Bihar Cooperative Bank Prelims Full Test 3

Welcome to your Bihar Cooperative Bank Prelims Full Test 3

1. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Tamil Nadu’s latest application in the Supreme Court of India on the Mullaperiyar dam row shows that even 10 years after the Court’s decisive judgment allowing water to be stored till 142 ft. from the previously reduced 136 ft., several issues with Kerala still remain unresolved. In a rejoinder to Kerala’s reply in a case filed by an activist, Tamil Nadu, the beneficiary-owner State, has accused Kerala, where the dam is located, of “crying foul” about the safety of the 129-year-old structure, while at the same time “wilfully obstructing” work essential for its maintenance. Despite the constitution of three panels, i.e., a Supervisory Committee (which was reconstituted by having a technical member from each State in June 2022) and two sub-committees (one of which is under the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority) to ensure a high level of preparedness to face any disaster related to the dam, no one is any closer to finding a solution to the pending issues. Tamil Nadu’s grievance is that the reconstituted Supervisory Committee, despite having powers under the Dam Safety Act, 2021, had “miserably failed” to ensure that Kerala and its instrumentalities permit and facilitate dam strengthening and other related works. Tamil Nadu has also been pressing for the early completion of a comprehensive dam safety evaluation within five years, by December 30, 2026, as stipulated under the 2021 law.

But despite unresolved issues, judicial intervention has seen the adoption of rule curve, a tool in decision-making for smooth operation of the dam’s shutters, especially during floods, and the gate operation schedule, notwithstanding Kerala’s reservations. Apart from the dam-related issues, the proposal of a mega car parking project of the Kerala government is a matter of litigation. The conclusion of the Survey of India that the project site is outside the leased area has been disputed by Tamil Nadu. As for Kerala, dam safety has been its primary concern and it wants to proceed cautiously. It is time that the two State governments, which enjoy good relations, resumed bilateral negotiations to find a solution to pending problems while retaining their liberty to adopt legal recourse. Courts take their own time to arrive at their conclusion, even though Tamil Nadu has a more favourable track record with the Supreme Court than the other State on Mullaperiyar, going by the 2006 and 2014 judgements. As water and dam safety can be used by some elements to arouse emotions, the political leadership in both States should be proactive in thrashing out the differences. The ________ talks, even in the event of not leading to any major breakthrough, may at least provide both States an opportunity to appreciate each other’s position better and leave no room for vested interests to vitiate the atmosphere.

Question:

According to the passage, what has Tamil Nadu accused Kerala of in relation to the Mullaperiyar Dam row?

A. Not cooperating in dam strengthening efforts

B. Restricting water supply to Tamil Nadu

C. Increasing the water level unilaterally

D. Not adhering to the Supreme Court's judgments

E. None of the above

2. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Question:

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) There are three panels constituted to ensure preparedness for any disaster related to the dam.

B) Tamil Nadu seeks the early completion of a comprehensive dam safety evaluation by December 30, 2026.

C) Judicial intervention has resulted in the adoption of a rule curve for the operation of the dam's shutters.

A. Only A

B. A and B

C. B and C

D. A and C

E. A, B and C

3. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Question:

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "wilfully" as used in the context of the passage?

A. Accidentally

B. Deliberately

C. Reluctantly

D. Unknowingly

E. Forcefully

4. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Question:

Which of the following words is the antonym of "miserably" in the context provided in the passage?

A. Joyously

B. Successfully

C. Poorly

D. Woefully

E. Inadequately

5. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Question:

Which of the following should fill in the blanks taken from the first paragraph of the passage?

The ________ talks, even in the event of not leading to any major breakthrough, may at least provide both States an opportunity to appreciate each other’s position better and leave no room for vested interests to vitiate the atmosphere.

A. Bilateral

B. Legislative

C. Judicial

D. Formal

E. Informal

6. Directions: The following sentences form a paragraph. The rest of the sentences are marked as A, B, C, D, E, and F. Sentence 'C' is in the correct place. The rest of the sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and answer the following questions.

A. It is scheduled to take place in Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022.

B. In addition, the tournament will be the last to involve 32 teams, with an increase to 48 teams scheduled for the 2026 tournament in the United States, Mexico, and Canada.

C. This will be the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world, and the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.

D. The final is due to be held on 18 December 2022, which also is Qatar National Day.

E. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is scheduled to be the 22nd running of the FIFA World Cup competition.

F. The first match played at the tournament will be contested between Qatar and Ecuador at Al Bayt Stadium, Al Khor.

Question:

Which sentence should be the SECOND sentence in the paragraph?

A. E

B. A

C. F

D. D

E. B

7. Directions: The following sentences form a paragraph. The rest of the sentences are marked as A, B, C, D, E, and F. Sentence 'C' is in the correct place. The rest of the sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and answer the following questions.

A. It is scheduled to take place in Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022.

B. In addition, the tournament will be the last to involve 32 teams, with an increase to 48 teams scheduled for the 2026 tournament in the United States, Mexico, and Canada.

C. This will be the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world, and the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.

D. The final is due to be held on 18 December 2022, which also is Qatar National Day.

E. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is scheduled to be the 22nd running of the FIFA World Cup competition.

