RRB Technician (Grade 3) CBT-I 2024 Mock Test - 5

1.A man sells two mobile phones for Rs. 6,000 each, gaining 25% on one and losing 25% on the other. What is his gain or loss percent in whole transaction (up to two decimal places)?

A. Profit, 6.67

B. Loss, 6.67

C. Loss, 6.25

D. Profit, 6.25

Solutions

Let’s solve the problem step by step:

Given:

Two mobile phones sold at Rs. 6,000 each.
On one, there is a 25% gain; on the other, a 25% loss.

Step 1: Find the Cost Price (CP) of Each Phone

For the phone sold at 25% gain:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 6,000
Gain = 25%

Final Answer: Loss, 6.25%

2. A coin is tossed 300 times with the frequencies of two outcomes: Head – 100, Tail – 200, probability of occurrence of these events will be?

A. 1/3, 1/3

B. 1/2, 1/2

C. 1/3, 2/3

D. 1/2, 2/3

Solutions

Step 1: Understand the Question

A coin is tossed 300 times.
Number of times Head appears = 100
Number of times Tail appears = 200

We are asked: What is the probability of getting Head and Tail based on these outcomes?

Step 2: Formula for Probability (Empirical Probability)

Final Answer

Correct Option: 1/3, 2/3

3. The sum of two numbers is 59 and their product is 840. Find the sum of their squares.

A. 2961

B. 1801

C. 1875

D. 1754

Solutions

Let’s solve the problem step by step:

Step 1: Use the Formula

Let the two numbers be aa and bb.

We know:

a + b = 59
ab = 840

The sum of their squares is given by:

Final Answer: 1801

4. Determine the unit digit in the expansion of the following: (4987)¹⁸⁴

A. 3

B. 7

C. 9

D. 1

Solutions

Step 4: Conclusion

Since the remainder is 0, the unit digit is 1.

Final Answer: 1

5. The certain sum will amount to Rs 33640 in 2 years at 16% per annum of compound interest, interest being compounded annually. The sum is

A. ₹ 35000

B. ₹ 25000

C. ₹ 30000

D. ₹ 20000

Solutions

Step 1: Understand the Question

Amount after 2 years (A) = ₹33,640
Rate of compound interest (R) = 16% per annum
Time (n) = 2 years
Compounded annually
Principal (P) = ?

Step 2: Compound Interest Formula

The formula for compound amount is:

Final Answer

Correct Option: ₹ 25,000

6. Divide Rs.14136 among A, B and C such that 2 times A’s share, 3 times B’s share and 5 times C’s share are all equal. What is the share of C?

A. Rs.3680

B. Rs.456

C. Rs.2736

D. Rs.1413

Solutions

Step 1: Set Up the Equation

Let A’s share = aa, B’s share = bb, C’s share = cc.

Given:

Correct Option: Rs. 2,736

7. If 3M = 8N = 24P, then what is the value of M ∶ N ∶ P?

A. 7 ∶ 5 ∶ 1

B. 6 ∶ 3 ∶ 1

C. 5 ∶ 2 ∶ 1

D. 8 ∶ 3 ∶ 1

Solutions

Final Answer

8 ∶ 3 ∶ 1

8. A and B together can do a piece of work in 35 days. B and C together can complete it in 43.75 days while C and A together can complete the same work in 52.5 days. In how many days can C alone complete the same work?

A. 162.5

B. 155

C. 150

D. 156.25

Solutions

Step 5: C Alone Can Complete the Work

So, C alone can finish the work in 150150 days.

Final Answer

150 days

9. The length of rectangular sheet of paper is 24 cm more than the breadth and perimeter of the rectangular sheet is 128 cm. Find the length of the rectangular sheet.

A. 20 cm

B. 44 cm

C. 48 cm

D. 34 cm

Solutions

Final Answer

Length of the rectangular sheet = 44 cm

10. The two roots of a quadratic equation are given as α = 3/2 and β = -4/5. The equation can be written as:

A. 10x² – 11x – 12 = 0

B. 30x² – 7x – 4 = 0

C. 12x² – 7x – 12 = 0

D. 10x² – 7x – 12 = 0

Solutions

11. An object travels 25 m in 3 seconds and then 15 m in 2 seconds. What is the average speed of the object?

A. 6.67s ^–1

B. 6.67 ms^–1

C. 8.0 ms^–1

D. 8.0 m

Solutions

Correct option: 8.0 ms^–1

12.

Solutions

13. Read the given question and the two statements and decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: How much does sheela have to pay to the health club?

Statements:

I. The health club offers Rs. 1000 discount in fees for every kilogram weight lost in the previous month.

II. The health club fees are Rs. 10,000 before discount. Sheela weighed 75 kg in the previous month.

A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient

C. Neither I nor II is sufficient

D. I and II together are sufficient

Solutions

Statement I:

The health club offers Rs. 1000 discount in fees for every kilogram weight lost in the previous month.

This tells us the discount per kg lost, but does not tell us the original fee or how much weight Sheela lost.

Statement II:

The health club fees are Rs. 10,000 before discount. Sheela weighed 75 kg in the previous month.

This tells us the original fee and Sheela’s weight in the previous month, but does not mention how much weight she lost or the discount policy.

Analysis:

Statement I alone:
Not sufficient, because we don’t know the original fee or how much weight Sheela lost.
Statement II alone:
Not sufficient, because we don’t know the discount policy or how much weight Sheela lost.
Both statements together:
Still not sufficient because we do not know how much weight Sheela lost in the previous month (we only know her weight in the previous month, not the current month or the weight lost).

Final Answer

Neither I nor II is sufficient

14. The speed of a car is 120 kmph, what is the distance it can cover in 18 sec?

A. 1200m

B. 800m

C. 600m

D. 400m

Solutions

Correct answer: 600 m

15. Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of the total number of workers whose daily wages are less than ₹450 to the total number of workers whose daily wages are ₹650 and above?

A. 1 ∶ 4

B. 6 ∶ 7

C. 5 ∶ 7

D. 3 ∶ 5

Solutions

To solve the question:

Workers with daily wages less than ₹450:
From the graph, this is the bar at 400–450, which is 30 workers.
Workers with daily wages ₹650 and above:
From the graph, this is the bar at 650–700, which is 35 workers.

So, the required ratio is:

Correct answer: 6 : 7

16. What is the third proportional of 5x² and 3xy?

Solutions

17. What is the surface area (in cm²) of a sphere whose diameter is 21 cm?

A. 2772

B. 1386

C. 3465

D. 5544

Solutions

18. The present age of father is four times the age of his son. After 10 years, age of father will become three times the age of his son. Find the present age of father?

