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SSC MTS 2025 Full Test 5

1. If sales tax is increased by 23% and net income of a shopkeeper is decreased by 8%. Find the approximate rate of sales tax.

A. 23.45%

B. 27.64%

C. 25.80%

D. 26.46%

Solution

Given:

Sales tax is increased by 23% and net income is decreased by 8%

Concept used:

Sales tax ∝ (1/net income)

Calculation:

Sales tax × 23% = Net income × 8%

∴ The correct answer is 25.80%.


2. In a pharma company, a scientist is mixing the purified form of Acetone and Toluene to invent some medicine. The cost of the solution obtained after mixing Acetone and Toluene is Rs. 16 per litre. Acetone costs Rs. 14 per litre to the scientist. Due to storage issue, Toluene’s cost is expensive than Acetone to the scientist. The ratio of Toluene to Acetone in the solution is 4 ∶ 1. What is the cost of Toluene per litre (in Rs.) to the scientist?

A. 21

B. 18.5

C. 16.5

D. 20

Solution

Given data:

Cost of solution = Rs. 16 per litre,

Cost of Acetone = Rs. 14 per litre,

Ratio of Toluene to Acetone in the solution = 4 ∶ 1.

Concept used:

The cost of the solution is the sum of the cost of its components in their respective ratios.

Solution:

Represent the cost of solution as a weighted average of the costs of Toluene (T) and Acetone (A):

⇒ 16 = (4T + 1×14) / 5

Rearrange to solve for T (Cost of Toluene):

⇒ T = (80 – 14) / 4

Therefore, substituting the values from step 2 into the equation:

T = (80 – 14) / 4 = 66 / 4 = Rs. 16.5/litre

Hence, the cost of Toluene per litre to the scientist is Rs. 16.5.


3. 60 kg of an alloy A is mixed with 80 kg of alloy B to get a new alloy. If alloy A has zinc and copper in the ratio 7 : 5 and alloy B has zinc and copper in the ratio 3 : 7, then what is the weight of zinc in the new alloy?

A. 59 kg  

B. 46 kg  

C. 64 kg  

D. 69 kg  

Solution

Given:

A = 60kg

B = 80kg

A = Zinc : Copper = 7 : 5

B = Zinc : Copper = 3 : 7

Solution:

Zinc in A = 60 x 7/12  = 35kg

Zinc in B = 80 x 3/10 = 24kg

Zinc in new alloy = 35 + 24 = 59kg

Hence, the correct option is 1.


4. A person travells120 km of distance with the speed of 40 km/h and 180 km distance with the speed of  20 km/h. What is his Average speed?

A. 20 km/h

B. 15 km/h

C. 25 km/h

D. 30 km/h

Solution

Given:

120 km distance with a speed of 40 km/h

And 180 km distance with the speed of 20 km/h

Formula used:

Relative speed = Total distance/total time

Time = Distance/Speed

Calculation:

T = 120/40 = 3 hr.

T2 = 180/20 = 9 hr.

Total distance = 120 + 180 = 300 km

Relative Speed = 300 Km/12 hr

⇒ 25 km/h


5. 5 men and 3 women together or 9 men can cultivate a land in 60 days. Then how many days 8 men and 9 women together cultivate the same land.

A. 23

B. 27

C. 25

D. 26

Solution

Given:

5 men and 3 women together or 9 men can cultivate a land in 60 days

Calculation:

According to the question,

(5m + 3w) = 9m

⇒ 3w = 4m

So, (8m + 9w) = 8m + 12m = 20m

9m can cultivate a land in 60 days

1m can cultivate a land in 60 × 9 days

20m can cultivate a land in (60 × 9)/20 days = 27 days.

Alternate Method(5m + 3w) × 60 = 9m × 60

⇒ m/w = 3/4

Total work = (5 × 3 + 3 × 4) × 60 = 27 × 60 =1620

Total efficiently of (8m + 9w) = 8 × 3 + 9 × 4 = 24 + 36 = 60

Required no of days = 1620/60 = 27 days


6. The following table shows the number of students in different streams in 5 departments. Study the table carefully and answer the question based on the table.

Stream Departments
ABCDE
Physics400500350300600
Chemistry750600700500450
Mathematics350400450500650
ComputerScience250300380550750


Find the ratio of students in departments A and B in physics, chemistry and Mathematics streams.

A. 3 ∶ 1

B. 2 ∶ 1

C. 1 ∶ 1

D. 1 ∶ 3

Solution

Given:

Students in Department A having PCM = 400 + 750 + 350 = 1500

Students in Department B having PCM = 500 + 600 + 400 = 1500

Solution:

Ratio = 1500 / 1500 = 1/1 = 1 : 1

Hence, the ratio of students in departments A and B in physics, chemistry and Mathematics streams is 1 : 1.


7. The given bar diagram represents the number of people taking insurance on the Y-axis and the year of purchase of the insurance policy on the X-axis.

Find the approximate percentage change in the number of people who took the policy in the year 2006 and the number of people who took the policy in the year 2004.

A. 18.4

B. 16.4

C. 18

D. 20

Solution

Given:

Years 200120022003200420052006
The number of people taking insurance on the Y-axis344042384145

8. Simplify the following expression.

79 – [6 – {4 – (8 × (6 + 3))}] ÷ 2

A. 11.5

B. 2.5

C. 37

D. 42

Solution

Given:

79 – [6 – {4 – (8 × (6 + 3))}] ÷ 2

Concept used:

Calculations:

⇒ 79 – [6 – {4 – (8 × (6 + 3))}] ÷ 2

⇒ 79 – [6 – {4 – (8 × (9))}] ÷ 2

⇒ 79 – [6 – {4 – (72)}] ÷ 2

⇒ 79 – [6 – {- 68))}] ÷ 2

⇒ 79 – [6 + 68] ÷ 2

⇒ 79 – 74 ÷ 2

⇒ 79 – 37

⇒ 42

∴ The Required simplified value is 42.


9. There are 24 lambs, 36 goats and 60 sheep and they have to be arranged in several rows so that every row contains the same number of animals of only one type. What is the minimum number of rows required for this to happen?

A. 11

B. 9

C. 10

D. 12

Solution

Given:

There are 24 lambs, 36 goats and 60 sheep

Arranged: In a way, every row contains the same number of animals of only one type.

Calculation:

We know the minimum number of rows we arranged the maximum number of animals in each row.

So, we have to calculate the HCF of 24, 36, 60

So, the HCF of 24, 36, and 60 is 12.

∴ Lambs row = 24/12 = 2

Goats row = 36/12 = 3

Sheeps row = 60/12 = 5

∴ Total number of rows = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10


10. When an article is sold at 20% discount, the selling price is Rs. 24. What is the selling price when the discount is 30%?

A. Rs. 25

B. Rs. 23

C. Rs. 21

D. Rs. 20

Solution

Given:

An article is sold at a 20% discount, the selling price is Rs. 24

Calculation:

According to the question

⇒ 80% = 24

Then, 70% = 

⇒ Rs. 21

∴ The required selling price is Rs. 21

Alternate Method

Formula used:

SP = {MP × (100 – D)}/100

Calculation:

According to the above concept,

SP = {MP × (100 – D)}/100

⇒ 24 = {MP × (100 – 20)}/100

⇒ 24 = (MP × 80/100)

⇒ MP = Rs. 30

Again using the same formula and considering D = 30%

SP = {MP × (100 – D)}/100

⇒ SP = {30 × (100 – 30)}/100

⇒ SP = (30 × 70/100)

⇒ SP = Rs. 21

∴ The required selling price is Rs. 21


11. Out of 6 numbers, the sum of the first 5 numbers is 7 times the 6th number. If their average is 136, then the 6th number is 

A. 102

B. 96

C. 84

D. 116

Solution

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of observation/No. of observation

Calculation:

Let the 6th number be x

Sum of first five numbers = 7x

Using the above formula –

⇒ 8x = 136 × 6 =  816

⇒ x = 816/8 = 102

∴ The correct answer is 102.


12. The average weight of students in a class was 58.5 kg. When 8 more students with average weight of 64.5 kg joined the class, then the average weight of all the students increased by 0.96 kg. What was the number of students, initially, in the class?

A. 40

B. 32

C. 37

D. 42

Solution

Given:

Average weight of students in a class = 58.5 kg

If 8 more students with average weight of 64.5 kg joined the class, then average weight of all the students increased by 0.96 kg

Formula used:

Average = Sum of the total weight of students/ Total number of students

Calculation:

Let the number of students initially in a class be x.

Average = Sum of the total weight of students/ Total number of students

58.5 =  Sum of the total weight of students/x

Sum of the total weight of students = 58.5x

If 8 more students with average weight of 64.5 kg joined the class then,

64.5 = Sum of the weight of 8 students/8

Sum of the weight of 8 students = 64.5 × 8 = 516

Now, After joining 8 students average weight increases 0.96 kg, then new average of total students = 58.5 + 0.96 = 59.46

Now, total number of students = (x + 8) 

Sum of x students + sum of 8 students = sum of total (x + 8) students

⇒ 58.5x + 516 = (x + 8)59.46

⇒ 58.5x + 516 = 59.46x + 475.68

⇒ 59.46x – 58.5x = 516 – 475.68 

⇒ 0.96x = 40.32

⇒ x = 40.32/0.96

⇒ x = 42

∴ The number of students initially in a class is 42.


13. If the interest rate is 25%, what will be the compound interest of  Rs 8800 , for 1 year, if the interest is compounded semi-annually (Half-yearly)?

A. 2557.5

B. 2337.5

C. 2735.5

D. 3337.5

Solution

Given:

The interest rate is 25% , Principal (P) = Rs 8800

The interest is compounded semi-annually (Half-yearly)

Formula Used: 

For Compound Interest , Amount =  P × (1+R/100)n   [P=  Principal , R= rate of interest]

Concept Used:

{Amount = Principal + Interest}

Interest is compounded semi-annually, so the rate of interest will be half of the yearly rate of interest.

Calculation:

The compound interest is Rs  2337.5


14. Two tables are bought for Rs. 2000 by a person. He sells them later, one at a loss of 5%, the other at a gain of 5% thereby incurring a loss of Rs. 20. What are the cost prices of the two tables?

A. Rs. 1300, Rs. 700

B. Rs. 1400, Rs. 600

C. Rs. 1050, Rs. 950

D. Rs. 1200, Rs. 800

Solution

Given:

Total cost price of two tables = Rs. 2000

Loss on the first table = 5%

Gain on the second table = 5%

Total loss incurred = Rs. 20

Formula Used:

Let the cost price of the first table be Rs. x.

Then, the cost price of the second table = Rs. (2000 – x).

Loss on the first table = 5% of x = 0.05x

Gain on the second table = 5% of (2000 – x) = 0.05(2000 – x)

Calculation:

According to the question:

Total loss = 0.05x – 0.05(2000 – x) = 20

Expand and simplify:

⇒ 0.05x – 100 + 0.05x = 20

⇒ 0.1x – 100 = 20

⇒ 0.1x = 120

⇒ x = 1200

Therefore, the cost price of the first table is Rs. 1200.

