precision and sustained arguments without losing sight of the ideals .
- He was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution and became the law minister in the Nehru Cabinet in August 1947.
- He embraced Buddhism, recasting it to respond to modern and socially emancipatory urges, with hundreds of thousands of his followers and paved the way for its resurgence in Modern India.
- Ambedkar resigned from the Nehru Cabinet in 1951 and strove to work out an alternative to the lack of social and economic democracy in India and the inability of the Constitutional democracy to effectively function in its absence.
- Such a search eventually Ied him to conversion to Buddhism and the proposal for the establishment of the Republican Party of India.
- He died on 6 December, 1956.
Additional Information
- K. M. Munshi was a member of drafting committee.
- Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was entrusted with the responsibility of fostering industrial growth and promoting commerce.
- His efforts aimed to strengthen India’s economy and enhance its global trade relations.
- Baldev Singh, a revered leader and veteran of the freedom struggle, shouldered the responsibility of Minister of Defense.
- His mandate entailed fortifying the nation’s defense infrastructure and safeguarding its security.
58. In which city is the cricket stadium M. Chinnaswamy located?
A. Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Bengaluru
D. Mumbai
Solution
The correct answer is Bengaluru.
Key Points
- The M. Chinnaswamy Stadium is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka, which is one of the southern states in India.
- It is one of the premier cricket stadiums in India and has been the venue for many important national and international cricket matches.
- The stadium is named after M. Chinnaswamy, who served the Karnataka State Cricket Association (KSCA) for four decades and contributed significantly to the development of cricket in the state.
- With a seating capacity of around 35,000 spectators, the M. Chinnaswamy Stadium is equipped with advanced facilities and provides a world-class experience for both players and spectators3.
- The M. Chinnaswamy Stadium is known for its high-scoring matches and is a favorite venue among batsmen. It also has state-of-the-art facilities like floodlights for day-night matches and a modern pavilion stand.
59. Aditya Joshi is related to which sport?
A. Basketball
B. Badminton
C. Cricket
D. Tennis
Solution
The correct answer is Badminton.
- Aditya Joshi is related to Badminton sport.
Key Points
- Aditya Joshi is an Indian badminton player. He is the first male Indian junior badminton player who ranked first place in the world junior rankings.
- Joshi got the number one slot in the junior rankings of the World Badminton Federation in January 2014. He was in the 11th position till November 2013.
- Joshi was the junior national champion in the year 2013 and had won two gold medals in the Indian junior international tournament.
- In 2012 he participated at the India Open Grand Prix Gold.
- He clinched the gold in the Remensco Junior International tournament held in Russia in 2011.
Additional Information
- Famous Badminton players from India are:
- Prakash Padukone.
- Pullela Gopichand.
- Saina Nehwal.
- Kidambi Srikanth.
- PV Sindhu.
Important Points
60. For nearly six months. Bhagat Singh wrote for Hindi journal ‘Pratap’ under which Pen- name?
A. Kulwant
B. Sukhwant
C. Balwant
D. Satwant
Solution
Bhagat Singh wrote for the Hindi journal ‘Pratap’ under the Pen- name Balwant Singh.
Key Points
- Bhagat Singh left for Kanpur in 1923 (aged 16), where he was introduced to Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi, editor of “Pratap”, Kanpur, and Congress leader of the United Provinces.
- Bhagat also wrote articles for Pratap under the pen name “Balwant Singh.”
- In 1924 and 1925, he wrote: “Vishv Prem” (“In love with the world”) and “Yuvak”, which were published in Matwala, both under the assumed name of Balwant Singh.
Additional Information Bhagat Singh
- Born on September 27, 1907, in the village of Banga in Punjab, British India.
- Considered to be one of the most influential revolutionaries of the Indian independence movement.
- Became involved in revolutionary activities at a young age by joining the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).
- Participated in acts of sabotage against British institutions, including the bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi.
- Convicted and executed for the assassination of John Saunders, a British police officer, on March 23, 1931, at the age of 23.
- Left a lasting legacy in the struggle for Indian independence and is revered as a martyr and symbol of resistance to British colonialism.
- His example continues to inspire new generations of activists worldwide.
61. Teejan Bai is an exponent of Pandavani, a traditional performing art form, from Chhattisgarh, in which she enacts tales from the _______ with musical accompaniments.
A. Abhijnana sakuntalam
B. Mahabharata
C. Ramayana
D. Katha Sarit Sagar
Solution
The Correct answer is Mahabharata.
Key Points
- Teejan Bai is a proponent of Pandavani, a traditional art form, from Chhattisgarh, in which she approves tales from the Mahabharata, with musical background.