A. 82 years.

B. 80 years.

C. 70 years.

D. 84 years.

Solutions

Correct answer: 80 years.

19.

A. 4/3

B. 5/4

C. 3/4

D. 4/5

Solutions

Let’s solve the equation shown in the image step-by-step:

Given:

Step 1: Solve the numerator

Step 2: Solve the denominator

Step 3: Combine both

Final Answer: 3/4

20.

A. 8 ∶ 12 ∶ 15

B. 15 ∶ 10 ∶ 8

C. 4 ∶ 7 ∶ 10

D. 10 ∶ 8 ∶ 5

Solutions

Sure! Here’s the short solution:

A : B = 1/2 : 1/3 = 3 : 2
B : C = 1/4 : 1/5 = 5 : 4

Make B equal (LCM of 2 and 5 is 10):

A : B = 15 : 10
B : C = 10 : 8

So, A : B : C = 15 : 10 : 8

Answer: 15 ∶ 10 ∶ 8

21. If 30 copies of a compact disc (CD) cost Rs.140, how much will 24 copies of the same CD cost?

A. Rs.121

B. Rs.112

C. Rs.101

D. Rs.110

Solutions

Given:
30 CDs cost Rs. 140

Cost of 1 CD = 140 ÷ 30 = Rs. 4.67

Cost of 24 CDs = 4.67 × 24 = Rs. 112

Final Answer: Rs. 112

22. 4/9 of a number is 324. Find the number:

A. 927

B. 81

C. 104

D. 729

Solutions

23. The edge of a cube is 8 cm. What is the total surface area of the cube?

A. 256 cm ²

B. 484 cm ²

C. 384 cm ²

D. 128 cm ²

Solutions

Given:
Edge of cube = 8 cm

Total surface area of a cube = 6a26a2, where aa is the edge.

So,
6 × 8²= 6 × 64 = 384 cm²

Final Answer: 384 cm²

24. By selling an article for Rs. 820, Abhi loses 18%. To gain 25.5%, he should sell it for:

A. Rs. 1,260

B. Rs. 1,275

C. Rs. 1,255

D. Rs. 1,250

Solutions

Final Answer: Rs. 1,255

25. Which of the following options does NOT give the lengths of three sides of any triangle?

A. 12, 18, 25

B. 18, 23, 41

C. 7, 10, 12

D. 4, 7, 9

Solutions

To form a triangle, the sum of any two sides must be greater than the third side (triangle inequality rule).

Check each option:

12, 18, 25:
12 + 18 = 30 > 25
12 + 25 = 37 > 18
18 + 25 = 43 > 12
(Possible)
18, 23, 41:
18 + 23 = 41 (Not greater than 41)
(Not possible)
7, 10, 12:
7 + 10 = 17 > 12
7 + 12 = 19 > 10
10 + 12 = 22 > 7
(Possible)
4, 7, 9:
4 + 7 = 11 > 9
4 + 9 = 13 > 7
7 + 9 = 16 > 4
(Possible)

Answer:
18, 23, 41 does NOT give the lengths of a triangle.

26. Pointing towards Kapil, Shilpa said, “His mother’s brother is the father of my son Ashish”. How is Kapil related to Shilpa?

A. sister-in-law

B. nephew

C. niece

D. aunt

Solutions

Let’s break down the statement:

Shilpa says, “Kapil’s mother’s brother is the father of my son Ashish.”

Kapil’s mother’s brother = Kapil’s maternal uncle.
That person is also the father of Ashish (Shilpa’s son).
So, Shilpa is married to Kapil’s maternal uncle, making Shilpa Kapil’s maternal aunt.

Therefore, Kapil is Shilpa’s nephew.

Correct answer: nephew

27. You are given a question and three statements. Identify which of the statement(s) is/are necessary/sufficient to answer the question.

Question :

There are 4 children I, J, K and L whose heights are to be compared. Who among these is tallest?

Statement :

1. I is taller than L.

2. L is younger than K.

3. J is younger than L.

A. Statements 1, 2 and 3 together are sufficient

B. Statements 1, 2 and 3 together are insufficient.

C. Statement 2 alone is sufficient.

D. Statement 1 alone is sufficient.

Solutions

Let’s analyze the statements:

Statement 1: I is taller than L.
(Only compares I and L.)
Statement 2: L is younger than K.
(Age comparison, not height.)
Statement 3: J is younger than L.
(Again, only age, not height.)

None of the statements compare all four children’s heights, nor do they provide enough information to determine who is the tallest. Statements 2 and 3 are about age, not height, and statement 1 only compares two children.

Correct answer:
Statements 1, 2 and 3 together are insufficient.

28. Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.

KING : HFKD :: FRKM : ?

A. CLHJ

B. CLHK

C. COHK

D. COHJ

Solutions

Let’s analyze the pattern between KING and HFKD:

Write the positions of each letter in the alphabet:

K (11), I (9), N (14), G (7)
H (8), F (6), K (11), D (4)

Now, check the difference for each letter:

K (11) → H (8): -3
I (9) → F (6): -3
N (14) → K (11): -3
G (7) → D (4): -3

So, each letter is shifted back by 3.

Now apply the same to FRKM:

F (6) – 3 = C (3)
R (18) – 3 = O (15)
K (11) – 3 = H (8)
M (13) – 3 = J (10)

So, FRKM → COHJ

Correct answer: COHJ

29. Select the option that is related to the sixth word in the same way as the first word is related to the second word and the third word is related to the fourth word. Speech :

Speech : Dumb :: Sight : Blind :: ? : Deaf

A. Sound

B. Vibrations

C. Voice

D. Language

Solutions

Let’s analyze the analogy:

Speech : Dumb (A dumb person cannot speak; absence of speech)
Sight : Blind (A blind person cannot see; absence of sight)
? : Deaf (A deaf person cannot hear; absence of ______)

So, the answer should be something that a deaf person lacks.

Among the options, Sound is what a deaf person cannot hear.

Correct answer: Sound

30. In a certain code language, ‘587’ is written as ‘see good pictures’, ‘539’ is written as ‘good and beautiful’, and ‘967’ is written as ‘pictures are beautiful’. What is the code for the word ‘see’ in that language?