Cost price of the second table = 2000 – 1200 = 800

The cost prices of the two tables are Rs. 1200 and Rs. 800.


15. The volume of a cone is 98 cm3. If the height of the cone is 7 cm, then the area of the base is

A. 34 cm2

B. 21 cm3

C. 42 cm2

D. 46 cm2

Solution

Given:

Volume = 98 cm3

height = 7 cm

Concept used: 

Volume = 1/3 πr2h

Area of base = π r2

Calculation: 


16. The average of 7 consecutive odd numbers is 25 and the average of 4 even consecutive numbers is 27. Find the average of the lowest term of the odd series and the highest term of the even series?

A. 27.5

B. 24.5

C. 28.5

D. 29.5

Solution

Given:

The average of 7 consecutive odd numbers is 25

The average of 4 even consecutive numbers is 27

Concept Used:

In a series of odd numbers, the mean or average is the middle term.

In a series of even numbers, the mean or average is the average of the middle two terms.

Calculation:

Let the lowest odd number = 2n + 1

Then the series of 7 odd numbers is = (2n + 1 , 2n + 3 , 2n + 5 , 2n + 7 , 2n + 9, 2n + 11, and 2n + 13)

As per the question,

2n + 7 = 25

⇒ 2n = 25 – 7

​⇒ 2n = 18

​⇒ n = 9

The lowest term of odd series = 2n + 1

⇒ 2n + 1 = 2 × 9 + 1

⇒ 18 + 1

⇒ 19

Let the lowest even number, 2n

Then the series of 4 even numbers is = 2n , 2n + 2 , 2n + 4 and 2n + 6

Again, as per the question 

⇒ (2n + 2) + (2n + 4) = 27 × 2

⇒ 4n + 6 = 54

⇒ 4n = 54 – 6

⇒ 4n = 48

⇒ n = 48 / 4

⇒ n = 12

highest even number 2n + 6  = 30

The lowest term of odd series =  19

Average of these two = (30 + 19) / 2

⇒ 49 / 2

​⇒ 24.5

∴ The average of the lowest term of odd series and the highest term of even series is 24.5

Additional Information(2n + 1) is always an odd number for all values of n

2n is always an even number for all values of n.

Shortcut TrickIn a series of odd numbers the mean or average is the middle term.

So, the middle term is = 25

Then the series of  odd numbers is 19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31

In a series of even numbers, the mean or average is the average of the middle two terms.

Here average is given as 27.

So, The middle two terms are 27 – 1 = 26 and

27 + 1 = 28.

Then the series of 4 even numbers is = 24, 26, 28, 30

And the highest term = 30

So the average of 30 and 19 is = (30 + 19) / 2

⇒ 49 / 2 = 24.5


17. Simplify the following expression:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution

Given:

13/6 × {45/26 + 15/13 × (5/7 ÷ 25/14)}

Concept Used:

Calculations:


18. A sum of money became Rs. 2,700 in two years. If the simple interest offered per annum was 2% more, the amount would have become Rs. 2,800 during the same period. Find the originals sum and the rate of simple interest offered every year.

A. Rs. 5,000; 2%

B. Rs. 2,500; 8%

C. Rs. 2,500;4%

D. Rs. 5.000;4%

Solution

Formula used:

SI = (P × R × T)/100

SI = Amount – Principle

Calculation:

Let the original sum be x and rate be r

Difference in SI for 2 years = 2800 – 2700 = 100

SI2 – SI1 = (P2 × R2 × T2)/100 – (P1 × R1 × T1)/100

⇒ 2800 – 2700 = (x × 2 × (R2 – R1))/100

⇒ 100 × 100 = (x × 2 × 2)

⇒ x = 2500

Now, SI = Amount – Principle

⇒ 2700 – 2500 = 200

Time = 2 years and Rate = r %

SI = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 200 = (2500 × r × 2)/100

⇒ r = (200 × 100)/5000

⇒ r = 4 %

∴ Original sum is Rs 2500 and Rate is 4 %


19. The speed of a train is 78 km/h. It crosses a tunnel in 45 s and overtakes a person walking at a speed of 6 km/h, in the same direction, in 15 s. The length (in m) of the tunnel is:

A. 650

B. 780

C. 675

D. 975

Solution

Given:

The speed of a train is 78 km/h.

It crosses a tunnel in 45s and overtakes a person walking at a speed of 6 km/h, in the same direction, in 15s.

Concept used:

When a train crosses a person, it basically crosses its own length.

The relative speed when two objectives are moving in the same direction is the positive difference between their individual speeds. 

Distance =  Time × Speed

Kilometer per hour (kmph) = 3.6 × Meter per second (mps)

Calculation:

So,

The speed of the train = 78 kmph = 65/3 mps

The speed of the person = 6 kmph = 5/3 mps

Let the length of the train & tunnel be R & P meter respectively.

According to the question,
R + P = (65/3) × 45

⇒ R + P = 975      ….(1)

R = (65/3 – 5/3) × 15

⇒ R = 300      ….(2)

From (1) & (2),

P = 675

So, the length of the tunnel 675m.

∴ The length of the tunnel is 675m.


20. A cylinder whose internal radius is 7272 cm is filled with so much water inside this cylinder that when a sphere of maximum size is put inside it, it sinks the sphere completely. What was the depth of water before the sphere sank?

A. 7/3

B. 14/3

C. 17/7

D. 19/3

Solution

Given:

The internal radius of the cylindrical(r) = 7/2cm

Concept:

When the sphere is submerged in the water-filled cylinder, it displaces water equal to its volume.

Formula Used:

The volume of a cylinder = πr2h

The volume of a sphere =  4πR3/3

Calculation:

Since, We are putting a maximum-size sphere in the cylinder

So,

radius of sphere = radius of cylinder = 7/2 cm

Diameter of the sphere = Height of cylinder = 2 × 7/2 = 7 cm.

Now,

Let ‘h’ be the depth of water before the sphere sank.

So,

Volume of complete cylinder = Volume of cylinder with water + Volume of sphere

⇒ πr2× 7 = πr2h + 4/3πr3

⇒ πr2× 7 = πr2 (h + 4/3r)

⇒ 7 = h + 4/3 × 7/2

⇒ h = 7 – 14/3

⇒ h = (21 – 14)/3 = 7/3 cm

∴ The height of the cylindrical can before the sphere was put is 7/3cm


21. Select the related number from the given alternatives.

46 : 48 :: 54 : ?

A. 59

B. 40

C. 67

D. 62

Solution

Given:

​46 : 48 :: 54 : ?

Logic: First number’s[{(first digit) × (second digit)} × 2 = Second Number

In 46 : 48 →

⇒ 4 × 6 = 24 × 2 = 48

Similarly,

In 54 : ?

⇒ 5 × 4 = 20 × 2 = 40

Here, ’54 : 40′ is the correct pair as per the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option (2)”.


22. Which of the mathematical signs should be interchanged in the below equation to make it mathematically correct?

440 × 10 – 330 + 100 ÷ 5 = 214

A. – and ÷

B. + and ÷

C. + and ×

D. × and ÷

Solution

Given equation: 440 × 10 – 330 + 100 ÷ 5 = 214

Option (1) – and ÷

Changing the signs we get:

440 × 10 ÷ 330 + 100 – 5 = 214

440 × 0.03030 + 100 – 5 = 214

13.33 + 100 – 5 = 214

113.33 – 5 = 214

108.33 ≠ 214

Option (2) + and ÷

Changing the signs we get:

440 × 10 – 330 ÷ 100 + 5 = 214

440 × 10 – 3.3 + 5 = 214

4400 – 3.3 + 5 = 214

4405 – 3.3 = 214

4401.7 ≠ 214

Option (3) + and ×

Changing the signs we get:

440 + 10 – 330 × 100 ÷ 5 = 214

440 + 10 – 330 × 20 = 214

440 + 10 – 6600 = 214

450 – 6600 = 214

– 6150 ≠ 214

Option (4) × and ÷

Changing the signs we get:

440 ÷ 10 – 330 + 100 × 5 = 214

44 – 330 + 100 × 5 = 214

44 – 330+ 500 = 214

544 – 330 = 214

214 = 214

Hence, Option (4) is correct.


23. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)

(17, 54, 165)

(15, 48, 147)

A. (20, 63, 189)

B. (10, 63, 178)

C. (21, 66, 201)

D. (50, 153, 211)

Solution

The logic followed here is:-

(First number × 3) + 3 = Second number 

(Second number × 3) + 3 = Third number.

(17, 54, 165) → (17 × 3) + 3 = 51 + 3 = 54 and (54 × 3) + 3 = 162 + 3 = 165

And,

(15, 48, 147) → (15 × 3) + 3 = 45 + 3 = 48 and (48 × 3) + 3 = 144 + 3 = 147

Similarly,

(21, 66, 201) → ( 21 × 3) + 3 = 63 + 3 = 66 and (66 × 3) + 3 = 198 + 3 = 201

Hence, the correct answer is “(21, 66, 201)”.


24. Select the option that is related to the fifth letter- cluster in the same way as the second letter- cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter- cluster is related to the third letter- cluster.

DGI : LIE :: RUW : ZWS :: OSV : ?

A. PQR

B. YUP

C. YPU

D. VTX

Solution

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, ‘YUP’ is the correct answer.


25. In a certain code language, FROLIC is written as ROLIFC and LOBSTER is written as TSROLEB. How will MANGROVE be written in that language?

A. RVNOMGEA

B. VORMNGEA

C. VRONGMEA

D. VRONMGEA

Solution

FROLIC is written as ROLIFC.

and

LOBSTER is written as TSROLEB.

Similarly,

MANGROVE will be written as :

Hence, the correct answer is “VRONMGEA”.


26. A statement is followed by two conclusions. Find out which conclusion is true based on the given statement.

Statement:

R < S ≤  T ≤ U = V > W > X

Conclusions:

I. S = V

II. V > S 

A. Only conclusion II is true

B. Both conclusions I and II are true

C. Only conclusion I is true

D. Either conclusion I or II is true

Solution

Given Statement:- R < S ≤  T ≤ U = V > W > X

Conclusion:-

I. S = V → False (as S ≤  T ≤ U = V i.e S ≤ V No any direct relationship established between S and V)

II. V > S → False (as S ≤  T ≤ U = V i.e S ≤ V No any direct relationship established between V and S)

Combining both Conclusion I & II we get S ≤ V

So, the Conclusion I and II are complementary pair to each other so either or case is followed here.

Hence, the correct answer is “Either conclusion I or II is true”.

Additional Information3 Step to find Either or case: 

1. Elements are same.2. Combine the Conclusion.3. Check combined conclusion through gate method.


27. A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing North. S sits third to the left of Q. T sits fourth to the right of R. Only three persons sit between R and Q. Only two persons sit between P and R. If no other person is sitting in the row, what is the total number of persons seated? 

A. 12

B. 9

C. 10

D. 11

Solution

Given:

A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing North.