- The Mahabharata is one of the two major Sanskrit Saga of ancient India the other being the Ramayana.
- It tells the struggle among two groups of cousins in the Kurukshetra war and the destiny of the Kaurava and the Pandava princes and their beneficiaries.
- It also contains Philosophical and devotional material, such as a discussion of the four “goals of life” or Purusartha.
Additional Information
- Possibly the greatest Sanskrit director, Mahakavi Kalidas wrote Abhigyan Shakuntalam nearly 2,500 years ago.
- The Ramayana is an ancient Sanskrit epic which follows Prince Rama’s quest to save his beloved wife Sita from the grips of Ravana with the help of an army of monkeys. It is traditionally assigned to the authorship of the sage Valmiki and dated to around 500 BCE to 100 BCE.
- The Katha Sarit Sagar is a famous 11th-century collection of Indian legends, fairy tales and folk epics as retold in Sanskrit by the Shaivite Somadeva.
62. The Fundamental Duties are addressed to the ________.
A. Government
B. Legislature
C. State
D. Citizens
Solution
The correct answer is Citizens.
Key Points
- On the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, the fundamental duties were added.
- They were added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 in our Indian Constitution.
- The 86th Amendment raised the number of the fundamental obligations from 10 to 11 in 2002.
- Fundamental duties are addressed to the citizens whereas directive principles address to the state.
Additional Information
- List of all Fundamental duties:
- Abide by the Constitution and respect national flag & National Anthem
- Follow ideals of the freedom struggle
- Protect sovereignty & integrity of India
- Defend the country and render national services when called upon
- Sprit of common brotherhood
- Preserve composite culture
- Preserve natural environment
- Develop scientific temper
- Safeguard public property
- Strive for excellence
- Duty for all parents/guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school.
63. In the game of discus throw what is the standard weight of a discus for women?
A. 1500 gm
B. 1000 gm
C. 1200 gm
D. 800 gm
Solution
THe correct answer is 1000 gm.
Key Points
- Standard Weight of a Discus for Women:
- The standard weight of a discus for women in the sport of discus throw is 1000 grams (1 kg).
- This weight is set by the International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF), now known as World Athletics, which governs international track and field competitions.
- The discus used in women’s events is lighter than the one used in men’s events, which weighs 2000 grams (2 kg).
- The discus is a circular object with a metal rim and a wooden or plastic core, designed for optimal aerodynamics and grip.
- The size and weight of the discus are standardized to ensure fairness and consistency in competitions.
Additional Information
- Discus Throw:
- The discus throw has its origins in ancient Greece, where it was part of the pentathlon in the ancient Olympic Games.
- It was reintroduced in the modern Olympic Games in 1896 for men and in 1928 for women.
- The sport has evolved over time, with improvements in techniques, training, and equipment.
- Rules and Regulations:
- In discus throw, athletes must throw the discus from within a circle with a diameter of 2.5 meters.
- The throw is measured from the inner edge of the circle to the point where the discus first lands.
- Athletes are given a set number of attempts, usually six, to achieve their best throw.
- Fouls occur if the athlete steps out of the circle before the discus lands or if the discus lands outside the designated sector.
- Technique and Training:
- The discus throw requires a combination of strength, speed, and coordination.
- Athletes use a spinning technique to generate momentum and maximize the distance of the throw.
- Training includes strength conditioning, technique drills, and practice throws to improve performance.
- Women in Discus Throw:
- Women’s discus throw has been a part of the Olympic Games since 1928.
- Notable female discus throwers include Gabriele Reinsch of Germany, who holds the world record with a throw of 76.80 meters set in 1988.
- The sport has seen significant advancements in women’s participation and performance over the years.
- Equipment Specifications:
- The discus for women has a diameter of 180-182 mm and a thickness of 37-39 mm.
- The weight and dimensions are carefully regulated to ensure uniformity in competitions.
- The discus must be made of materials approved by World Athletics to meet safety and performance standards.
64. The process of biological treatment of seeds with beneficial organisms prior to sowing is called as ________.
A. Bio pelleting
B. Bio dressing
C. Bio priming
D. Bio ageing
Solution
The correct answer is Bio priming.
Key Points Bio priming
- Bio priming is a pre-sowing treatment that induces a physiological state in which seeds germinate more efficiently.
- The majority of seed treatments rely on seed imbibition, which allows seeds to go through the first reversible stage of germination but prevents radical protrusion through the seed coat.
- Desiccation tolerance seeds are then dehydrated and can be stored until final sowing.
- Primed seeds germinate faster and more synchronically than unprimed seeds, and young seedlings are often more vigorous and resistant to abiotic stresses.