A. 8

B. 7

C. 6

D. 5

Solutions

Let’s decode step by step:

Given:

‘587’ = see good pictures
‘539’ = good and beautiful
‘967’ = pictures are beautiful

First, identify common words and codes:

‘good’ appears in ‘587’ and ‘539’ → common code is ‘5’
‘pictures’ appears in ‘587’ and ‘967’ → common code is ‘7’
‘beautiful’ appears in ‘539’ and ‘967’ → common code is ‘9’

Now, in ‘587’ (“see good pictures”):

‘good’ = 5
‘pictures’ = 7
So, ‘see’ = 8

Correct answer: 8

31. Read the given question and decide which of the following statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:

X, Y, T, U, and V, when arranged in ascending order of their weights, who will stand second from the beginning?

Statements:

1. X weighs less than T. U weighs twice as much as T.

2. The weight of Y and V is less than that of X.

A. Statements 1 and 2 both are sufficient

B. Statement 1 alone is sufficient

C. Statement 2 alone is sufficient

D. Statements 1 and 2 both are insufficient

Solutions

Let’s analyze the statements:

Statement 1:

X weighs less than T.
U weighs twice as much as T.
(We only know the relation between X, T, and U, but nothing about Y and V.)

Statement 2:

The weight of Y and V is less than that of X.
(Y < X, V < X, but nothing about T and U.)

Combining both statements:

X < T
U = 2T
Y < X, V < X

But we still do not know the exact order among Y, V, and T, nor the actual weights or relative positions for all five. We cannot definitively determine who is second from the beginning.

Correct answer: Statements 1 and 2 both are insufficient.

32. What is the total number of triangles in the given figure?

A. 36

B. 32

C. 24

D. 40

Solutions

Approach:

To solve such questions:

Break the figure into parts.
Count all small triangles formed directly by lines.
Count the larger triangles formed by combining two or more small triangles.
Make sure not to double-count any triangle.

Triangle Count Analysis:

By carefully observing the figure and counting:

All small triangles formed in the inner and outer sections
All medium-sized triangles formed by combining two or more small ones
All large triangles that span across the central sections

You will find:

Total triangles = 36

Final Answer: 36

33. Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure. (Rotation is NOT allowed)

Solutions

Given:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option – (3)”.

34. Select the cube that can be formed by folding the given sheet along the lines.

A. None are possible

B. Only A and B

C. Only C and D

D. Only A

Solutions

Key Concept (Opposite Faces Rule in Cube):

From the unfolded figure (net), observe that:

6 is opposite to 1
3 is opposite to 4
2 is opposite to 5

Opposite faces can never be adjacent on a folded cube.

Option Check:

Option A:
Faces 2, 3, 5 are adjacent → Valid (none are opposites).
Option B:
Faces 1 and 4 are adjacent → Invalid (1 and 4 are opposites).
Option C:
Faces 2 and 5 are adjacent → Invalid (2 and 5 are opposites).
Option D:
Faces 1 and 6 are adjacent → Invalid (1 and 6 are opposites).

Final Answer: Only A

35. Seven girls Mansi, Shweta, Monika, Payal, Aarti, Kajal and Laxmi are sitting around a circular table facing opposite to the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Aarti is second to the left of Kajal. Monika is third to the right of Kajal. Mansi is not the immediate neighbour of Kajal. Laxmi is second to the left of Mansi. Payal is not the immediate neighbour of Laxmi

Who is second to the left of Laxmi?

A. Mansi

B. Kajal

C. Payal

D. Aarti

Solutions

Here is a medium-short explanation in English:

Place Kajal at position 1.
Aarti is second to the left of Kajal (position 6).
Monika is third to the right of Kajal (position 4).
Mansi cannot be next to Kajal, so place Mansi at position 5.
Laxmi is second to the left of Mansi (position 3).
Payal cannot be next to Laxmi, so place Payal at position 7 and Shweta at position 2.

Therefore, the person second to the left of Laxmi (position 3) is Kajal (position 1).

Answer: Kajal

36. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

192, 408, 283, 347, 320, ?

A. 347

B. 324

C. 308

D. 328

Solutions

Let’s analyze the series:
192, 408, 283, 347, 320, ?

Let’s look for a pattern. Check the difference between terms:

408 – 192 = 216
283 – 408 = -125
347 – 283 = 64
320 – 347 = -27

Notice the pattern of alternating positive and negative differences.

Now, look at the numbers:
216, -125, 64, -27

These are all perfect cubes:
216 = 6³
-125 = -5³
64 = 4³
-27 = -3³

So, the pattern is:
+6³, -5³, +4³, -3³, …

Next should be +2³ = 8

So, add 8 to the last number:
320 + 8 = 328

Correct answer: 328

37. In a certain code language. ‘ALBUMS’ is coded as ‘UMWBNA’. What is the code for ‘CLEVER’ in that code language?

A. TXEENC

B. XETENC

C. TEXENC

D. TEXNEC

Solutions

Let’s analyze how ‘ALBUMS’ is coded as ‘UMWBNA’:

Write the letters and their coded counterparts:

A L B U M S
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
U M W B N A

Let’s map the positions:

A → U
L → M
B → W
U → B
M → N
S → A

Now, check the pattern:

Let’s try to see if the original word is split and reversed, or if there’s a shifting pattern.

Let’s check the positions in the alphabet:

A (1) → U (21)
L (12) → M (13)
B (2) → W (23)
U (21) → B (2)
M (13) → N (14)
S (19) → A (1)

It seems the word is split into two halves and each half is reversed:

ALBUMS → ALB | UMS
Reverse first half: BLA
Reverse second half: SMU
But code is UMWBNA

Alternatively, let’s check the order of coded letters:

ALBUMS: 1 2 3 4 5 6
UMWBNA: 1 2 3 4 5 6

But U is the 4th letter in ALBUMS, which is the 1st in code.
M is the 5th letter in ALBUMS, which is the 2nd in code.
W is the 3rd letter in code, but B is the 3rd in ALBUMS.

Let’s try mapping:

ALBUMS: 1 2 3 4 5 6
UMWBNA: 4 5 3 2 6 1

1st in code (U) = 4th in original (U)
2nd in code (M) = 5th in original (M)
3rd in code (W) = 3rd in original (B), but W is not B
4th in code (B) = 2nd in original (L)
5th in code (N) = 6th in original (S)
6th in code (A) = 1st in original (A)

But the letters are not matching directly. Let’s check if there is a pattern of +20 or -6, etc.

A (1) → U (21): +20
L (12) → M (13): +1
B (2) → W (23): +21
U (21) → B (2): -19
M (13) → N (14): +1
S (19) → A (1): -18

Alternatively, let’s look at the code word UMWBNA and see if it is a rearrangement of ALBUMS.