1) T sits fourth to the right of R.

2) Only three persons sit between R and Q.

3) S sits third to the left of Q.

4) Only two persons sit between P and R.

Case I:

Case II:

In both case total 12 people are sitting in the row.

Hence, Total “12” people are sitting in the row.


28. Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is not allowed).

A.

B. ​​

C.

D. ​

Solution

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, “Option 4″ is the correct answer.


29. In a certain code, DEAF is written as 3587 and FILE is written as 7465. How is IDEAL written in that code?

A. 63648 

B. 63854 

C. 43586 

D. 43568

Solution

The logic followed here is:-

Similarly,

Hence, “option 3” is the correct answer.


30. Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

OA, LG, IM, FS, ?

A. CY

B. DY

C. CX

D. CZ

Solution

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The logic follows here is: 

Hence, the correct answer is “CY”.


31. Seven friends, Subhi, Prince, Ketan, Vishal, Mahima, Krish and Naitik, are sitting around a circular table with their backs towards the centre. Subhi is sitting to the immediate right of Prince. Naitik and Krish are not sitting to the immediate left or right of Vishal. Vishal is sitting third to the left of Prince. Mahima is sitting to the immediate right of Vishal. Who is sitting third to the right of Prince?

A. Naitik

B. Krish

C. Ketan

D. Mahima

Solution

Given:

Seven friends sitting around a circular table with their backs towards the centre this means they are facing outside the centre: Subhi, Prince, Ketan, Vishal, Mahima, Krish and Naitik,

1) Subhi is sitting to the immediate right of Prince.

2) Vishal is sitting third to the left of Prince.

3) Mahima is sitting to the immediate right of Vishal.

4) Naitik and Krish are not sitting to the immediate left or right of Vishal.

Only Ketan is left so the final sitting arrangement is:

Thus, “Ketan” is sitting third to the right of Prince.


32. In a certain code language,

‘find my book’ is coded as ‘tu en li’,

‘my new house’ is coded as ‘ab uv tu’,

‘book house tomorrow’ is coded as ‘li mo ab’.

(Note: All codes are two letter codes only)

What is the probable code for ‘new tomorrow’ in the given code language? 

A. ab li

B. mo uv

C. en tu

D. uv ab

Solution

In tabular form, the data can be represented as follows:

codeword
en        find
tumy
libook
uvnew
ab house
motomorrow

Code for ” new tomorrow” will be coded as ” uv mo”

Hence, the correct answer is “option (2)”.


33. Six colleagues Vansh, Priya, Sam, Krish, Dipa and John are sitting around a circular table for lunch. Only two friends are sitting between Krish and Dipa. John and Sam are not the neighbours of Krish. Sam is sitting immediately to the left of Dipa and Priya is sitting immediately to the right of Krish.

Who is sitting second to the left of Sam?

A. Priya

B. John

C. Vansh

D. Krish

Solution

As per the given information:

1. Six colleagues Vansh, Priya, Sam, Krish, Dipa, and John sit around a circular lunch table.

2. Only two friends are sitting between Krish and Dipa.

Case (1)

3. Sam is sitting immediately to the left of Dipa and Priya is sitting immediately to the right of Krish.

4. John and Sam are not neighbors of Krish.

Here, Krish is sitting second to the left of Sam as per the given information.

Hence, the correct answer is “Krish”.


34. Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern. (No rotation allowed)

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option (2)”.


35. Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed to its right side.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to its right side is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 2‘ is the correct answer.


36. In a certain code language, if TUBERCULOSIS is written as TSFCBQMVRNTJ, how will INFLUENZA be written in that code language?

A. ILMGDTAOZ

B. MHMGDTAOZ

C. MHMGFTAOZ

D. MGMHDTAOZ

Solution

The logic followed here is:

As we have seen in the diagram, every two consecutive letters are replaced by the nearest letter of the alphabet according to the pattern. 

Hence, the correct answer is “MHMGDTAOZ”.


37. Which two numbers, from amongst the given options, should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

(2)3 ÷ 4 + (72 ÷ 6) × 9 – (21 × 3) + (15 × 7) = 92

A. 6 and 3

B. 3 and 7

C. 3 and 9

D. 6 and 9

Solution

Here, we need to interchange the numbers to make the given equation correct.

Given: (2)3 ÷ 4 + (72 ÷ 6) × 9 – (21 × 3) + (15 × 7) = 92

First we will apply each options one by one as shown below:

1) 6 and 3

⇒⇒ (2)3 ÷ 4 + (72 ÷ 3) × 9 – (21 × 6) + (15 × 7) = 92

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒⇒ 8 ÷ 4 + 24  × 9 – 126 + 105 = 92

⇒⇒ 2 + 216 – 126 + 105 = 92

⇒⇒ 197 = 92, is not possible. This option is not true.

2) 3 and 7

⇒⇒ (2)3 ÷ 4 + (72 ÷ 6) × 9 – (21 × 7) + (15 × 3) = 92

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒⇒ 8 ÷ 4 + 12  × 9 – 147 + 45 = 92

⇒⇒ 2 + 108 – 147 + 45 = 92

⇒⇒ 8 = 92, is not possible. This option is not true.

3) 3 and 9

⇒⇒ (2)3 ÷ 4 + (72 ÷ 6) × 3 – (21 × 9) + (15 × 7) = 92

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒⇒ 8 ÷ 4 + 12 × 3 – 189 + 105 = 92

⇒⇒ 2 + 36 – 189 + 105 = 92

⇒⇒ -46 = 92, is not possible. This option is not true.

4) 6 and 9 

⇒⇒ (2)3 ÷ 4 + (72 ÷ 9) × 6 – (21 × 3) + (15 × 7) = 92

Applying BODMAS rule, we will get,

⇒⇒ 8 ÷ 4 + 8 × 6 – 63 + 105 = 92

⇒⇒ 2 + 48 – 63 + 105 = 92

⇒⇒ 92 = 92, is possible. This option is true.

Hence, the correct answer is ‘6 and 9‘.

Confusion Point: Keep in mind to apply BODMAS rule, while solving these type of problems.


38. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

21, 22, 26, 35, 51, 76, ?

A. 112

B. 140 

C. 114 

D. 110

Solution

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is “112”.


39. In the following question, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of :: and one word is given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.

Quartz : Radio :: Gypsum : ?

A. Glass

B. Porcelain

C. Cement

D. Powder

Solution

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first word is a crucial component or part of the second word.

Here,

Quartz : Radio → Quartz is a crucial component of Radio.

Similarly,

Gypsum : Cement → Gypsum is a crucial component of Cement.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3“.


40. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All chairs are pens.

Some pens are shoes.

Some shoes are desks.

Conclusions:

(I) Some desks are chairs.

(II) Some shoes are chairs.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

C. Only conclusion II follows

D. Both conclusions I and II follow

Solution

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:-

Conclusions:

I. Some desks are chairs → Does not follow (as all chairs are pens and some shoes are desk but, there is no definite relationship between chairs and desk so some desks are chairs does not follow)

II. Some shoes are chairs → Does not follow (as all chairs are pens and some pens are shoes but, there is no definite relationship between shoes and chairs so some shoes are chairs does not follow) 

Hence, the correct answer is “Neither Conclusion I nor II follow”.


41. Provisions of Directive Principles of State policy are under:

A. Articles 36-51 

B. Articles 32-45

C. Articles 32-42

D. Articles 32-52

Solution

The correct answer is Articles 36-51.

Key Points

  • The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to establish India as a welfare state.
  • These principles are enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution of India and are intended to guide the state in formulating policies and laws.
  • They emphasize social and economic democracy, aiming to reduce inequalities and ensure a decent standard of living for all citizens.
  • Key areas include providing adequate means of livelihood, equal pay for equal work, protection of children and youth, and securing a social order based on justice and equality.

Additional Information

  • The Directive Principles are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court, but they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
  • The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • The principles are inspired by the Irish Constitution and the objective is to create a social framework that supports the well-being of all citizens.
  • Though non-justiciable, the principles act as a moral compass for the state in creating laws and policies aimed at social welfare and public good.
  • The implementation of these principles is seen as crucial for achieving the goals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution.

42. Which Indian port ranked highest in the Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) 2023?

A. Mundra Port

B. Pipavav Port

C. Visakhapatnam Port

D. Kamarajar Port

Solution

The correct answer is Visakhapatnam Port.

In News

  • Visakhapatnam Port ranked at 19 in the Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) 2023.

Key Points

  • Visakhapatnam Port significantly improved its ranking from 115 in 2022 to 19 in 2023, making it the top-ranked Indian port.
  • The Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) is developed by the World Bank and S&P Global Market Intelligence.
  • The CPPI measures the resilience, efficiency, and overall performance of ports globally.
  • Other top-ranked Indian ports in the list include Mundra Port at 27, Pipavav at 41, and Kamarajar at 47.

Additional Information

  • Performance Metrics
  • Visakhapatnam Port showcased strong performance with 27.5 moves per crane hour.
  • The port had a turnaround time (TRT) of 21.4 hours and minimal berth idle time.
  • These metrics highlight the port’s efficiency in handling container ships and significantly influence customer preference.
  • The success of Indian ports is attributed to the Sagarmala programme aimed at modernising and improving port efficiency.

43. Which entity is partnering with the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and SIDBI to transform Fair Price Shops into ‘Jan Poshan Kendras’?

A. Udaan

B. Unayaan

C. PoshanKosh

D. Utkarsh

Solution

The correct answer is udaan

Key Points

  • udaan is partnering with the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, and SIDBI.
  • The initiative aims to transform Fair Price Shops into ‘Jan Poshan Kendras’.
  • The partnership focuses on enhancing dealer incomes and improving nutrition.
  • The pilot includes 60 shops in four states, with plans to expand to 1.3 lakh shops.

Important Points

  • Jan Poshan Kendras: These are transformed Fair Price Shops providing diverse, nutrition-dense products beyond Public Distribution System (PDS) items.
  • udaan: An eB2B platform facilitating access to a wide range of food products for the Jan Poshan Kendras.
  • SIDBI: The Small Industries Development Bank of India provides credit facilities to support the initiative.
  • Pilot States: Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, and Gujarat are the initial states involved in the pilot project.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution: Responsible for ensuring food security and public distribution policies in India.
  • SIDBI: Provides financial support and credit facilities to small businesses and industries.
  • Fair Price Shops: Government-operated shops that provide subsidized food items to the public.
  • Expansion Plans: The initiative aims to cover 1.3 lakh shops across India after successful validation.

44. Who was named Men’s Player of the Year at the AIFF Awards 2025?

A. Khalid Jamil

B. Vishal Kaith

C. Subhasish Bose

D. Soumya Guguloth

Solution

The correct answer is Subhasish Bose.

In News

  • Subhasish Bose was named Men’s Player of the Year at the AIFF Awards 2025.