- Priming frequently entails soaking seed in predetermined amounts of water or limiting imbibition time and is known as osmopriming.
- The term “halopriming” refers to the use of specific salts, whereas “hormopriming” refers to the use of plant growth regulators.
- Some physical treatments (UV, cold or heat, etc.) also improve germination, implying that priming effects are not always related to seed imbibition.
- A better understanding of the metabolic events that occur during the priming treatment and subsequent germination should aid in the efficient use of this simple and inexpensive technology.
65. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the ‘Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections’?
A. Article 45
B. Article 48
C. Article 47
D. Article 46
Solution
The correct answer is Article 46.
Key Points
- Article 46 of the Indian Constitution falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV).
- It mandates the State to promote the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections of society.
- The article aims at protecting these groups from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
- It emphasizes the need for providing special care to the educational and economic development of these vulnerable sections.
Additional Information
- Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
- These are guidelines or principles given to the federal institutes governing the state of India, to be kept in consideration while framing laws and policies.
- They are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.
- However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life.
- The Directive Principles are inspired by the Irish Constitution and are aimed at ensuring social and economic democracy.
- Scheduled Castes (SCs):
- These are historically disadvantaged groups recognized in the Indian Constitution.
- They are provided with positive discrimination or affirmative action to uplift their status in society.
- Special provisions are made for their representation in various sectors such as education, employment, and legislature.
- Scheduled Tribes (STs):
- These are indigenous communities who are distinct from the mainstream population in terms of culture, language, and social practices.
- Like SCs, STs are also provided with affirmative action to protect their rights and promote their development.
- Efforts are made to preserve their cultural heritage and ensure their socio-economic development.
- Other Weaker Sections:
- This term generally refers to other socially and economically disadvantaged groups that are not classified as SCs or STs.
- Special measures are taken to ensure their upliftment and integration into the mainstream society.
- These measures may include reservations, scholarships, and other welfare schemes.
66. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
To stay longer than necessary
A. Digress
B. Wander
C. Stroll
D. Linger
Solution
The correct answer is ‘Linger’.
Key Points
- To stay longer than necessary: It is a one-word substitution which means staying in a place longer than necessary because of a reluctance to leave.
- Example – We will use this information only in relation to the competition and we will not keep it for longer than necessary.
Additional Information
- Let’s understand the meanings of the other given options:
- Digress – to stop talking or writing about the main subject under discussion and start talking or writing about another less important one.
- Wander – to walk somewhere slowly with no particular sense of direction or purpose.
- Stroll – a slow walk for pleasure.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
67. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
My friends / and their family members / have gone to the beach / two days ago.
A. have gone to the beach
B. My friends
C. two days ago
D. and their family members
Solution
The correct answer is ‘have gone to the beach‘.
Key Points
- The phrase “have gone” is in the present perfect tense.
- The sentence describes an action that occurred at a specific point in the past (“two days ago“), so the past tense “went” is required.
- Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically correct in this context.
- Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.
Complete Sentence: “My friends and their family members went to the beach two days ago.”
Additional Information
- Option 1: “have gone to the beach” is incorrect because it uses the present perfect tense instead of the simple past tense.
- Option 2: “My friends” is correct and does not contain any grammatical errors.
- Option 3: “two days ago” is correct and does not contain any grammatical errors.
- Option 4: “and their family members” is correct and does not contain any grammatical errors.
68. Choose the word that means the same as the given word.
Animate
A. Calm
B. Energize
C. Callous
D. Enmity
Solution
The correct answer is ‘Energize‘.
Key Points
- The most appropriate synonym of the given word ‘Animate‘ is ‘Energize‘.
- Animate: to make something have more life and energy. (अनुप्राणित करना; जान व स्फूर्ति डाल देना, प्राण का संचार करना)
- Example: Her enthusiasm animated the whole room.
- Energize: give vitality and enthusiasm to. (जान व स्फूर्ति डाल देना, प्राण का संचार करना)
- Example: an energizing drink…
- Example: an energizing drink…
Correct Answer: Energize.
Additional Information
- Let’s look at the meaning of other words:
- Calm: not excited, worried, or angry; quiet. (शांत, चुपचाप)
- Callous: not caring about the feelings or suffering of other people. (दूसरों की भावनाओं या पीड़ा की उपेक्षा करते हुए; कठोर हृदय, बेदर्द, निष्ठुर, संवेदनाहीन)
- Enmity: the feeling of hatred towards an enemy. (शत्रुता, वैर, दुश्मनी)
69. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
She is a benevolent individual.