UMWBNA is not an anagram of ALBUMS.

Let’s try to break the word into two parts and reverse each:

ALBUMS → ALB | UMS
Reverse ALB → BLA
Reverse UMS → SMU
Combine: BLASMU

Not matching.

Let’s try alternate letters:

Odd positions: A B M
Even positions: L U S

Original: 1 2 3 4 5 6
A L B U M S

Odd: A B M (1,3,5)
Even: L U S (2,4,6)

Let’s try to rearrange:
UMWBNA

Let’s check the code for each letter:

1st code letter: U (4th in original)
2nd: M (5th in original)
3rd: W (3rd in original, but W ≠ B)
4th: B (2nd in original)
5th: N (6th in original)
6th: A (1st in original)

But W and N do not match any letter in ALBUMS.

Let’s check if there is a Caesar cipher shift:

A → U: A(1) + 20 = U(21)
L → M: L(12) + 1 = M(13)
B → W: B(2) + 21 = W(23)
U → B: U(21) + 7 = B(2) (wraps around)
M → N: M(13) + 1 = N(14)
S → A: S(19) + 8 = A(1) (wraps around)

No clear consistent shift.

Given the options, let’s check which matches the pattern:

CLEVER

Options:
TXEENC
XETENC
TEXENC
TEXNEC

Let’s look for a pattern in the options:

All options have E as the third letter.
All options have C as the last letter.
The first three letters are T/X/E in different arrangements.

Given the code for ALBUMS is UMWBNA, let’s check if the code for CLEVER is TEXENC (since it matches the pattern of the code):

Let’s check the positions:

C (3), L (12), E (5), V (22), E (5), R (18)

T (20), E (5), X (24), E (5), N (14), C (3)

Let’s see if there is a mapping:

C (3) → T (20): +17
L (12) → E (5): -7
E (5) → X (24): +19
V (22) → E (5): -17
E (5) → N (14): +9
R (18) → C (3): -15

This pattern is similar to the one in ALBUMS to UMWBNA.

Therefore, the correct answer is: TEXENC

38. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

15	12	90
16	13	104
12	18	?

A. 119

B. 108

C. 100

D. 129

Solutions

Let’s analyze the given pattern:

15 12 90
16 13 104
12 18 ?

Let’s try the pattern for the first two rows:

Row 1:
15, 12 → 90
15 × 12 = 180
180 ÷ 2 = 90

Row 2:
16, 13 → 104
16 × 13 = 208
208 ÷ 2 = 104

So, the pattern is:
(First number × Second number) ÷ 2

Apply this to the third row:
12 × 18 = 216
216 ÷ 2 = 108

Correct answer: 108

39. In a certain code language, if bread is called butter, butter is called blood, blood is called water, water is called cheese, and cheese is called toner, then what is red in colour?

A. Water

B. Butter

C. Toner

D. Blood

Solutions

Let’s break down the code language:

bread → butter
butter → blood
blood → water
water → cheese
cheese → toner

The question: What is red in colour?

Normally, blood is red in colour.

But in this code language, “blood” is called “water”.

So, the thing that is red in colour will be called water in this code language.

Correct answer: Water

40. What is the angle made by the minute and hour hand of a clock at 9.10 am ?

A. 150°

B. 145°

C. 142°

D. 143°

Solutions

41. Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Give the answer.

Statements: India ranks among the top 10 largest oil-consuming countries in the world.

Conclusions:

I: Oil is an important resource for India.

II: Oil is a non-renewable resource.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both the conclusions follow

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Solutions

Given the statement: “India ranks among the top 10 largest oil-consuming countries in the world.”

Conclusion I: Oil is an important resource for India.
This logically follows because if India is among the top oil consumers, it indicates oil’s significance for the country.
Conclusion II: Oil is a non-renewable resource.
This is a general fact about oil, but it is not stated or implied by the given statement about India’s consumption.

Correct answer: Only conclusion I follows

42. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that “H ≥ J” definitely holds True?

G _ H _ I _ J

A. >, >, ≥

B. <, ≥ , >

C. <, ≤, ≤

D. <, ≥, =

Solutions

To ensure that “H ≥ J” definitely holds true in the expression G _ H _ I _ J, we need to establish a relationship where H is always greater than or equal to J, regardless of the values of G and I.

Let’s check the options:

Option 1: >, >, ≥
This gives: G > H > I ≥ J
Here, H > I ≥ J ⇒ H > J or H = J is possible, but not always guaranteed (since I could be between H and J).
Option 2: <, ≥, >
This gives: G < H ≥ I > J
Here, H ≥ I > J ⇒ H > J (since I > J and H ≥ I), so H is definitely greater than J.
Option 3: <, ≤, ≤
This gives: G < H ≤ I ≤ J
Here, H ≤ I ≤ J ⇒ H ≤ J, so H could be less than J.
Option 4: <, ≥, =
This gives: G < H ≥ I = J
Here, H ≥ I = J ⇒ H ≥ J (since I = J), so H is always greater than or equal to J.

Both Option 2 and Option 4 ensure H ≥ J, but Option 4 is the most direct and always guarantees H ≥ J.

Correct answer: <, ≥, =

43. Consider the following questions and decide which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:

Why does Shama read fictional stories?

Statement:

1. She loves to read books.

2. She has an imaginative tendency.

A. Statements 1 and 2 are both required.

B. Only statement 2 is sufficient, but statement 1 is not sufficient.

C. Only statement 1 is sufficient, but statement 2 is not sufficient.

D. Either statement 1 and or 2 are sufficient.

Solutions

To answer “Why does Shama read fictional stories?”:

Statement 1: She loves to read books.
This alone does not specifically explain why she reads fictional stories, only that she enjoys reading in general.
Statement 2: She has an imaginative tendency.
This suggests a preference for fiction, as imaginative people are often drawn to fictional stories.

Therefore, only statement 2 is sufficient, but statement 1 is not sufficient to answer the question.

44. In the following series, how many times is the number 0 immediately followed by number 2?

2 1 3 2 5 0 2 7 8 0 2 0 3 4 5 2 0 2 0 7 8

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 3

Solutions

Given: 2 1 3 2 5 0 2 7 8 0 2 0 3 4 5 2 0 2 0 7 8

Logic: the number 0 immediately followed by number 2.

There are only 3 number which are followed the same pattern;

Thus, the correct answer is (d) 3.

45. A question is given, followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the appropriate answer.

Question: How many people are standing in the row where all people are facing north?