Key Points

  • Subhasish Bose was honored as the Men’s Player of the Year at the AIFF Awards 2025.
  • Soumya Guguloth claimed the Women’s Player of the Year award.
  • Khalid Jamil and Sujata Kar received the Best Men’s and Women’s Coach awards, respectively.
  • Vishal Kaith and Elangbam Panthoi Chanu were honored as the Best Goalkeepers in their categories.

Additional Information

  • AIFF Awards
    • The AIFF (All India Football Federation) Awards are annual honors given to recognize outstanding performances in Indian football.
    • These awards celebrate individual achievements, coaching excellence, and goalkeeping performances in both men’s and women’s football.
  • Subhasish Bose’s Performance
    • Subhasish Bose was recognized for his consistent and remarkable contributions to Indian football over the past year.

45. As of March 2022, which of the following dance forms is in the category of a classical dance by the Sangeet Natak Akademi?

A. Bihu

B. Kalbeliya

C. Ghoomar

D. Manipuri

Solution

The correct answer is Manipuri

Key Points

  • Sangeet Natak Akademi:-
    • It is the national academy of music, dance, and drama in India.
    • It was established in 1953 by the Government of India to promote and preserve the performing arts of India.
    • The Akademi is headquartered in New Delhi, India, and has branches in all major cities of India.
    • As of March 2022, the Sangeet Natak Akademi has recognized eight Indian dances as classical dance forms:
      • Bharatanatyam
      • Kathak
      • Kuchipudi
      • Odissi
      • Kathakali
      • Sattriya
      • Manipuri
      • Mohiniyattam

Additional Information

  • 8 Classical Dances of India and States: 
DanceState
BharatanatyamTamil Nadu
KathakUttar Pradesh
KathakaliKerala.
KuchipudiAndhra Pradesh.
OdissiOdisha
SattriyaAssam
ManipuriManipur
MohiniyattamKerala

46. Which of these books is a memoir by neurosurgeon Paul Kalanithi detailing his life and battle with lung cancer?

A. ‘The Emperor of All Maladies’

B. ‘The Immortal Life of Henrietta Lacks’

C. When Breath Becomes Air’

D. ‘The Gene: An Intimate History

Solution

The correct answer is When Breath Becomes Air’.

Key Points

  • Paul Sudhir Arul Kalanithi:
    • It was an American neurosurgeon and writer.
    • His book When Breath Becomes Air is a memoir about his life and illness with stage IV metastatic lung cancer.
    • It was posthumously published by Random House in January 2016.

Additional Information

Book TitleAuthor
“The Emperor of All Maladies”Siddhartha Mukherjee
“The Immortal Life of Henrietta Lacks”Rebecca Skloot
“The Gene: An Intimate History”Siddhartha Mukherjee

47. Which of the following states has the lowest density of population in India?

A. Mizoram

B. Sikkim

C. Nagaland

D. Arunachal Pradesh

Solution

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Arunachal Pradesh:
    • ​It has the lowest density of population.
    • Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density with 17 persons per sq.km, whereas our national capital has the highest population density with 11,320 persons per sq.km.
    • The Census of India 2011 was organized in two stages as trails House listing and Housing Census and Population Enumeration.
    • The population of India has been augmented by more than 181 million during the decade 2001-2011.
    • As per the 2011 Census population report of India is pegged at 1.21 billion, a surge of more than 181 million in the last 10 years. Here we are giving the key facts and data of the Census of India.

Additional Information

  • Census 2021
    • The next census of India to be conducted in 2021 with March 1, 2021 as the reference date, except for the states of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
    • The Census 2021 will be conducted in 18 languages out of the 22 scheduled languages (under 8th schedule) and English, while Census 2011 was in 16 of the 22 scheduled languages declared at that time.
    • It also will introduce a code directory to streamline the process
    • The option of “Other” under the gender category will be changed to “Third Gender”.
    • There were roughly 5 lakh people under the “other” category in 2011.
    • For the first time in the 140 year history of the census in India, data is proposed to be collected through a mobile app by enumerators and they will receive an additional payment as an incentive.
    • The Census data would be available by the year 2024-25 as the entire process would be conducted digitally and data crunching would be quicker.
    • Theme: “Jan Bhagidari se Jan Kalyan”

48. Which Indian Naval Ship (INS) provided urgent medical assistance to a Pakistani crew member aboard a fishing vessel in the Central Arabian Sea in April 2025?

A. INS Talwar

B. INS Trikand

C. INS Teg

D. INS Shivalik

Solution

The correct answer is INS Trikand.

In News

  • On 4th April 2025, Indian Navy’s stealth frigate INS Trikand provided critical medical assistance to a severely injured Pakistani crew member in the Central Arabian Sea, approximately 350 nautical miles east of the Oman coast.

Key Points

  • INS Trikand intercepted a distress call from Iranian dhow Al Omeedi regarding a crew member transferred to FV Abdul Rehman Hanzia.
  • The injured Pakistani (Baloch) national had suffered multiple hand fractures and severe blood loss.
  • INS Trikand’s Medical Officer and MARCOS team conducted a 3-hour surgical procedure onboard the vessel.
  • The intervention prevented permanent damage and provided follow-up medical supplies including antibiotics.

Additional Information

  • INS Trikand
    • Stealth frigate of the Indian Navy, part of the Talwar-class.
    • Equipped for maritime surveillance, humanitarian assistance, and combat roles.
  • MARCOS (Marine Commandos)
    • Special operations unit of the Indian Navy.
    • Deployed with medical and boarding teams for critical missions.
  • Humanitarian Assistance at Sea
    • INS Trikand’s response aligns with India’s commitment to maritime cooperation and humanitarian aid.
    • The Pakistani and Iranian crew expressed deep gratitude for the life-saving intervention.

49. Which campaign was launched by the Women and Child Development Ministry to eliminate child marriages in India?

A. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao

B. Shakti Yojana

C. Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat

D. Kishori Shakti Abhiyan

Solution

The correct answer is Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat.

In News

  • The Women and Child Development Ministry launched the “Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat” campaign to eliminate child marriages.

Key Points

  • The campaign focuses on high-burden states where child marriage rates are significantly above the national average.
  • Approximately 200,000 child marriages were prevented in the past year as part of this initiative.
  • The goal is to reduce child marriage rates to below 5% by 2029.
  • The campaign prioritizes seven states: West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Tripura, Assam, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Nearly 300 districts across India report child marriage rates above the national average.
  • Child marriage impacts one in five girls in India before they reach the legal age of 18.
  • The initiative aims to engage all states and Union Territories to implement targeted action plans.

Additional Information

  • Child Marriage in India:
    • Approximately one in five girls in India is married before the age of 18.
    • Child marriage limits educational, health, and economic opportunities for girls.
  • Legal Measures:
    • The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, prohibits child marriages in India.
    • Various government schemes such as Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana aim to uplift and protect girl children.

50. Ustad Vilayat Khan was related to the musical instrument called ________.

A. tabla

B. sarod

C. sarangi

D. sitar

Solution

The correct answer is sitar.

Key Points

  • Ustad Vilayat Khan was one of India’s most well-known Sitar maestros.
  • He was born into a family of musicians from the Etawah Gharana, and his lineage extends back six generations.
  • Vilayat Khan’s style of playing, known as gayaki ang, is famed for imitating the human voice through the instrument, making it sing.
  • Ustad Vilayat Khan greatly influenced the musical world and contributed significantly to the development and global recognition of the sitar and Indian classical music.
  • He is credited with innovating the “surbahar“, a bass version of the sitar.

Additional Information

  • He earned numerous awards and accolades throughout his lifetime, both nationally and internationally, for his mastery and contribution to the field of music.
  • These include the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan – two of India’s most prestigious awards.
  • He also composed music for several Indian films including Satyajit Ray’s “Jalsaghar”.
  • Despite his huge contribution to Indian music, Khan turned down the national title of “Padma Vibhushan”, India’s second-highest civilian honor, because he believed that his audience and music lovers were his biggest award and honor.

51. Bhupen Hazarika was one of the most well-known personalities from the state of ______.

A. Odisha

B. Assam

C. Nagaland

D. Manipur

Solution

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

  • Bhupen Hazarika was a legendary figure from Assam, known for his contribution to music, cinema, and literature.
  • He was a playback singer, lyricist, musician, poet, and filmmaker, renowned for his works in Assamese cinema.
  • Bhupen Hazarika is often referred to as the ‘Bard of Brahmaputra’ because of his deep connection with the river and his impactful songs about it.
  • His songs are known for their socio-political themes, often addressing issues of humanity and universal brotherhood.

Additional Information

  • Assam
    • Assam is a state in northeastern India known for its rich culture, tea plantations, and biodiversity.
    • The state is home to the mighty Brahmaputra River, which plays a crucial role in the lives of the people and the state’s economy.
    • Assam has a diverse population with numerous ethnic groups and languages, and its capital is Dispur.
    • The state celebrates various traditional festivals, including Bihu, which marks the Assamese New Year and is celebrated with much fervor.
  • Bhupen Hazarika’s Contributions
    • He was awarded several prestigious awards, including the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, Padma Shri, and Padma Bhushan.
    • Hazarika’s music and films often highlighted the culture and issues of Assam and the northeastern region of India.
    • He was also a prominent politician and served as a member of the Assam Legislative Assembly.
    • His legacy continues to inspire and influence artists and activists in India and beyond.

52. The Buddha attained enlightenment under which tree?

A. Mango

B. Banyan

C. Peepal

D. Neem

Solution

The correct answer is – Peepal

Key Points

  • Peepal Tree
    • The Buddha, also known as Siddhartha Gautama, attained enlightenment under the Peepal tree, which is also known as the Bodhi tree.
    • This event is said to have occurred in Bodh Gaya, India.
    • The term “Bodhi” means “awakening” or “enlightenment” in Sanskrit and Pali.
    • The Bodhi tree is considered sacred in Buddhism and symbolizes wisdom and enlightenment.

Additional InformationNoble Eightfold Path:

  • A practical guide to ethical and mental development.

Consists of:

  • Right Understanding (Sammā Ditthi).
  • Right Intention (Sammā Sankappa).
  • Right Speech (Sammā Vācā).
  • Right Action (Sammā Kammanta).
  • Right Livelihood (Sammā Ājīva).
  • Right Effort (Sammā Vāyāma).
  • Right Mindfulness (Sammā Sati).
  • Right Concentration (Sammā Samādhi).

53. Which of the following provides a definite shape to cells?

A. Nucleus

B. Membrane

C. Mitochondria

D. Ribosomes 

Solution

The correct answer is Membrane.

Key Points

  • Cell Membrane:-
    • This is the outermost covering of the cell that separates the contents of the cell from it’s external environment.
    • It allows or permits the entry and exit of some materials in and out of the cell.
    • It also prevents the movement of some other materials.
    • It is also called a selectively permeable membrane.