A. Clever
B. Muddled
C. Malevolent
D. Ambivalent
Solution
The correct answer is-‘Malevolent’
Key Points
- let’s look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
- Benevolent (adjective): kind and helpful. (दयालु और मददगार।)
- Example: He was a benevolent old man and wouldn’t hurt a fly.
- Malevolent(adjective): causing or wanting to cause harm or evil. (नुकसान या बुराई पैदा करना या करना चाहते हैं।)
- Example: The central character is a malevolent witch out for revenge.
Hence, the word Malevolent is the most appropriate antonym for benevolent.Additional Information
- Let’s explore the meaning of other options:
- Clever(adjective): having or showing the ability to learn and understand things quickly and easily. (चीजों को जल्दी और आसानी से सीखने और समझने की क्षमता होना या दिखाना।)
- Example: Judy has never been very clever, but she tries hard.
- Muddled(adjective): badly organized or confusing. (बुरी तरह से संगठित या भ्रमित करने वाला।)
- Example: a muddled legal situation.
- Ambivalent(adjective): having two opposing feelings at the same time, or being uncertain about how you feel. (एक ही समय में दो विरोधी भावनाएँ होना, या आप कैसा महसूस करते हैं, इसके बारे में अनिश्चित होना।)
- Example: I felt very ambivalent about leaving home.
70. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
It was a quite afternoon, so Dan decided to take a nap.
A. an quiet
B. an quite
C. No substitution required
D. a quiet
Solution
The correct answer is ‘a quiet’.
Key Points
- In the original sentence, “It was a quite afternoon,” the word “quite” appears to be a typographical error. The intended word should likely be “quiet,” which describes a period of time characterized by calmness, tranquility, or lack of disturbance.
- Here’s why option 4, “a quiet,” is the correct choice:
- Grammatical correctness: “A” is the correct indefinite article to use before a consonant sound, as in “a quiet.” In contrast, “an” is used before a vowel sound, as in “an apple.” Therefore, “an quiet” (option 1) and “an quite” (option 2) are grammatically incorrect.
- Semantic accuracy: “Quiet” is the appropriate word to describe an afternoon that lacks noise or disturbance. “Quite” is an adverb that typically means “to a certain extent” or “fairly,” and it doesn’t make sense in the context of describing an afternoon. Therefore, “a quiet” (option 4) accurately conveys the intended meaning of the sentence.
- In summary, option 4, “a quiet,” is the correct choice because it corrects the typo in the original sentence and accurately conveys the intended meaning of a peaceful afternoon.
71. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
The lecture _______ by the doctor on healthy eating habits was very informative.
A. was given
B. given
C. giving
D. gave
Solution
The correct answer is: given
Key Points
- “giving” is the present participle (verb+ing) form of “give”. It is used only in continuous tenses.
- “gave” is used for the third person singular only. Such as “He/She gave”
- “Was” is already mentioned in this sentence.
- If we use “was given” then the sentence will be “The lecture was given by the doctor on healthy eating habits was very informative.” Using “was” twice in a sentence which is indicating the same subject (The lecture) is meaningless.
- Therefore, “given” should be used as the sentence is written in the past tense.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Complete sentence: The lecture given by the doctor on healthy eating habits was very informative.
72. Select the most appropriate idiom/phrase of the given meaning
To make a mistake
A. Drop the ball
B. Done to death
C. Doggy bag
D. Dark Horse
Solution
The correct answer is: ‘Drop the ball‘
Key Points
- The most appropriate idiom of the given meaning ‘To make a mistake‘ is ‘Drop the ball‘.
- Let’s look at the meaning and example of the given idiom.
- Drop the ball- To make a mistake.(एक गलती करने हेतु)
- EXAMPLE– She really dropped the ball when she forgot to call back.
Additional Information
- Done to death- To do or repeat something so often that it becomes boring or unhappily. (किसी काम को इतनी बार करना या दोहराना कि वह उबाऊ या अप्रसन्न हो जाए।)
- Doggy bag- A container or bag for leftover food to be carried home from a meal eaten at a restaurant. (एक रेस्तरां में खाए गए भोजन से बचे हुए भोजन को घर ले जाने के लिए एक कंटेनर या बैग)
- Dark horse- A person who is not expected to succeed in or unexpectedly wins. (एक व्यक्ति जिसके सफल होने या अप्रत्याशित रूप से जीतने की उम्मीद नहीं है)
73. Direction: Select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks.
The UGC chairman said State governments will provide the required ___________ for ___________ of State-run multi-disciplinary institutions.
A. grants, exemption
B. funds, functioning
C. offers, establishment
D. support, utilization
Solution
The correct answer is ‘funds, functioning.’