Statements:

(I) A is fourth from the left end; M is second to the right of A; and R is second from the left end.

(II) M is fourth from the right end; only two people Stand between M and B.

A. Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

B. Data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question

C. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

D. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not

Solutions

Let’s analyze both statements:

Statement I:

A is fourth from the left end.
M is second to the right of A.
R is second from the left end.

From this, we know:

R is at position 2.
A is at position 4.
M is at position 6 (since M is second to the right of A).

But we do not know the total number of people, as there could be more to the right of M.

Statement II:

M is fourth from the right end.
Only two people stand between M and B.

This tells us M’s position from the right, but not from the left or total number. The arrangement of B is not enough to determine the total number of people.

Combining both statements:
From I: M is at position 6 from the left.
From II: M is at position 4 from the right.

So, total number of people = position from left of M + position from right of M – 1
= 6 + 4 – 1 = 9

Correct answer: Data in statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question.

46. A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings every 32 minutes. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o’clock in the morning, at what other time will they all ring together ?

A. 12 ∶ 40 hrs

B. 12 ∶ 48 hrs

C. 12 ∶ 56 hrs

D. 13 ∶ 04 hrs

Solutions

Bell intervals: 18, 24, and 32 minutes.

Find the LCM (Lowest Common Multiple) of 18, 24, and 32:

18 = 2 × 3²
24 = 2³ × 3
32 = 2⁵

LCM = 2⁵ × 3² = 32 × 9 = 288 minutes

Convert 288 minutes to hours and minutes:
288 ÷ 60 = 4 hours 48 minutes

So, after 8:00 AM, all bells will ring together at:
8:00 + 4 hours 48 minutes = 12:48 hrs

Correct answer: 12 ∶ 48 hrs

47. Select the odd one:-

A. B

B. D

C. C

D. A

Solutions

The logic followed here is

correct answer is “Option 2”.

48. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given letter series will complete the series.

_ B _ A _ SAB _ _ B S

A. ASBAS

B. ASBSA

C. BASBA

D. SABAS

Solutions

By checking options and substituting accordingly.

1) ASBAS → A B S – A B S – A B A – S B S

2) ASBSA → A B S – A B S – A B S – A B S

Here ” A B S” is repeated.

3) BASBA → B B A – A S S – A B B – A B S

4) SABAS → S B A – A B S – A B A – S B S

Option (2) gives the pattern of A B S – A B S – A B S – A B S.

Correct answer is “ASBSA”.

49. Unscramble the letters in the words given below and find the odd word out:

A. APEPR

B. ENP

C. ARERES

D. HCRAI

Solutions

Let’s unscramble each word:

APEPR → PAPER
ENP → PEN
ARERES → ERASER
HCRAI → CHAIR

Now, let’s see which is the odd one out:

PAPER, PEN, ERASER are all stationery items used for writing.
CHAIR is furniture.

Correct answer: HCRAI (CHAIR) is the odd word out.

50. In the following question, four number pairs are given. In each pair the number on left side of (-) is related to the number of the right side of (-) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three pairs are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

A. 14 – 2844

B. 12 – 1728

C. 20 – 8000

D. 10 – 1000

Solutions

To identify the odd pair, we analyze the relationship between the left and right numbers:

51. The element silicon is present in ________.

A. Sand

B. Limestone

C. Salt

D. Clay

Solutions

Explanation:

Sand primarily consists of tiny crystals of the mineral quartz, which is composed mainly of silicon dioxide (SiO₂). Silicon dioxide is the most abundant compound of silicon found in the Earth’s crust, and in most parts of the world, silica (SiO₂) is the major constituent of sand. Therefore, silicon is present in sand, not in significant amounts in limestone, salt, or clay.

Correct answer: Sand

52. How many times does the human heart beat in a minute under normal conditions? (Approximately)

A. 80 times

B. 60 times

C. 90 times

D. 72 times

Solutions

The correct answer is 72 times.

Under normal conditions, the human heart beats approximately 72 times per minute.

53. What is the full form of an LED?

A. Linear Emergency Device

B. Light Emitting Diode

C. Liquid Emitting Display

D. Light Emitting Device

Solutions

The full form of LED is Light Emitting Diode.

54. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz known as _________.

A. Infrasonic.

B. Ultra Sonic.

C. Supersonic.

D. None of the Above.

Solutions

Infrasonic sounds: Frequency below 20 Hz
Audible sounds: Frequency 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
Ultrasonic sounds: Frequency above 20,000 Hz
Supersonic: Refers to speed (faster than sound), not frequency

Final Answer: Infrasonic

55. Nichrome is an alloy of which of the following?

A. Ni, Cr, Mn and Fe

B. Ni, Cr, Mg and Fe

C. Ni, Cu, Mn and Fe

D. Ni, Cr, Mn and Al

Solutions

Nichrome is a popular alloy used in heating elements like electric heaters, toasters, and hair dryers because it has:

High resistivity
High melting point
Oxidation resistance

Composition of Nichrome:

Ni – Nickel
Cr – Chromium
Mn – Manganese
Fe – Iron

Why others are wrong:

Mg (Magnesium) and Al (Aluminum) are not used in nichrome.
Cu (Copper) is also not a component of nichrome.

Final Answer: Ni, Cr, Mn and Fe

56. Fat in body is stored in which tissue?

A. Areolar tissue

B. Epithelial tissue

C. Adipose tissue

D. Mascular tissue

Solutions

Fat in the body is stored in adipose tissue.

Adipose tissue is made up of specialized cells called adipocytes, which store energy in the form of fat and also help insulate and protect the body.

Correct answer: Adipose tissue

57. _______ gas is used as an illuminating gas.

A. Methyl

B. Propane

C. Acetylene

D. Ethyne

Solutions

Propane gas is used as an illuminating gas. It is commonly used in cooking as Liquified Natural Petroleum (LPG). Acetylene is also used in carbide lamps for bright, illuminating flames.

The correct answer is Propane.

58. Which of the following type of tissues is capable of cell division?

A. Meristematic tissue

B. Sclerenchyma

C. Parenchyma

D. Collenchyma

Solutions

Explanation:
Meristematic tissue in plants contains undifferentiated cells that can divide repeatedly to form new cells. These tissues are found in the growing regions of plants, such as the tips of roots and stems. The main function of meristematic tissue is to promote plant growth by continuously producing new cells through active cell division. Other tissues like sclerenchyma, parenchyma, and collenchyma do not have this continuous capacity for cell division.