Additional Information

  • Nucleus:-
    • The nucleus plays a central role in cellular reproduction, the process by which a single cell divides and forms two new cells.
    • It has a double-layered covering membrane called a nuclear membrane.
    • The nuclear membrane has pores that allow the transfer of material from inside the nucleus to its outside.
  • Mitochondria:-
    • It is known as the powerhouse of the cell.
    • They have two membrane coverings.
    • The outer membrane is porous while the inner membrane is deeply folded.
  • Ribosomes:-
    • Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis. They translate messenger RNA (mRNA) into proteins.
    • Ribosomes are not membrane-bound organelles. They are made up of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
    • They can be found floating freely in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum (forming rough ER).

54. What is the path of an object when it is in uniform motion?

A. A circle

B. A straight line

C. A parabola

D. An ellipse

Solution

The correct answer is A straight line.

Key Points

  • In uniform motion, an object travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.
  • The velocity of the object remains constant throughout the motion.
  • The path of an object in uniform motion is a straight line because the direction does not change.
  • Uniform motion implies that there is no acceleration involved in the movement of the object.
  • This type of motion is an ideal concept often used in physics to simplify complex motion scenarios.

Additional Information

  • Non-uniform Motion
    • In non-uniform motion, the object travels unequal distances in equal intervals of time.
    • This type of motion involves changes in speed and/or direction, leading to acceleration.
  • Accelerated Motion
    • In accelerated motion, the velocity of the object changes over time.
    • This can involve an increase or decrease in speed and can also include changes in direction.
  • Circular Motion
    • In circular motion, an object moves along the circumference of a circle.
    • This type of motion involves a constant change in direction, leading to centripetal acceleration.

55. Which of the following is commonly used as a disinfectant in household cleaning?

A. Sodium chloride

B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. Hydrogen peroxide

D. Potassium nitrate

Solution

The correct answer is Hydrogen peroxide.

Key Points

  • Hydrogen peroxide is commonly used as a household disinfectant for its antiseptic properties.
  • It is effective in killing bacteria, viruses, and fungi, making it a versatile cleaning agent for surfaces and wounds.
  • Hydrogen peroxide is environmentally friendly as it breaks down into water and oxygen, leaving no harmful residues.
  • Common concentrations for household use are 3% hydrogen peroxide solutions, which are safe for cleaning purposes.
  • It can be used to disinfect kitchen and bathroom surfaces, cutting boards, and even to whiten laundry safely.

Additional Information

  • Antiseptic Properties
    • Hydrogen peroxide is used for its antimicrobial properties to clean minor cuts and scrapes.
    • It works by releasing oxygen when it comes into contact with tissue, causing bubbles that help to remove dead skin and clean the area.
  • Environmental Impact
    • Unlike chlorine-based cleaners, hydrogen peroxide decomposes into harmless substances, making it an eco-friendly choice.
    • This characteristic ensures it does not contribute to environmental pollution.
  • Safety Precautions
    • Though generally safe, it should be handled with care to avoid irritation to skin and eyes.
    • Higher concentrations of hydrogen peroxide can be corrosive and should be used with appropriate safety measures.
  • Alternative Uses
    • It can also be used as a teeth whitener when diluted properly.
    • Hydrogen peroxide is often used in gardening to combat root rot and mildew.
  • Storage and Stability
    • Hydrogen peroxide should be stored in a cool, dark place to maintain its stability.
    • Exposure to light and heat can cause it to decompose, reducing its effectiveness.

56. Which is believed to be the only floating national park in the world?

A. Kishtwar National Park

B. Khangchendzonga National Park

C. Keibul Lamjao National Park

D. Khirganga National Park

Solution

The correct answer is Keibul Lamjao National Park.

  • Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India.
  • The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis.
  • The park which was initially declared to be a sanctuary in 1966, was subsequently declared to be a national park in 1977 through a gazette notification.
  • Kishtwar National Park is a national park located in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir, India.
  • Khangchendzonga National Park also Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a National Park and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim, India.
  • Khirganga National Park is a national park in Himachal Pradesh, India established in 2010.
  • Jim Corbett National Park is a forested wildlife sanctuary in northern India’s Uttarakhand State.

57. Mithali Raj played her last international match against which team?

A. West Indies

B. England

C. New Zealand

D. South Africa

Solution

The correct answer is South Africa.

Key Points

Last international match:

  • Mithali Raj played her last international match against South Africa on March 27, 2022, held at Christchurch in ICC women’s ODI World Cup 2022.
  • She scored 68 runs in that match.
  • India lost by 3 wickets in that match.
  • She played her last IT20 match against England in Guwahati on March 09, 2019.
  • On June 8, 2022, she announced her retirement from international cricket.

Additional Information Records hold by Mithali raj:

  • She holds the record of second highest score by women cricketers in test matches.
  • She holds the record for the highest fifty-plus score in international cricket 64 times.
  • She is the only women cricketer to represent a nation 6 times in the ODI World Cup.
  • The first Indian player to score 2000 runs in international T20 cricket.
  • At present she holds the record of the highest ODI matches played by women cricketers with 232 matches
  • She holds the record of highest runs in ODI cricket with 7805 runs.

58. When is the International Women’s Day celebrated?

A. 20th March

B. 8th March

C. 2nd February

D. 28th February

Solution

The correct answer is 8 March.

Key Points

  • International Women’s Day is celebrated on 8th March every year.
  • It was officially announced by the United Nations in 1977.
  • It is one of the important days of the year:
    • Celebrate women’s achievements
    • Raise awareness about women’s equality
    • Celebrate tech women and innovation 
    • Applaud equality for women in sports 
    • Educate women on health choice decisions
    • Forge women’s empowerment worldwide

Additional Information

  • There are three colors that symbolize International Women’s Day.
    • Purple signifies justice and dignity.
    • Green symbolizes hope.
    • White represents purity.
  •  The colors originated from the Women’s Social and Political Union (WSPU) in the UK in 1908.
  • The campaign theme for International Women’s Day 2021 is ‘ #ChooseToChallenge’.
    •  A challenging world is an alert world. 
    • Raise your hand high is the social media theme to participate in the campaign of International Women’s Day 2021.

Important Points

  • The First National Women’s Day was celebrated in the United States on 28th February.
  • About United Nations:
    • ​founded:24 October 1945
    • Headquarters: New York, United States
    • Secretary-general: António Guterres

59. Dr. Annie Besant and Lokmanya Tilak set up the _____ in the country modeled on the Irish movement to spread awareness.

A. Satyagraha

B. Indian National Congress

C. Home Rule league

D. Gadar Party

Solution

The correct answer is Home Rule league

Key Points

  • Home Rule League:-
    • He was an Indian political organization that campaigned for self-governance for India within the British Empire.
    • It was founded in 1916 by two prominent Indian nationalists, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant.
    • The Home Rule League was active for about two years, and it played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.
    • Annie Besant’s Home Rule League was centered in Madras, India. 

Additional Information

  • Annie Besant:-
    • She was a British socialist, theosophist, freemason, women’s rights and Home Rule activist, educationist, and campaigner for Indian nationalism.
    • She was an ardent supporter of both Irish and Indian self-rule.
    • She is the First Female President of the Indian National Congress in 1917.

60. Prior to 1967, which of the following languages was NOT considered as an official language of India?

A. Konkani

B. Malayalam

C. Gujarati

D. Kannada

Solution

The correct answer is Konkani.

Key Points

  • Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were added to the list of languages in the Indian Constitution in 1992 by the 71st amendment of the constitution.
  • The 21st Amendment Act, of 1967 amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Sindhi as one of the languages.
  • Konkani
    • Konkani is an Indo-Aryan language spoken by the Konkani people, primarily along the western coastal region of India.
    • It is the official language of the Indian state of Goa.
    • The first Konkani inscription is dated 1187 A.D.

Additional Information

  • Malayalam is a Dravidian language spoken in the Indian state of Kerala and the union territories of Lakshadweep and Puducherry by the Malayali people.
    • It was designated as a “Classical Language of India” in 2013.
  • Gujarati is an Indo-Aryan language native to the Indian state of Gujarat and spoken predominantly by the Gujarati people.
  • Kannada is a Dravidian language spoken predominantly by the people of Karnataka and by linguistic minorities in the states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Kerala, and Goa.
    • It was designated as a “Classical Language of India” in 2008.
  • All three above languages were part of the 14 languages that were initially included in the eighth schedule of the Constitution in 1950.

61. Vesara is a combination of Nagara and Dravidian style of temple architecture that originated in the state of Karnataka. Which of the following dynasty has built this temple?

A. Chalukya Dynasty

B. Chandela Dynasty

C. Chola Dynasty

D. Pallava Dynasty

Solution

The correct answer is Chalukya Dynasty.

Key Points

  • The temple architecture in Vesara combines the Nagara and Dravidian architectural styles.
  • The trend was started by the Chalukyas of Badami (500–753 AD), who built temples in a style that was essentially vesara style.
  • The Rashtrakutas of Manyakheta (750–983 AD) in Ellora, the Chalukyas of Kalyani (983–1195 AD) in Lakkundi, Dambal, Gadag, etc., further developed the trend, and the Hoysalas epitomized it. 
  • Unique characteristics of temple architecture in the Vesara style:
    • A Chalukyan temple’s decoration of the walls and pillars demonstrates its indigenous quality.
    • By reducing the height of each story and placing them in descending sequence of height from base to top with significant embellishment in each floor, the Chalukyan builders changed the Dravida towers.
    • A variation to the tower’s vertical design may be seen in place of inclined stories.
    • There are two different roof styles on the mandapa: dome ceilings and square ceilings.
    • The Chalukya temples‘ small ornamental pillars are works of art in and of themselves.
  • Kallesvara temple, Ramalingesvara temple, Mahadeva temple, and Kasivisvesvara temple are examples of vesara architecture.

Additional Information

  • Dravida style of temple architecture:
    • The Pallavas ruled over parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and northern Tamil Nadu until the ninth century.
    • They are credited with developing the Dravidian style of temple architecture in South India.
    • Kailashnath temple at Ellora is a famous example
  • Nagara Style or North India Temple style:
    • In Madhya Pradesh, one may find temples made in the Nagara style that has survived since the Gupta Period.
    • Examples of Nagara-style of temples in India are Sun temple, Konark, Sun temple at Modhera(Gujarat), and Ossian temple(Rajasthan) .

62. Which Committee had suggested a penalty or punishment for the non-performance of Fundamental Duties?

A. Indira Gandhi Committee

B. Morarji Desai Committee

C. Verma Committee

D. Swaran Singh Committee

Solution

The correct answer is Swaran Singh Committee.

Key Points

  • The Swaran Singh Committee was constituted by the Government of India in 1976.
  • It was formed to study the Constitution of India and suggest amendments.
  • One of the notable recommendations was the inclusion of a list of Fundamental Duties for the citizens of India.
  • The committee suggested that there should be a penalty or punishment for the non-performance of these duties.
  • Based on its recommendations, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 was enacted, which added the Fundamental Duties to the Constitution under Article 51A.