Key Points
- Let’s discuss the marked option first:
- Funds (noun): A sum of money that is collected for a particular purpose (विशेष उद्देश्य से संगृहीत धनराशि; कोष, फंड).
- Example: The funds were apportioned among the various departments.
- Functioning (gerund which consider as noun): To work correctly; to be in action (ठीक से काम करना; चालू हालत में होना).
- Example: The system was clearly not functioning smoothly and transparently.
- Explanation: The UGC chairman said State governments will provide the necessary money for the working or operation of State-run multi-disciplinary institutions.
- Funds (noun): A sum of money that is collected for a particular purpose (विशेष उद्देश्य से संगृहीत धनराशि; कोष, फंड).
- It is clear that words given in option 2 fit in the blanks contextually.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.
Complete Sentence: The UGC chairman said State governments will provide the required funds for functioning of State-run multi-disciplinary institutions.
Additional Information
- Grants means to officially give somebody what he/she has asked for (आधिकारिक तौर पर किसी को कुछ प्रदान करना).
- Exemption means the action of freeing or state of being free from an obligation or liability imposed on others (दूसरों पर लगाए गए दायित्व या दायित्व से मुक्त होने की अवस्था या भाव).
- Offers means to ask if somebody would like something or to give somebody the chance to have something (किसी को कोई वस्तु पेश करना या उसे कोई वस्तु लेने का अवसर देना).
- Establishment means an organization, a large institution or a hotel (संगठन, बड़ी संस्था, प्रतिष्ठान).
- Support means help and encouragement that one gives to a person or thing (व्यक्ति या वस्तु को सहायता और प्रोत्साहन).
- Utilization means the action of making practical and effective use of something (किसी वस्तु का व्यावहारिक और प्रभावी उपयोग करने की क्रिया).
74. Parts of the given sentence have been given as options. One of them contains a spelling error. Select the option that rectifies the error.
A chamelelon changes its colour to regulate its body temperature according to the environment.
A. environment
B. chameleon
C. regulate
D. temperature
Solution
The correct answer is “chamelelon”.
Key Points
- Chameleons are a distinctive and highly specialized clade of old-world lizards.
- Chameleons are known due to their characteristic feature of changing colors.
- The color of their skin helps them to blend in their habitat.
- So the spelling which contains the error is chamelelon and which is corrected as a ‘chameleon’.
Additional Information
- Environment – the conditions in which you live, work, etc.
- Example: A pleasant working environment is needed for growth.
- Regulate – to control.
- Example: You can regulate the temperature of the room.
- Temperature – how hot or cold is something.
- Example: The temperature inside the car is high.
75. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
The fact that God created man in his personal view by giving him an intellectual spirit elevates him above the beasts of the field.
A. own glory
B. own capacity
C. own image
D. own idea
Solution
The correct answer is “own image.”
Key Points
- In the given sentence:
- The phrase “his personal view” suggests that the sentence is referring to God’s own characteristics or attributes.
- The phrase “giving him an intellectual spirit” implies that man has a special quality that sets him apart from animals.
- The phrase “elevates him above the beasts of the field” reinforces the idea that man is superior to animals in some way.
- The phrase “in his own image” is a common biblical phrase that refers to the idea that God created man to be like himself.
- Thus, it can be concluded that the correct option that will replace the given phrase will be “own image.“
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
76. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
My brother performed / extremely good / in the class test / held yesterday.
A. held yesterday
B. in the class test
C. My brother performed
D. extremely good
Solution
The correct answer is Option 4.
Key Points
- The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the adjective “good” instead of the adverb “well.”
- Adjectives are used to describe nouns, while adverbs are used to describe verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs.
- The correct phrase should be “extremely well,” ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
- Thus, the error is located in option 4 of the sentence.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.
Correct Sentence: “My brother performed extremely well in the class test held yesterday.”
Additional Information
- 1: “My brother performed” – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
- 2: “in the class test” – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
- 3: “held yesterday” – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
77. Out of the given four sentences, choose the one which is grammatically correct.
A. He has forgave me for all my mistakes
B. He has forgiven me for all my mistakes
C. He have forgave me for all my mistakes
D. He have forgiven me for all my mistakes
Solution
The correct answer is ‘He has forgiven me for all my mistakes’.
Key Points
- The given sentence is in the Present Perfect tense.
- The present perfect tense is used to indicate completed activities in the immediate past.
- The structure of the given tense is: Subject + have/has + past participle (v3) + Object
- Example – He has just gone out.
- The past participle form of the verb ‘forgive’ is ‘forgiven’.