Correct answer: Meristematic tissue

59. Which one of the following acids is used in the car-batteries?

A. Acetic Acid

B. Hydrochloric Acid

C. Sulphuric Acid

D. Nitric Acid

Solutions

The acid used in car batteries is Sulphuric Acid.

Sulphuric acid acts as the electrolyte in lead-acid batteries, which are commonly used in automobiles.

60. Which of the following animals can produce ultrasound?

A. Moths

B. Porpoises

C. Shark

D. Elephant

Solutions

Explanation:
Porpoises, like dolphins, use ultrasound (high-frequency sound waves above the range of human hearing) for echolocation to navigate and hunt underwater. Moths can detect ultrasound, but they do not produce it. Sharks and elephants do not produce ultrasound; elephants communicate using infrasound (sounds below the range of human hearing).

Correct answer: Porpoises

61. Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive system in Plants?

A. Stigma

B. Style

C. Ovary

D. Fallopian tube

Solutions

Explanation:

The female reproductive system in plants consists of the stigma, style, and ovary—these together make up the pistil or carpel, which is the central female reproductive structure in flowers.

The Fallopian tube is not found in plants; it is a part of the female reproductive system in animals, specifically mammals, where it transports eggs from the ovary to the uterus.

Correct answer: Fallopian tube

62. The period of life, when the body undergoes changes leading to reproductive maturity is called __________.

A. maturity

B. adolescence

C. cloning

D. budding

Solutions

The correct answer is adolescence.

The period of life when the body undergoes changes leading to reproductive maturity is called adolescence.

Adolescence is the transitional stage between childhood and adulthood, marked by physical, hormonal, and psychological changes—including the onset of puberty—which lead to sexual and reproductive maturity.

63. Select the correct alternative that represents the answers for statements A and B respectively.: A. What is the fixed number of water molecules present in a formula unit of salt?

B. What is the number of water molecules in CuSO₄ 5H₂O?

A. Neutralization water, four

B. Crystallization water, five

C. Neutralization water, five

D. Crystallization water, two

Solutions

The correct alternative is: Crystallization water, five

The fixed number of water molecules present in a formula unit of salt is called crystallization water (or water of crystallization).
The number of water molecules in CuSO₄·5H₂O is five.

64. Which of the following is an example of non-metal displacement Redox reaction?

A. CH ₄ + 2O ₂ → CO ₂ + 2H ₂O

B. 2KClO ₃ → 2KCl + 3O ₂

C. Cr ₂O ₃ + 2Al → Al ₂O ₃ + 2Cr

D. 2Na + 2H ₂O → 2NaOH + H ₂

Solutions

The correct answer is: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

Explanation:

This reaction is an example of a non-metal displacement redox reaction because sodium (a metal) displaces hydrogen (a non-metal) from water, resulting in the formation of sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. The displacement of hydrogen (a non-metal) in this redox process qualifies it as a non-metal displacement redox reaction.

The other options represent combination, decomposition, or metal displacement reactions, not non-metal displacement redox reactions.

65. In human body, the food passes through a continuous canal which begins at ______ and ends at anus.

A. stomach

B. buccal cavity

C. food pipe

D. rectum

Solutions

The correct answer is buccal cavity.

In the human body, the food passes through a continuous canal which begins at the buccal cavity and ends at the anus.

The buccal cavity (mouth) is the starting point of the alimentary canal, where food intake and initial digestion occur before passing through the rest of the digestive tract.

66. Which of the following is soda lime?

A. Ca(OH)₂ + CaO

B. KOH + CaO

C. CaCl₂ + CaO

D. NaOH + CaO

Solutions

The correct answer is: NaOH + CaO

Explanation:
Soda lime is a mixture of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and calcium oxide (CaO). This combination is commonly used to absorb carbon dioxide in various applications, such as in anesthesia machines and rebreathers. Other options do not represent soda lime.

67. ________ is responsible for oxygen transportation in humans.

A. Mucus

B. Melanin

C. Lymph

D. Hemoglobin

Solutions

The correct answer is Hemoglobin.

Hemoglobin is responsible for oxygen transportation in humans.

Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it to tissues throughout the body. The other options—mucus, melanin, and lymph—do not transport oxygen.

68. Which of the following energy increases with speed?

A. Chemical energy

B. Potential energy

C. Kinetic energy

D. Electrical energy

Solutions

The correct answer is: Kinetic energy

Explanation:
The energy that increases with speed is called kinetic energy. The formula for kinetic energy is:

where mm is mass and vv is speed (velocity). As the speed of an object increases, its kinetic energy increases rapidly (since it’s proportional to the square of speed).
Other options—chemical energy, potential energy, and electrical energy—do not directly increase with speed.

69. In which of the following is the body of the plant differentiated into roots, stems and leaves?

A. Funaria

B. Chara

C. Marsilea

D. Marchantia

Solutions

The correct answer is: Marsilea

Explanation:
Among the options, Marsilea is a pteridophyte in which the plant body is clearly differentiated into roots, stems, and leaves. Pteridophytes are the first group of plants to show true differentiation of these organs. Funaria and Marchantia are bryophytes, and Chara is an alga; in these, the plant body is not distinctly divided into roots, stems, and leaves.

70. Which of the following is NOT based on the heating effect of current?

A. Electric heater

B. Electric bulb (with filament)

C. Electric iron

D. Microwave

Solutions

The correct answer is: Microwave

Explanation:

Electric heater, electric bulb (with filament), and electric iron all work on the heating effect of electric current (Joule heating), where current passes through a resistive element and generates heat.
A microwave oven does not use the heating effect of current. Instead, it uses microwaves (a form of electromagnetic radiation) to cause water molecules in food to vibrate, producing heat through dielectric heating rather than direct electrical resistance.

71. Which is the element having the highest atomic mass among the following?

A. Magnesium

B. Calcium

C. Chlorine

D. Sulphur

Solutions

The element having the highest atomic mass among the following is Calcium.

Magnesium: 24.305
Sulphur: 32.06
Chlorine: 35.45
Calcium: 40.078

Therefore, Calcium has the highest atomic mass among the given options.

72. A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of electrical energy are consumed by the bulb in 3 days? (1 unit = 1 kWh)

A. 3.00

B. 1.08

C. 2.16

D. 0.33

Solutions

The correct answer is: 3.00

Calculation:

Power of bulb = 100 W = 0.1 kW
Time used per day = 10 hours
Total time in 3 days = 10 × 3 = 30 hours
Energy consumed = Power × Time = 0.1 kW × 30 h = 3.0 kWh (units)

So, the bulb consumes 3.00 units of electrical energy in 3 days.