Additional Information

AmendmentDescription
42nd Amendment Act, 1976Known as the “Mini-Constitution”, it made significant changes to the Constitution, including the addition of Fundamental Duties.
Article 51ASpecifies the Fundamental Duties of the citizens of India, encouraging respect for the Constitution, national symbols, and promoting harmony.
Penalty for Non-PerformanceAlthough suggested by the Swaran Singh Committee, no direct penalty or punishment was incorporated for non-performance of Fundamental Duties.
Constitutional AmendmentsThe introduction of Fundamental Duties was part of broader efforts to amend the Constitution to address emerging challenges and strengthen the nation’s fabric.
Current ScenarioAs of now, Fundamental Duties are considered moral obligations for all citizens but are not enforceable by law.

63. Which of the following can be used as an instant energy booster?

A. Garlic

B. Coriander

C. Lemon

D. Banana

Solution

The correct answer is Banana.

Key Points

  • Banana provides an instant, sustained, and substantial energy boost to your physical and mental condition.
  • Bananas also help you to refresh your mental state and fight depression.
  • This is because it contains tryptophan, a type of protein that the body converts into serotonin, known to make you relax and improve your mood.

Additional Information

  • Garlic:
    • Garlic (Allium sativum) is an herb related to onion, leeks, and chives.
    • It is commonly used for conditions related to the heart and blood system.
  • Coriander:
    • Coriander is a plant. Both the leaves and fruit (seeds) of coriander are used as food and medicine.
    • However, the term “coriander” is typically used to refer to the fruit. 
  • Lemon:
    • Lemons are a popular fruit that people use in small quantities to add flavor to food.
    • However, they rarely consume them alone due to their intense, sour taste.

64. With which of the following festivals is Prabhat Pheri associated?

A. Diwali

B. Gurpurab

C. Holi

D. Gandhi Jayanti

Solution

The correct answer is Gurpurab.

Key Points

  • Prabhat Pheris are early morning processions that begin at the Gurudwaras and proceed around the localities singing hymns.
  • Generally, two days before the Gurpurab, Akhand Path (a forty-eight-hour non-stop reading of the Guru Granth Sahib, the holy book of the Sikhs) is held in the Gurdwaras.

Additional Information

  • Guru Nanak is the founder of the Sikh religion.
  • Guru Nanak was born on 15th Apr 1469 at Talwandi (present-day Nankana Sahib) in Pakistan.
  • His birthplace is marked by Gurdwara Janam Asthan.
  • He is considered the first of the ten Sikh Gurus.
  • His Birthday is celebrated worldwide as Gurpurab.
  • He died on 22nd September 1539.

65. The folk dance Hojagiri originated and is associated with which part of India?

A. South

B. North-East

C. North

D. West

Solution

The correct answer is North-East.

Key Points

  • The Tripuri people of the Bru Reang tribe perform the folk dance known as hojagiri.
  • It is performed in the state of Tripura, India.
  • A team of four to six ladies and young girls do it while singing, balancing on an earthen pitcher, and controlling various props like a bottle on top of the head and an earthen lamp in one hand.
  • while the body is only moved in the lower half.
  • Other folk dances of North-East:
    • Garia, Jhum, Maimita, Masak Sumani and Lebang boomani dances of Tripuri community,
    • Bijhu dance of Chakma community,
    • Cheraw and Welcome dances of the Lusai community
    • Hai-Hak dance of the Malsum community,
    • Wangala dance of Garo Community.

Additional Information

StateFolk Dance
PunjabBhangra
GujaratGarba
MaharashtraLavani
RajasthanGhoomar
Tamil NaduBharatanatyam
KeralaKathakali
AssamBihu
Uttar PradeshKathak
OdishaOdissi
West BengalBaul
Himachal PradeshNati
Jammu and KashmirRouf

66. Which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Sieze

B. Receipt

C. Receive

D. Billiards

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Sieze‘.

Key Points

  • Let’s look at the correct spelling of the incorrect word and the meaning of the marked option:
  • The correct spelling is S-E-I-Z-E.
  • Seize(verb)- “to take something quickly and keep or hold it”. (किसी चीज को जल्दी से लेने और रखने या रखने के लिए).
    • Example: I seized his arm and made him turn to look at me.
  • As per the given above points, Sieze is an incorrectly spelled word.

Additional Information

  • Let’s look at the other words and their meanings that are given in the options:
WordsMeanings Exampleअर्थ
Receipt(noun)something such as a piece of paper or message proving that money, goods, or information have been received.Make sure you are given a receipt for everything you buy.कुछ कागज या संदेश के रूप में ऐसा साबित होता है कि पैसा, माल, या जानकारी प्राप्त हुई है।
Receive(verb)to get or be given something.received a phone call from your motherकुछ पाने के लिए या दिया जाना।
Billiards(noun)a game played by two people on a table covered in soft cloth, in which a cue is used to hit balls against each other and into pockets around the tableBilliards are semi-focusing if their boundary components consist of pieces of cylinders and possibly some flat components.मुलायम कपड़े में ढँकी मेज पर दो लोगों द्वारा खेला जाने वाला खेल, जिसमें एक क्यू का इस्तेमाल गेंदों को एक दूसरे के खिलाफ मारने और मेज की जेब में डालने के लिए किया जाता है।

67. From the given options, identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

He was enough kind (A)/to lend me (B)/a few dollars. (C)/No error(D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Solution

The error lies in part A‘.

Key Points

  • ​The given above sentence is grammatically incorrect. 
  • Here, ‘kind enough’ will be used instead of ‘enough kind’.
  • As a general rule, the adverb enough‘ is used to modify an adjective. In this case, the adverb enough will be placed after the adjective ‘kind’.
  • Example:
    • She is old enough to earn a living. 
    • She is enough old to earn a living. 
  • Here, in the given sentence, enough is used before kind that is incorrect.
  • ​Therefore, as per the given points, the most appropriate option is Option 1.
     

Correct sentenceHe was kind enough to lend me a few dollars. 

Additional Information

Uses of VeryMuch, So and Too:

  • Very – Very is used to emphasize an adjective or an adverb. It often has a positive meaning and very modifies present participle.
    • ​Example: The book is very interesting.
  • Much – Much is used in comparative degree and past participle.
    • Example: They completed the mission much faster.
  • So and Too – We should not use ‘So‘ without “that” (adverb clause) and ‘Too‘ without a “to” infinitive respectively.
    • Example: He is so strong that no one messes with him.
    • Example: She is too good to do this job.

68. Direction: Select the segment of the sentence that contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The news from (A)/ across the globe (B)/ were not encouraging. (C)/ No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Solution

The correct answer is ‘C.
Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the verb were‘ is incorrectly used.
  • There are​ some words, like news, measles, mumps, physics, etc. They end in -s and appear to be plural but actually, they are singular and require singular verbs.
    • Example: The news at the hospital was not good.

​​
To make the sentence correct, replace the verb ‘were‘ with the singular verb ‘was.’

Thus the correct sentence is: The news from across the globe was not encouraging.
 

Additional Information

  • In sub-verb agreement, some countable nouns such as earnings, goods, odds, surroundings, proceeds, contents, and valuables have only a plural form and take a plural verb.
    • Example: The earnings for this quarter exceed the expectations of many.

Hinglish

  • दिए गए वाक्य में, verb were‘ का गलत तरीके से उपयोग किया जाता है।
  • कुछ शब्द हैं, जैसे कि news, measles, mumps, physics, आदि। वे अंत में होते हैं और plural प्रतीत होते हैं लेकिन वास्तव में, वे singular होते हैं और एकवचन क्रिया की आवश्यकता होती है।
    • Example: The news at the hospital was not good.
  • वाक्य को सही बनाने के लिए, verb were‘ की जगह singular verb was‘ के साथ थी। ‘

69. Directions: In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Each of the soldiers in captain Vikram’s company were awarded the purple cross.

A. Each of the soldiers

B. In captain Vikram’s company

C. Were awarded the purple cross

D. No error

Solution

The erroneous part of the sentence is: Were awarded the purple cross

Key Points

  • Replace “were” with “was” to correct the sentence.
  • The error here lies in the Subject-Verb agreement.
  • The basic rule states that a singular subject takes a singular verb while a plural subject takes a plural verb.
  • Each” is often followed by a prepositional phrase ending in a plural word.
    • (“Each of the students”)
  • Which confuses the verb choice. “Each“, is always singular and requires a singular verb.
  • Therefore, “was” should be used in the given sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3, which contains an error.

Corrected sentence: Each of the soldiers in captain Vikram’s company was awarded the purple cross.


70. Identify the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Accomplish

B. Extended

C. Explicit

D. Intanded

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Intanded’.

Key Points

  • Out of all the options, ‘Intanded’ is the word that is incorrectly spelt.
  • The correct spelling is Intended.
  • The meaning of ‘Intended’ is planned or meant.
    • Example: The intended victims were selected because they seemed vulnerable.
       

Hence, the correct choice is option 4.​​​
Additional Information

  • Let us discuss the meaning of some words:
WordMeaning
Accomplishachieve or complete successfully.
Extendedmade larger; enlarged.
Explicitstated clearly and in detail, leaving no room for confusion or doubt.

71. Directions: Four words have been given and one of these words is correctly spelt. Identify the word with the correct spelling and mark the answer.

A. Hamarrhage

B. Hamorrhage

C. Haemorrhage

D. Hemorhage

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Haemorrhage’

Key Points

  • The word ‘haemorrhage’ means ‘a copious or heavy discharge of blood from the blood vessels’.
    • It can be used as a noun as well as a verb.
    • Synonyms: Bleeding, Effusion, Bloody-flux
    • Example: He is suffering from a severe brain haemorrhage
  • So, the correctly spelt word is given in option 3).

Correct word: Haemorrhage


72. Select the word which means the same as group of words given.

Money given as a reward.

A. Demise 

B. Bounty

C. Brunch

D. Archives 

Solution

The correct answer is- Bounty.
Key Points

  • Let’s look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • Bounty(noun)Money paid as a reward. (इनाम के रूप में दिया गया पैसा)
    • Example: bounty of $10,000 has been offered for the capture of his murderer.    
  • Let’s look at the meaning of the other given options:
  • Demise(noun): The end of something that was previously considered to be powerful, such as a business, industry, or system. (किसी चीज का अंत जिसे पहले शक्तिशाली माना जाता था, जैसे कि व्यवसाय, उद्योग, या प्रणाली।)
  • Brunch(noun)A meal is eaten in the late morning is a combination of breakfast and lunch. (सुबह देर से खाया जाने वाला नाश्ता और दोपहर के भोजन का एक संयोजन है।)
  • Archives(noun)A collection of historical records relating to a place, organization, or family. (किसी स्थान, संगठन या परिवार से संबंधित ऐतिहासिक अभिलेखों का संग्रह।)
     

Hence, from the given meanings, we find that Bounty is the correct one-word substitute.


73. Choose the correct answer for the given idiom from the options given below. 

A short fuse

A. To be over enthusiastic about things. 

B. To get angry very quickly.

C. A short person.

D. Someone who jumps into conclusions.

Solution

The correct answer is To get angry very quickly

Key Points

Let’s look at the meaning of the given idiom. 