- The pronoun ‘he‘ is a singular pronoun that refers to one person, it will be paired with ‘has‘.
- Thus, the grammatically correct sentence is ‘He has forgiven me for all my mistakes’.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
78. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
A. Thretened
B. Thermometer
C. Thanksgiving
D. Throughout
Solution
The correct answer is Thretened.
Key Points
- The correct spelling is Threatened.
- Example- They broke my car and threatened me.
- Example- The hijackers threatened them with loaded guns.
Additional Information
- ‘Threatened’ is used as a verb in a sentence as shown in the above example.
- It comes from the Old English word thréat, which means ‘pressure’ or ‘punishment.’
- The synonym of Threatened is jeopardized, warned, imperiled, etc.
- The word ‘Threatened‘ is always used in a negative manner, especially when there is some kind of harm or violence involved.
79. The following sentence has been divided into four parts labelled (a), (b), (c), (d). One of them contains error. Select the part that contains error from the given options. If there is no error, select option (d / No error)
Many women (a)/ reconcile to the (b)/ demands of their in-laws (c). No error (d)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solution
The erroneous part of the sentence is Option 2)
Key Points
- A ‘Reflexive Pronoun‘ must follow reconcile. So the pronoun ‘themselves‘ needs to be added after the verb reconcile
- Here ‘women‘ is a third person plural number so the reflexive pronoun must be ‘themselves’.
- Example : She had reconciled herself to never meeting him again.
- Example : She reconciled herself to the failure.
80. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts, labelled as (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
There was fewer / discussion than expected / at the conference. / No error
A. There was fewer
B. discussion than
C. at the conference
D. No error
Solution
The correct answer is ‘Option 1’ i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.
Key Points
- In the sentence, the phrase “There was fewer” is incorrect because “fewer” is used with countable nouns, and “discussion” is generally considered uncountable when referring to the activity of discussing.
- The correct phrase should use “less” instead of “fewer” to correctly modify the uncountable noun “discussion,” resulting in the phrase “There was less discussion.”
- “Fewer” is used for countable nouns (e.g., “fewer apples”), while “less” is used for uncountable nouns (e.g., “less sugar”).
- Therefore, the error in the sentence is in the use of “fewer” with an uncountable noun, which should be corrected to “less.”
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Correct sentence: “There was less discussion than expected at the conference.”
Additional Information
- “discussion than”: This option is not the source of the error. The comparison structure initiated by “than” is correctly used here.
- “at the conference”: This phrase correctly indicates the location of the discussion and does not contain an error.
- “No error”: This option would be incorrect because there is an error in the sentence related to the use of “fewer” with an uncountable noun.
81. Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in brackets to fill in the blanks.
The soldiers spent long period ________ (convalescing).
A. striking
B. traveling
D. recovering
D. ailing
Solution
The correct answer is: Option 3.
Key Points
- The word “convalescing” means to recover one’s health and strength over a period of time after an illness or medical treatment. (स्वास्थ्य लाभ करना)
- Example: After the surgery, he spent several weeks convalescing at home.
- “Recovering” means to return to a normal state of health, mind, or strength. (स्वस्थ होना)
- Example: She is slowly recovering from her injuries.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.
Additional Information
Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:
- Striking (हड़ताली): Attracting attention by reason of being unusual, extreme, or prominent.
- Example: The striking colors of the sunset were breathtaking.
- Traveling (यात्रा करना): Make a journey, typically of some length or abroad.
- Example: She enjoys traveling to new places and exploring different cultures.
- Ailing (बीमार): In poor health.
- Example: The ailing patient was taken to the hospital for better treatment.
82. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
She leads an active lifestyle, is always conscious of her healthfulness, engages in mindful eating habits, and regular workouts, and prioritizes ample rest to ensure holistic well-being.
A. health
B. healthful
C. healthy
D. No improvement
Solution
The correct answer is ‘health’.
Key Points
- The correct substitution for the underlined segment is: health.
- The original sentence reads, “She leads an active lifestyle, is always conscious of her healthfulness.” The term “healthfulness” here is a noun that refers to the quality or state of being healthy.
- However, in this context, the sentence intends to describe the quality of her health, not the abstract concept of healthfulness. “Healthy” is the adjective form used to describe someone or something in good health.
- Here’s the revised sentence using the correct form: “She leads an active lifestyle, is always conscious of her health, engages in mindful eating habits, and regular workouts, and prioritizes ample rest to ensure holistic well-being.”
- The change to “conscious of her health” maintains the intended meaning, describing her awareness and concern for her overall well-being and using the adjective “healthy” to describe that state.