73. Which physical quantity is represented by the ratio of momentum and velocity of the body?

A. Velocity

B. Acceleration

C. Mass

D. Force

Solutions

The physical quantity represented by the ratio of momentum to velocity of a body is mass.

Explanation:
Momentum (p) = mass (m) × velocity (v)
So, p/v = m

Therefore, the correct answer is Mass.

74. Which of the following matches is correct?

A. Butene : CH₃ – CH₂ – CH = CH₂

B. Propane : CH₃ – CH₂ = CH₂

C. Pantene : CH₃ – CH₂ – CH – CH = CH₂

D. Ethane : CH₂ = CH₃

Solutions

The correct match is: Butene : CH₃ – CH₂ – CH = CH₂

Explanation:
Butene is an alkene with four carbon atoms and one double bond. The structure CH₃–CH₂–CH=CH₂ correctly represents 1-butene, a type of butene. The other options are incorrect because:

Propane is an alkane (should have only single bonds), not CH₃–CH₂=CH₂.
“Pantene” is likely a typo for “pentene,” but the given structure is incorrect for pentene.
Ethane is an alkane (CH₃–CH₃), not CH₂=CH₃, which would represent ethene (ethylene).

This matches your chemistry studies on hydrocarbons.

75. Which of the following cells are found in the liver of mammals?

A. Purkinje cells

B. Microglial cells

C. Kupffer cells

D. Sensory cells

Solutions

The correct answer is: Kupffer cells

Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the liver of mammals. They are responsible for removing foreign substances, pathogens, and cellular debris from the blood as it passes through the liver. Other cell types listed—Purkinje cells, microglial cells, and sensory cells—are not found in the liver.

76. ______ is NOT a covalent molecule.

Solutions

Correct Answer: The first option – Ca²⁺ and O²⁻ (Calcium and Oxygen ions)

Why the first option is NOT covalent:

Calcium (Ca) is a metal and Oxygen (O) is a non-metal.
Ca donates 2 electrons → becomes Ca²⁺
O accepts 2 electrons → becomes O²⁻
They form an ionic bond, not a covalent one.

Final Answer: The diagram with Ca²⁺ and O²⁻ – NOT a covalent molecule

77. What is the chemical name of Vinegar?

A. Lauric Acid

B. Acetic Acid

C. Malic Acid

D. Oxalic Acid

Solutions

The chemical name of vinegar is Acetic Acid.

Vinegar is an aqueous solution that typically contains 4–18% acetic acid by volume, making acetic acid its main component apart from water.

78. Cuboidal epithelium cells are found in __________.

A. Lungs

B. Oesophagus

C. Intestine

D. Salivary Glands

Solutions

Cuboidal epithelium cells are found in Salivary Glands.

Explanation:
Simple cuboidal epithelium is commonly found lining the ducts of secretory glands such as the salivary glands. These cube-shaped cells are specialized for secretion and absorption, which are key functions in glands like the salivary glands. The other options—lungs, oesophagus, and intestine—do not primarily feature cuboidal epithelium in their main tissue linings.

79. When air is heated, it transforms into

A. Lighter

B. Heavier

C. Colder

D. None of these

Solutions

The correct answer is Lighter.

Explanation:
Heating air causes its molecules to move faster and spread apart, decreasing its density. As a result, heated air is lighter than cooler air, which is why hot air rises.

80. In the Modern Periodic Table, period ____and ____ contain two metalloids each.

A. 4, 5

B. 3, 4

C. 5, 6

D. 6, 7

Solutions

In the Modern Periodic Table, period 4 and period 5 each contain two metalloids.

Period 4: Germanium (Ge) and Arsenic (As)
Period 5: Antimony (Sb) and Tellurium (Te)

Therefore, the correct answer is 4, 5.

81. Reserve food material in fungi is

A. Glycogen

B. Starch

C. Sucrose

D. Maltose

Solutions

The reserve food material in fungi is Glycogen.

Fungi store their energy in the form of glycogen, which is a polysaccharide similar to that found in animals. This distinguishes them from plants, which store energy primarily as starch.

82. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from ______.

A. Water

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Both from water and carbon dioxide

D. Sunlight

Solutions

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide.

Explanation:
The process of photosynthesis incorporates carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere. The carbon and oxygen atoms in glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) are derived from the CO₂ taken up by the plant. Water (H₂O) supplies the hydrogen atoms, and the oxygen released as a byproduct comes from water, not from the glucose molecule itself1.

83. Plasmodium is responsible for which of the following diseases ?

A. Common cold

B. Malaria

C. Typhoid

D. Pneumonia

Solutions

Plasmodium is responsible for Malaria.

Plasmodium is a genus of single-celled parasites that cause malaria in humans. The disease is transmitted through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Other diseases listed—common cold, typhoid, and pneumonia—are not caused by Plasmodium.

84. The members of a family of an element that all have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons are called:

A. isotopes

B. isotrones

C. isobars

D. isotones

Solutions

The correct answer is isotopes.

Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same atomic number) with different mass numbers due to varying numbers of neutrons.

85. How many images will be formed if the light is reflected from two mirrors facing each other?

A. Two images

B. Single image

C. No image

D. Infinite images

Solutions

If two mirrors are placed facing each other, infinite images will be formed.

Explanation:
When two mirrors face each other, light bounces back and forth between them, creating a series of multiple reflections. This results in the formation of an infinite number of images, as each mirror reflects the images formed by the other mirror repeatedly.

86. Which of the following is a thermosetting plastic?

A. Polythene

B. Bakelite

C. PVC

D. Polyester

Solutions

The thermosetting plastic among the options is Bakelite.

Explanation:
Bakelite is a classic example of a thermosetting plastic. Once it is molded and set by heating, it becomes hard and rigid, and cannot be melted or reshaped again. This distinguishes it from thermoplastics like polythene, PVC, and polyester, which can be softened and remolded multiple times.

87. -40 degrees Fahrenheit is equal to how many degrees on the Celsius scale?

A. + 40

B. – 32

C. – 40

D. 0

Solutions

The correct answer is – 40.

Explanation:
At –40°, the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales intersect, meaning –40°F is exactly –40°C. This is a unique point where both temperature scales show the same numerical value.

88. Animals of which one of the following phyla has segmented body?

A. Mollusca

B. Echinodermata

C. Aschelminthes

D. Annelida

Solutions

The animals of phylum Annelida have segmented bodies. Examples include earthworms and leeches. The segmentation is a key characteristic of this phylum, distinguishing them from Mollusca, Echinodermata, and Aschelminthes, which do not have segmented bodies.