  • A short fuse: Tendency to loose one’s temper very quickly. (बहुत जल्दी अपना आपा खोने की प्रवृत्ति)

Thus from the above-given meaning, we find that the correct answer is to get angry very quickly.  


74. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.

Monika should stay stronger and overcome these hurdles in order to succeed.

A. stay strong

B. become stronger

C. stayed strong

D. No improvement

Solution

The correct answer is ‘stay strong’.

Key Points

  • Here, in the given sentence the most appropriate substitution is ‘stay strong’.
  • The adjective ‘stronger’ is in comparative form and is incorrect in the given context. 
  • There is no comparison being made in the given sentence.
  • Thus, the adjective ‘stronger’ should be in a positive degree.
  • Also, the verb should be ‘stay’ as we know that modal ‘should’ takes the first form of verb with it.
  • Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: Monika should stay strong and overcome these hurdles in order to succeed.

Additional Information

  • We should avoid using double comparative and superlatives in a sentence together.
    • Example:
      • Alexander was more taller than Jack. 
      • Alexander was taller than Jack. 
  • There are some words that are used only in positive degree and cannot be used in comparative degree or superlative degree.
    • Unique, universal, dead, complete, full, ideal, permanent, eternal, excellent, round, circular, parallel, impossible, flat, free, radioactive, major, minor, etc.    

75. Directions: In the following questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as the answer.

Accord

A. Agreement

B. Disagreement

C. Unmatched

D. Extreme

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Agreement’.

Key Points

  • Let us see the meaning of Accord:
    • Accord: (a formal) agreement.
      • Example: On 31 May the two leaders signed a peace accord.
  • Let us see the meanings of the given options:
WORDMEANING
Agreementthe situation in which people have the same opinion, or in which they approve of or accept something.
Disagreementan argument or a situation in which people do not have the same opinion.
Unmatchedhaving no equal; better than any other of the same type.
Extremevery large in amount or degree
  • From the meanings of the given words, we can say that the word ‘Agreement’ is the word almost nearest in meaning to the word ‘Accord’.
  • Hence, the correct answer is ‘Agreement.

76. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement’.

Ram is too poor so that he cannot send his child to that prestigious school.

A. that he could not

B. that he cannot

C. to send

D. No improvement

Solution

The correct answer is- ‘to send‘.

Key Points

  • A phrase can be expanded into a clause. In the same way, a clause can be contracted into a phrase. Thus, the form of a sentence can be changed without changing its meaning. The transformation can be done using several different methods.
  • For example, a simple sentence containing the adverb too‘ can be transformed into a complex sentence containing ‘so…that’ with no difference in meaning.
  • In a sentence that is based on ‘too..to’ format, we cannot replace ‘to‘ with ‘so that’. If we replace ‘to‘ with ‘so that‘, ‘too‘ also must be replaced with ‘cannot‘.
  • If the sentence containing ‘too…to’ is in the affirmative, the sentence containing ‘so…that’ will be in the negative.
  • Example: He spoke too fast to be understood.

                          He spoke so fast that he could not be understood.

  • From the above explanation, it is clear that ‘to send‘ is the correct answer because ‘too‘ is used in the given sentence.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct sentence is: Ram is too poor to send his child to that prestigious school.


77. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Gaze

A. Gape

B. Stare

C. Ignore

D. Contemplate

Solution

Here the correct answer is Ignore.
Key Points

  • Let’s look at the meaning of the given word:-
  • Gaze(verb) – look steadily and intently, especially in admiration, surprise, or thought.
    • For Example – He could only gaze at her in astonishment.
  • Let’s look at the meaning of the correct answer:-
  • Ignore(verb) – refuse to take notice of or acknowledge; disregard intentionally.
    • For Example – He ignored her outraged question.
  • Let’s look at the meaning of the other options:-
WORDMEANINGEXAMPLE
Gape(verb)stare with one’s mouth open wide in amazement or wonder.He gaped at Sharp in silence.
Stare(verb)look fixedly or vacantly at someone or something with one’s eyes wide open.He stared at her in amazement.
Contemplate(verb)look thoughtfully for a long time at.He contemplated his image in the mirrors.

Therefore, the correct antonym of the given word is Ignore.
Additional Information

  • The word ‘Gaze’ is often confused with ‘Gauge’.
  • The word ‘Gauge’ means “a tool for checking whether something conforms to a desired dimension“.
    • Example: Mark out the details of the angled surfaces with a knife and gauge.
  • Hence, we find that both the words ‘Gaze’ and ‘Gauge’ are absolutely different.
  • आइए दिए गए शब्द का अर्थ देखें: –
  • Gaze(क्रिया) – लगातार और सहज रूप से देखें, विशेष रूप से प्रशंसा, आश्चर्य, या विचार में।
    • उदाहरण के लिए – He could only gaze at her in astonishment.
  • आइए देखें सही उत्तर का अर्थ: –
  • Ignore(क्रिया) – नोटिस लेने या स्वीकार करने से इनकार; जानबूझकर अवहेलना करना।
    • उदाहरण के लिए – He ignored her outraged question.​
  • आइए अन्य विकल्पों के अर्थ देखें: –
  • शब्दअर्थउदाहरणGape(क्रिया)घबराहट या आश्चर्य में किसी का मुँह खुला रहना।उसने तीव्र स्वर में चुप्पी साध ली।Stare(क्रिया)निश्चित रूप से या किसी की नज़र में या किसी की आँखों से विस्तृत रूप से खुले रूप से देखें।वह विस्मय में उसे देखें।Contemplate(क्रिया)लंबे समय के लिए सोच समझकर देखें।उन्होंने दर्पण में अपनी छवि पर विचार किया।
  • शब्द ‘Gaze’ अक्सर ‘Gauge’ के साथ उलझन में है।
  • ‘Gauge’ शब्द का अर्थ है यह जाँचने का एक उपकरण कि क्या किसी वांछित आयाम के अनुरूप है“।
    • उदाहरण: Mark out the details of the angled surfaces with a knife and gauge.
  • इसलिए, हम पाते हैं कि दोनों शब्द ‘Gaze’ और ‘Gauge’ बिल्कुल अलग हैं।
     

इसलिए, दिए गए शब्द का सही एनटोनियम Ignoreहै 


78. Directions: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

DOCILE

A. Curtail

B. Obstinate

C. Submissive

D. Willful

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Submissive‘.

Key Points

  • The word ‘docile’ is an adjective that means ready to accept control or instruction or submissive. (नियंत्रण स्वीकार करने के लिए तैयार)
    • For eg.-  The once docile population has finally risen up against the ruthless regime.
  • Of the given options, the only word that is similar in meaning is ‘submissive‘ which means ready to conform to the authority or will of others; meekly obedient or passive.
    • For eg.-  Most doctors want their patients to be submissive.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Let’s look at the remaining options.
    • WordMeaningExample SentenceCurtailreduce in extent or quantity; impose a restriction on. (मात्रा में कमी)Civil liberties were further curtailed.Obstinatestubbornly refusing to change one’s opinion or chosen course of action, despite attempts to persuade one to do so. (किसी की राय बदलने से इनकार करना)He is obstinate and determined and will not give up.Willfulhaving or showing a stubborn and determined intention to do as one wants, regardless of the consequences. (खुदराय)He pleaded guilty to willful dereliction of duty.

79. Choose the most appropriate answer and fill in the blank:

It was his _________ that made him survive in the abandoned place for years. 

A. greatness

B. loneliness

C. asceticism

D. virtue

Solution

The correct answer is ‘asceticism’.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word to fill in the given blank is ‘asceticism’.
  • As we can see that the correct word to be used in the sentence is ‘asceticism’ because he lived in an abandoned place for years and only an ascetic can do it.  
  • Hence, the correct answer is ‘asceticism’. 
  • Let’s look at the meaning and examples of the given options:
WordsMeaningExample
Asceticismthe practice of living a simple life without physical pleasures, often for religious reasons (भौतिक सुखों के बिना एक साधारण जीवन जीने की प्रथा, अक्सर धार्मिक कारणों से)He believed a closer relationship with God could be found through strict asceticism.
Greatnessimportance and fame, power, or success (महत्व और प्रसिद्धि, शक्ति, या सफलता)Her greatness as a writer is unquestioned.
Lonelinessunhappy because you are not with other people (दुखी हैं क्योंकि आप अन्य लोगों के साथ नहीं हैं)Furthermore, difficulties with establishing personal contacts, caused, for instance, by social anxiety, add to loneliness.
Virtuegood moral quality in a person, or the general quality of being morally good (किसी व्यक्ति में अच्छा नैतिक गुण, या नैतिक रूप से अच्छा होने का सामान्य गुण)Patience is a virtue.
  • Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: It was his asceticism that made him survive in the abandoned place for years. 


80. Directions: The following expression can be replaced by a single word. Choose the most appropriate word from among the alternatives and mark the answer.

Fear of being in constricted and confined spaces.

A. Entomophobia

B. Claustrophobia

C. Agoraphobia

D. Hydrophobia

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Claustrophobia’.

Key Points 

  • Let us look at the meanings of the marked option:
  • The word claustrophobia means fear of being in closed spaces. (claustrophobia शब्द का अर्थ है बंद जगहों में होने का डर।)
    • ​Example: He suffers from claustrophobia so he never travels on underground trains.
  • ​The meaning of the word ‘claustrophobia’ agrees with the meaning conveyed by the given words.

So, ‘claustrophobia’ is the correct substitute for the given words.
Additional Information

  • Let us look at the meanings of the other words given in the options.
    • Entomophobia – an abnormal and persistent fear of insects (कीड़ों का एक असामान्य और लगातार डर)
    • Agoraphobia – fear of entering open or crowded places (खुले या भीड़-भाड़ वाले स्थानों में प्रवेश करने का डर)
    • Hydrophobia – fear of water (पानी का डर)

81. Choose the correct antonym (word with the opposite meaning) of the headword from the four options given and mark the right option:

FEROCIOUS

A. innocent

B. strong

C. durable

D. gentle

Solution

The correct answer is ‘gentle’.

Key Points

  • The meaning of the word ‘ferocious‘ is “very aggressive or violent“.
    • E.g. a ferocious beast
  • The meaning of the word ‘gentle‘ is “calm and kind“.
    • E.g. He looks scary but he’s really a gentle giant.
  • From the meanings and examples that are given above, it is clear that ‘gentle‘ is the correct antonym of the given word.


Let’s know the meanings of other words-

WordsMeaningExample
Innocentnot guilty of a crime or offence.The prisoners were later found innocent.
Strongable to perform a specified action well and powerfully.He was not a strong swimmer.
Durableable to withstand wear, pressure, or damagePorcelain enamel is strong and durable.

82. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option.

Ravi was _____ from the school.

A. expelled

B. expeled

C. espelled

D. expeeled

Solution

The correct answer is ‘expelled‘.

Key Points

  • Meaning of ‘expelled‘: to force someone to leave a school, organization, or country.
    • Example: The new government has expelled all foreign diplomats.
  • The given sentence is talking about Ravi being forced to leave the school.
  • Therefore, the usage of ‘expelled‘ is most appropriate here.
  • Option 2option 3 and option 4 are incorrect because the spelling of ‘expelled’ is wrong in each option.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct sentence is: Ravi was expelled from the school. 