83. In the following questions, some part of the sentence is underlined, which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is given then choose the option ‘No Correction required’ as the answer.
They were congratulated him for his anniversary.
A. No improvement
B. Were congratulated him on
C. Congratulated him for
D. Congratulated him on
Solution
The correct answer is ‘Congratulated him on’.
Key Points
- The original sentence, “They were congratulated him for his anniversary,” contains an error in the usage of the verb “congratulated” with the preposition that follows it.
- In this context, the verb “congratulated” needs to be followed by the correct preposition to convey the intended meaning. The appropriate preposition to use after “congratulated” when referring to an occasion or event is “on,” not “for.”
- The correct construction would be: “They congratulated him on his anniversary.”
- So, “Congratulated him on” is a suitable phrase that ensures proper usage and conveys the message of offering congratulations for a specific event, adhering to the correct prepositional usage after the verb “congratulated.”
84. Pick the correct meaning of the underlined expression in the following sentence:
It’s no use splitting hairs over the cause of the lapse.
A. combing through tangled hair
B. arguing about petty matters
C. trying to clean knots
D. raising major issues after the event
Solution
The correct answer is ‘arguing about petty matters‘.
Key Points
- The expression ‘no use splitting hairs’ means ‘no use of making small and unnecessary distinctions’, ‘arguments on trivial matters’.
- Example:- It’s no use splitting hairs over their matters.
- Hence, the correct meaning of the underlined expression in the given sentence is ‘arguing about petty matters‘.
Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 2‘.
85. Directions: Choose the appropriate preposition from the options given below each of the following sentences:
Your behaviour does not admit ______ any excuses.
A. in
B. of
D. for
D. to
Solution
The correct answer is ‘of.’
Key Points
- Admit of means to permit, allow, or suggest something, to show that something is possible or likely as a solution, an explanation, etc.
- Example: The road was narrow that it hardly admitted of two-person Atticus and Alvis walking next to each other.
- In the above questions, ‘admit of’ means ‘to permit something’ which means that his behavior does not permit any plea. ‘Admit to’ doesn’t contextually correct as it means that his behavior does not confess any plea. This is a preposition. ‘Admit to’ means ‘to confess’. No such meaning is expressed by the original sentence. So we can’t use option 4). So if we use ‘of’, then the sentence expresses the exact meaning. The sentence means ‘there is no room for excuses/excuses in your behavior’. Besides, options 1) and 3) do not express any meaning, and ‘for’ and ‘in’ cannot be used with admitting.
- Thus, we can infer that ‘admit of’ means to ‘permit something’.
Hence, option 2) is the correct answer.
Complete Sentence
Your behavior does not admit of any excuses.
Important PointsLet’s discuss the other point
- Admit to means to confess or acknowledge personal wrongdoing, to allow one to enter or become a member of some organization or place.
- Example: Akio is admitted to the hospital.
86. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Recently, the (1) ________ of heart-attacks in young Indians (2) ________ increased tremendously. Doctors are surprised to note that young men and women with seemingly healthy lifestyles are suffering deadly heart attacks. (3) ________ diet and exercise play a (4) ________ role in a person’s overall wellbeing, mental health is also a valuable factor. The (5) ________ urban lifestyle is causing anxiety and depression in young Indians which may be a major factor behind the increased numbers.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
A. amount
B. number
C. percent
D. height
Solution
The correct answer is Option 2.
Key Points
- The passage refers to the increase in heart-attacks among young Indians. The correct word to use is a noun that quantifies the instances of heart-attacks.
- “Number” is the appropriate choice because it refers to countable occurrences, which fits the context of heart-attacks that can be counted.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.
Additional Information
- Option 1: “Amount” refers to uncountable quantities, making it unsuitable for counting individual incidents like heart-attacks.
- Option 3: “Percent” refers to a proportion or percentage, which doesn’t directly fill the blank for the general increase in occurrences.
- Option 4: “Height” refers to a dimension and is irrelevant in this context.
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87. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Recently, the (1) ________ of heart-attacks in young Indians (2) ________ increased tremendously. Doctors are surprised to note that young men and women with seemingly healthy lifestyles are suffering deadly heart attacks. (3) ________ diet and exercise play a (4) ________ role in a person’s overall wellbeing, mental health is also a valuable factor. The (5) ________ urban lifestyle is causing anxiety and depression in young Indians which may be a major factor behind the increased numbers.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
A. have been
B. had
C. has
D. have
Solution
The correct answer is Option 3.
Key Points
- The subject of the sentence is “the number” (which is singular), so the verb must be singular as well.
- The correct verb form is “has,” as it agrees with the singular subject “the number” of heart attacks.