Correct answer: Annelida

89. The mass of the Earth is ________.

A. 6 × 10 ^-23kg

B. 6 × 10 ²³kg

C. 6 × 10 ^-24kg

D. 6 × 10 ²⁴kg

Solutions

The mass of the Earth is 6 × 10²⁴ kg.

This is the scientifically accepted value for Earth’s mass. The other options are either much too small or too large by several orders of magnitude.

90. Roots, stems and leaves of some plants develop into new plants through the process of _______.

A. Fragmentation

B. Multiple fragmentation

C. Vegetative propagation

D. Uplift

Solutions

The correct answer is Vegetative propagation.

Vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction in which new plants grow from the vegetative parts of the parent plant, such as roots, stems, or leaves.

91. Where did the century-old Indian Iris tree collapse?

A. On the bank of the Ganges River

B. On the bank of the Yamuna River

C. On the bank of River Akhanda Godavari

D. On the bank of the Krishna River

Solutions

The century-old Indian Iris (Siris) tree collapsed on the bank of River Akhanda Godavari in East Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh.

92. Which of the following person appointed as the DG Hospital Services (Armed Forces)?

A. Lieutenant General Dr. Madhuri Kanitkar

B. Major Dr Payal Chhabra

C. Air Marshal Padma Bandopadhyay

D. Air Marshal Sadhna Saxena

Solutions

Lieutenant General Sadhna Saxena Nair (also known as Sadhna Saxena Nair) of the Indian Army was appointed as the first woman Director General, Hospital Services (Armed Forces) effective 23 October 2023, following her promotion to the rank of Air Marshal in the medical wing.
Neither Lieutenant General Dr. Madhuri Kanitkar nor Air Marshal Padma Bandopadhyay held the post of DG─Hospital Services; instead, they served in other medical leadership roles within their respective services.
Air Marshal Sadhna Saxena (Nair) has been appointed as the DG Hospital Services (Armed Forces).

93. Which city has commenced the Khelo India University Games 2024?

A. Guwahati

B. Agartala

C. Shillong

D. Dispur

Solutions

The correct answer is Guwahati.

The Khelo India University Games 2024 commenced in Guwahati. The opening ceremony was held at the Sarusajai Sports Complex in Guwahati, Assam.

94. Consider the following statements about the IFOAM -Organics International data:

1. India has emerged as one of the top 3 countries in the world where the area under organic agriculture expanded the maximum in 2020.

2. Brazil is at the first spot.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Solutions

Statement 1 is correct: According to IFOAM – Organics International data for 2020, India was among the top three countries worldwide where the area under organic agriculture expanded the most.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Brazil is not reported as holding the first spot for maximum expansion in organic agriculture area in 2020. The available data and reports do not support this claim.

Correct answer: Only 1

95. Which new toll collection system did Union Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari announce in 2024?

A. FASTag 2.0

B. QR code system

C. License Plate Recognition

D. Satellite-based

Solutions

The correct answer is Satellite-based.

Union Transport Minister Nitin Gadkari announced the introduction of a satellite-based (GPS/GNSS-based) toll collection system in 2024. This new system will use satellite technology to track the distance traveled by vehicles and deduct toll charges accordingly, replacing the traditional toll plazas and FASTag system over time.

96. Who won the Barcelona Open in 2024?

A. Stefanos Tsitsipas

B. Casper Ruud

C. Marta Kostyuk

D. Elena Rybakina

Solutions

The correct answer is Casper Ruud.

The winner of the Barcelona Open in 2024 was Casper Ruud. He defeated Stefanos Tsitsipas in the final with a score of 7–5, 6–3 to claim the singles title.

97. Where is the world’s first Vedic clock installed?

A. Jaipur

B. Varanasi

C. Ujjain

D. Haridwar

Solutions

Explanation

The Vedic clock is mounted on an 85-foot tower at Jantar Mantar in Ujjain, near the Government Jiwaji Observatory.
It displays time according to the ancient Indian traditional Panchang system, including planetary positions, Muhurat (auspicious timings), astrological calculations, and predictions.
The clock calculates time from one sunrise to the next, dividing this period into 30 parts, with each hour lasting 48 minutes according to Indian Standard Time (IST).
Ujjain is historically significant as a center of time calculation; the Tropic of Cancer passes through it, and it was once the reference point for world standard time about 300 years ago.

This makes Ujjain a fitting location for this unique clock that blends ancient Indian timekeeping with modern technology, symbolizing India’s rich cultural heritage and scientific tradition.

Correct answer: Ujjain

98. Which day is celebrated as the World Environment Day ?

A. 01 December

B. 05 March

C. 22 April

D. 05 June

Solutions

Explanation:

World Environment Day (WED) was established by the United Nations in 1972 during the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment.
The first World Environment Day was celebrated in 1973 with the theme “Only One Earth.”
Since then, it has been observed annually on 5th June to promote awareness and action for the protection of the environment.
It is the principal global platform for environmental outreach, involving over 150 countries worldwide.
Each year, WED focuses on a specific environmental theme to address pressing environmental issues.

Thus, the correct option is 05 June

99. Who will be appointed as 51st Chief Justice of India?

A. Justice J.B. Pardiwala

B. Justice Surya Kant

C. Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde

D. Justice Sanjiv Khanna

Solutions

Solution (For Government Exam Preparation):

The 51st Chief Justice of India is Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
He took oath as Chief Justice on 11 November 2024 and will serve until 13 May 2025.
Justice Sanjiv Khanna succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud.
After his retirement, Justice B.R. Gavai will become the 52nd Chief Justice of India.

Correct Option: Justice Sanjiv Khanna

100. What is the name of the scheme launched in 2022 for the welfare measures of the transgender community and for persons who are engaged in the act of begging?]

A. SMILE

B. SHINE

C. SHRI

D. RISE

Solutions

Explanation:

In 2022, the Government of India launched the SMILE scheme, which stands for “Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise.”
This umbrella scheme is specifically designed for the welfare of the transgender community and persons engaged in the act of begging.
The SMILE scheme has two sub-schemes:
- Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons
- Comprehensive Rehabilitation of Persons Engaged in the Act of Begging
The scheme aims to provide rehabilitation, medical facilities, counseling, education, skill development, and economic support to these marginalized groups.
The main goal is to bring transgender persons and those engaged in begging into the mainstream of society.

Correct option: SMILE

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