83. Directions: Choose the correct synonym (word with similar meaning) of the head word form the four options given and mark the right option.

DEFIANCE

A. attack

B. disobedience

C. protection

D. shyness

Solution

The correct answer is ‘disobedience’.

Key Points

  • The word ‘Defiance‘ means refusal to obey.
  • The synonyms of the word ‘Defiance‘ are disobediencerebellion, disrespect“.
  • From the synonym of the given word, we can say that the word ‘Disobedience‘ has the same meaning.
  • The word ‘Disobedience’ means failure or refusal to obey rules or someone in authority. (नियमों का पालन करने में विफलता या इनकार या अधिकार में कोई व्यक्ति)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2. Let’s see the meaning of other given options:-

 WORDS MEANING
 Attack  an aggressive and violent act against a person or place (किसी व्यक्ति या स्थान के खिलाफ आक्रामक और हिंसक कार्य act) 
 Protection  the action of protecting, or the state of being protected (रक्षा करने की क्रिया, या संरक्षित होने की अवस्था)
 Shyness  the quality or state of being shy (शर्मीले होने की गुणवत्ता या अवस्था)

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word ‘Defiance‘ are obedience, submission, agreeability“.
  • Example of ‘Defiance‘ in a sentence:
    • He climbed the ladder in defiance of the warning.

84. John disagrees with everything as he loves playing devil’s advocate. 

What does “devil’s advocate” mean?

A. one who worships the devil

B. an evil person

C. a person who loves to play games

D. one who presents a counter argument

Solution

The correct answer is “one who presents a counter argument”

Key Points

  • “Devil’s advocate” is one who argues against or attacks an idea, argument, or proposition.(वह जो किसी विचार, तर्क या प्रस्ताव के खिलाफ बहस करता हो)
    • Example: Hermione was playing devil‘s advocate in her moral science class by arguing with the teacher.
  • ​Thus, devil’s advocate means “one who presents a counter argument”.

Additional Information           

  • An idiom has been used in the sentence.
  • An idiom is a phrase or expression that typically presents a figurative, non-literal meaning attached to the phrase.
  • Let us take a look at some common idioms.
IdiomsMeanings
Beat around the bushAvoid saying what you mean, usually because it is uncomfortable
Cutting cornersDoing something poorly in order to save time or money
Hit the sackGo to sleep
No pain no gainWorking hard to get what one wants
So far so goodThings are going well so far
Blessing in disguiseA good thing that seemed bad at first

85. In these questions, four alternatives are given for the italicized idioms. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom:-

Fly off the handle

A. attack someone’s enemies

B. lose one’s temper suddenly

C. make one’s escape

D. run away from the difficult situation

Solution

The correct answer is “lose one’s temper suddenly.

Key Points

  • An idiom is a phrase or expression that typically presents a figurative, non-literal meaning attached to the phrase; but some phrases become figurative idioms while retaining the literal meaning of the phrase. 
  • The idiom “fly off the handle” means to lose control of one’s emotions : to become very angry.
    • Example: Vinod is patient and careful, not the type to fly off the handle in a moment of frustration.
  • To lose one’s temper means to give way to violent anger, lose self-control. 
  • From the above explanation, it is clear that option 2 is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.


86. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate answer from the given options.

We got vitamin C, iron tablets and hot chocolate milk with our breakfast. These were given for__(A)__ and to keep us warm in the cold. Every morning there would be a medical check-up. We tied our bandages and counted the days left! After an eight-kilometre trek, we reached a river. There was a thick rope tied__(B)__ the river,  from one bank to the other. The rope was tightly fixed to __(C)__ on both sides.  I  was feeling nervous.  I started thinking about what__(D)__ happen if the rope came out.  I  was trying to estimate how wide the river was. Our instructor tied a rope__(E)__ his waist and put a sling in it. He then put the sling on the thick rope tied across the river.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank A.

A. Strength

B. Empathy

C. Balance

D. Running

Solution

The most appropriate option to be filled is ‘Strength‘.

Key Points

  • The given passage describes an experience of the trek.
  • Let’s refer to these lines from the passage, ”We got vitamin C, iron tablets and hot chocolate milk with our breakfast. These were given for__(A)__ and to keep us warm in the cold”.
  • From the above lines, it is clear that iron tablets and vitamin supplements were given.
  • These are usually given to provide and energy.
  • Meaning of strength: the ability to do things that need a lot of physical or mental effort
    • Example: She had the strength and stamina to take the lead and win the gold medal.
  • Therefore, from the above explanation, it is clear that ‘strength is the most appropriate option to be filled in the blank A.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Complete sentence: These were given for strength and to keep us warm in the cold.

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87. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate answer from the given options.

We got vitamin C, iron tablets and hot chocolate milk with our breakfast. These were given for__(A)__ and to keep us warm in the cold. Every morning there would be a medical check-up. We tied our bandages and counted the days left! After an eight-kilometre trek, we reached a river. There was a thick rope tied__(B)__ the river,  from one bank to the other. The rope was tightly fixed to __(C)__ on both sides.  I  was feeling nervous.  I started thinking about what__(D)__ happen if the rope came out.  I  was trying to estimate how wide the river was. Our instructor tied a rope__(E)__ his waist and put a sling in it. He then put the sling on the thick rope tied across the river.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank B.

A. around

B. across

C. on side

D. beyond

Solution

The most appropriate option to be filled is ‘across‘.

  • Let’s refer to this line from the passage, ” There was a thick rope tied__(B)__ the river,  from one bank to the other”.
  • In the above line ‘from one bank to other‘ is clearly mentioned.
  • Meaning of across: from one side to the other of something with clear limits, such as an area of land, a road, or a river. (आर-पार)
    • Example: She walked across the field/road.
  • Therefore from the explanation, it is clear that ‘across‘ will be the most appropriate answer to be filled in the blank B.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Complete sentence: There was a thick rope tied across the river, from one bank to the other.

Additional Information

Let’s learn the usage of other given options: 

WordMeaningExample
Aroundlocated or situated on every side(चारों तरफ)The mountains towering all around.
Beyondat or to the further side of. (परे)He pointed to a spot beyond the trees.

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88. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate answer from the given options.

We got vitamin C, iron tablets and hot chocolate milk with our breakfast. These were given for__(A)__ and to keep us warm in the cold. Every morning there would be a medical check-up. We tied our bandages and counted the days left! After an eight-kilometre trek, we reached a river. There was a thick rope tied__(B)__ the river,  from one bank to the other. The rope was tightly fixed to __(C)__ on both sides.  I  was feeling nervous.  I started thinking about what__(D)__ happen if the rope came out.  I  was trying to estimate how wide the river was. Our instructor tied a rope__(E)__ his waist and put a sling in it. He then put the sling on the thick rope tied across the river.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank C.

A. dash

B. lump

C. pegs

D. dart

Solution

The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is ‘pegs‘.

Key Points

  • Let’s refer to these line from the passage, ” There was a thick rope tied__(B)__ the river,  from one bank to the other. The rope was tightly fixed to __(C)__ on both sides.”
  • From the above-mentioned lines, it is clear that rope is tied across the river.
  • To keep the rope fixed and attached it needs to be tied to a hooklike structure
  • Meaning of peg: a short cylindrical piece of wood, metal, or plastic, typically tapered at one end, that is used for holding things together, hanging things on, or marking a position. (खूंटी)
    • Example: He took off his coat/hat and hung it on the peg.
  • Therefore from the above explanation, it is clear that ‘peg‘ is the most appropriate answer to be filled in the blank C.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Complete sentence: The rope was tightly fixed to pegs on both sides.

Additional Information

WordMeaningExample
Dashrun or travel somewhere in a great hurry. (भागना) dashed into the garden.
Lumpa compact mass of a substance, especially one without a definite or regular shape. (गांठ)There was a lump of ice floating in the milk.
Darta small pointed missile that can be thrown or fired. (बरछी)The classroom was littered with paper darts.

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89. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate answer from the given options.

We got vitamin C, iron tablets and hot chocolate milk with our breakfast. These were given for__(A)__ and to keep us warm in the cold. Every morning there would be a medical check-up. We tied our bandages and counted the days left! After an eight-kilometre trek, we reached a river. There was a thick rope tied__(B)__ the river,  from one bank to the other. The rope was tightly fixed to __(C)__ on both sides.  I  was feeling nervous.  I started thinking about what__(D)__ happen if the rope came out.  I  was trying to estimate how wide the river was. Our instructor tied a rope__(E)__ his waist and put a sling in it. He then put the sling on the thick rope tied across the river.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank D.

A. has

B. had

C. can

D. would

Solution

The most appropriate option to be filled is ‘would‘.

Key Points

  • Let’s refer to this line from the passage, ”I started thinking about what__(D)__ happen if the rope came out”.
  • From this line, it is clear that the sentence is in Past tense.
  • The sentence is talking about the possibility in the future.
  • Usage of would: used to refer to future time from the point of view of the past.
    • Example: He said he would see his brother tomorrow.
  • Therefore from the above explanation, it is clear that ‘would‘ is the most appropriate answer to be filled in the blank D.
  • Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Complete sentence: I started thinking about what would happen if the rope came out.

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90. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate answer from the given options.

We got vitamin C, iron tablets and hot chocolate milk with our breakfast. These were given for__(A)__ and to keep us warm in the cold. Every morning there would be a medical check-up. We tied our bandages and counted the days left! After an eight-kilometre trek, we reached a river. There was a thick rope tied__(B)__ the river,  from one bank to the other. The rope was tightly fixed to __(C)__ on both sides.  I  was feeling nervous.  I started thinking about what__(D)__ happen if the rope came out.  I  was trying to estimate how wide the river was. Our instructor tied a rope__(E)__ his waist and put a sling in it. He then put the sling on the thick rope tied across the river.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank E.

A. beyond

B. around

C. surround

D. over

Solution

The most appropriate option to be filled is ‘around‘.

Key Points

  • Let’s refer to this line from the passage, ‘‘Our instructor tied a rope__(E)__ his waist and put a sling in it”.
  • From the above line, it is clear that when the rope is tied to the waist it will be present on all sides and direction. 
  • Meaning of around: located or situated on every side. (चारों तरफ)
    • Example: The mountains are towering all around the village. 
  • Around is not used as a verb.
  • But it can be used like this “He goes around the track“.
  • In the given sentence ‘tie‘ is a verb.
  • From the above explanation, it is clear that ‘around‘ is the most appropriate option to be filled in the blank E.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Complete sentence: Our instructor tied a rope around his waist and put a sling in it.

Additional Information

 Let’s learn about other given options:

WordMeaning
Beyondat or to the further side of. (परे)
Surroundbe all around (someone or something) (चारों ओर से घेरना).Surround can be used as a verb like “We should surround him” meaning we should cover him.
Overextending directly upward from. (ऊपर)

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