- The other options (“have been,” “had,” “have”) are incorrect as they either imply plural subjects or incorrect tenses for this context.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.
Additional Information
- Option 1: “have been” is incorrect because it is a plural verb form and the subject here is singular.
- Option 2: “had” is incorrect because it refers to a past perfect tense, which does not fit the context.
- Option 4: “have” is incorrect because it is plural and doesn’t match the singular subject of the sentence.
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88. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Recently, the (1) ________ of heart-attacks in young Indians (2) ________ increased tremendously. Doctors are surprised to note that young men and women with seemingly healthy lifestyles are suffering deadly heart attacks. (3) ________ diet and exercise play a (4) ________ role in a person’s overall wellbeing, mental health is also a valuable factor. The (5) ________ urban lifestyle is causing anxiety and depression in young Indians which may be a major factor behind the increased numbers.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
A. Since
B. Although
C. In spite of
D. However
Solution
The correct answer is ‘Option 2‘.
Key Points
- The passage discusses how diet and exercise are important but that mental health is also a significant factor. The correct conjunction should show a contrast between these ideas.
- “Although” is the most appropriate option here because it introduces a contrast, implying that despite the importance of diet and exercise, mental health also plays a key role.
- Other options such as “Since” and “In spite of” would not correctly convey the contrast that is needed in this sentence.
- “However” would work better in a separate clause, not in the middle of the sentence.
Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 2‘.
Additional Information
- Option 1: “Since” indicates a reason or cause, which doesn’t work well for introducing a contrast between diet/exercise and mental health.
- Option 3: “In spite of” is typically used at the beginning of a sentence or clause and would disrupt the sentence flow here.
- Option 4: “However” is usually used to begin a new sentence or clause, not in the middle.
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89. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Recently, the (1) ________ of heart-attacks in young Indians (2) ________ increased tremendously. Doctors are surprised to note that young men and women with seemingly healthy lifestyles are suffering deadly heart attacks. (3) ________ diet and exercise play a (4) ________ role in a person’s overall wellbeing, mental health is also a valuable factor. The (5) ________ urban lifestyle is causing anxiety and depression in young Indians which may be a major factor behind the increased numbers.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
A. historic
B. epic
C. monumental
D. increased
Solution
The correct answer is Option 3.
Key Points
- The sentence highlights the importance of diet and exercise in a person’s overall wellbeing.
- The blank (4) requires a word that emphasizes their crucial role. The options provided include adjectives with distinct meanings, and the choice should logically align with the sentence’s tone and context.
- “Monumental” means exceptionally important or significant. In this context, it emphasizes that diet and exercise are critical to maintaining overall wellbeing.
- Other options like “historic”, “epic”, and “Increased” are not appropriate, as they suggest grand or historical contexts, which do not fit with the theme of daily health factors.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.
Additional Information
- Option 1: “Historic” – This term typically refers to something of great importance in history, which does not align with the context of daily health habits.
- Option 2: “Epic” – This term suggests something large-scale or extraordinary, which is not appropriate here as the passage deals with regular health factors.
- Option 4: “Increased” – “Increased” refers to a rise in quantity or extent, but it doesn’t make sense in the context of describing the role of diet and exercise.
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90. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Recently, the (1) ________ of heart-attacks in young Indians (2) ________ increased tremendously. Doctors are surprised to note that young men and women with seemingly healthy lifestyles are suffering deadly heart attacks. (3) ________ diet and exercise play a (4) ________ role in a person’s overall wellbeing, mental health is also a valuable factor. The (5) ________ urban lifestyle is causing anxiety and depression in young Indians which may be a major factor behind the increased numbers.
Question:
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
A. fast-paced
B. cosmic
C. rapidly
D. wilderness
Solution
The correct answer is Option 1.
Key Points
- The passage talks about the urban lifestyle’s impact on young Indians, focusing on factors like anxiety and depression.
- The phrase that fits here should describe the nature of the urban lifestyle causing stress and mental health issues.
- “Fast-paced” is the correct choice, as it describes a lifestyle that is fast-moving and stressful, contributing to mental health challenges like anxiety and depression.
- Other options (“cosmic”, “rapidly”, “wilderness”) do not match the context of describing a fast-moving and stressful urban lifestyle.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.
Additional Information
- Option 2: “Cosmic” refers to something related to the universe, which doesn’t align with the context of urban stress and lifestyle.
- Option 3: “Rapidly” is an adverb and does not fit the context where an adjective is needed to describe the urban lifestyle.
- Option 4: “Wilderness” refers to a natural environment, which does not relate to the modern, urban lifestyle discussed in the passage.
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