F. The first match played at the tournament will be contested between Qatar and Ecuador at Al Bayt Stadium, Al Khor.

Question:

Which sentence should be the FIFTH sentence in the paragraph?

A. F

B. B

C. E

D.D

E. A

8. Directions: The following sentences form a paragraph. The rest of the sentences are marked as A, B, C, D, E, and F. Sentence 'C' is in the correct place. The rest of the sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and answer the following questions.

A. It is scheduled to take place in Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022.

B. In addition, the tournament will be the last to involve 32 teams, with an increase to 48 teams scheduled for the 2026 tournament in the United States, Mexico, and Canada.

C. This will be the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world, and the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.

D. The final is due to be held on 18 December 2022, which also is Qatar National Day.

E. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is scheduled to be the 22nd running of the FIFA World Cup competition.

F. The first match played at the tournament will be contested between Qatar and Ecuador at Al Bayt Stadium, Al Khor.

Question:

Which sentence should be the SIXTH sentence in the paragraph?

A. A

B. F

C. B

D. E

E. D

9. Directions: The following sentences form a paragraph. The rest of the sentences are marked as A, B, C, D, E, and F. Sentence 'C' is in the correct place. The rest of the sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and answer the following questions.

A. It is scheduled to take place in Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022.

B. In addition, the tournament will be the last to involve 32 teams, with an increase to 48 teams scheduled for the 2026 tournament in the United States, Mexico, and Canada.

C. This will be the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world, and the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.

D. The final is due to be held on 18 December 2022, which also is Qatar National Day.

E. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is scheduled to be the 22nd running of the FIFA World Cup competition.

F. The first match played at the tournament will be contested between Qatar and Ecuador at Al Bayt Stadium, Al Khor.

Question:

Which sentence should be the FOURTH sentence in the paragraph?

A. B

B. A

C. E

D. F

E. D

10. Directions: The following sentences form a paragraph. The rest of the sentences are marked as A, B, C, D, E, and F. Sentence 'C' is in the correct place. The rest of the sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and answer the following questions.

A. It is scheduled to take place in Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022.

B. In addition, the tournament will be the last to involve 32 teams, with an increase to 48 teams scheduled for the 2026 tournament in the United States, Mexico, and Canada.

C. This will be the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world, and the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.

D. The final is due to be held on 18 December 2022, which also is Qatar National Day.

E. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is scheduled to be the 22nd running of the FIFA World Cup competition.

F. The first match played at the tournament will be contested between Qatar and Ecuador at Al Bayt Stadium, Al Khor.

Question:

Which sentence should be the FIRST sentence in the paragraph?

A. D

B. B

C. E

D. F

E. A

11. Direction: In the following question, a sentence is given divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). The error, if any, will only be in one part of the sentence. Choose the option with the part containing the error and mark it as your answer. If the sentence is free from errors, mark 'No error' as your answer.

Incursions into (A)/ Taiwan's air defence identification zone, (B)/ upwards the ante (C)/ in the Pacific Ocean (D).

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. No error

12. Direction: In the following question, a sentence is given divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). The error, if any, will only be in one part of the sentence. Choose the option with the part containing the error and mark it as your answer. If the sentence is free from errors, mark 'No error' as your answer.

Politics, as a practise, (A)/ whatever its professions, (B)/ has always been a great topic(C)/ of debate among older people. (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. No error

13. In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

Mahendra Singh Dhoni, over the past decade, (A)/ herald a new era for Indian cricket, (B)/ even as the World Cup firmly established the newest version of the game, (C)/ which had till then stumbled along with a whiff of irrelevance. (D)/ No error (E)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

14. In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

Kiva has loaned out (A) nearly a quarter of (B) a billion dollars to (C) small and medium businesses for 2005. (D)

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

E. No error

15. Directions: Given below are three sentences, one or more of them is incorrect. Identify the one(s) that are incorrect.

(A) More has changed on the economic front since the UP elections earlier this year.

(B) The voter will gravitate toward the free healthcare model because, under the present circumstances, the promise of unconditional welfare is many appealing.

(C) The ruling party does not have a compelling narrative for these changed economic circumstances, which are likely to persist in the near future.

A. Only A

B. Only B

C. Both A and B

D. Only C

E. Both B and C

16. Match the statement/s from column 1 with column 2 and vice versa. Also, find which of the following pairs of statements given in the options make/s contextually and grammatically correct sense.

Column 1	Column 2
A. There is very little change in the conjugal contract	D. For the wealthy, their perceptions of self, status and
B. National Family Health Survey (NFHS) data show that higher education levels	E. As there will be more demand for dowry then
C. Place within the community are more important	F. Could play a greater role than wealth in delaying a woman's marriage

A. Only E-A, C-F and B-D

B. Only B-F

C. Only D-C, B-F

D. Only E-C

E. Only B-D and F-C

17. Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentences can be formed. If one of the options makes it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1	Column 2
(A)At present, the central government decides which state-run refinery gets how much crude from each producer. Post this, the price is worked out on a traditional formula	(P) producers will be free to sell oil from their fields in the domestic market.
(B)Condition in Production Sharing Contracts (PSC) to sell crude oil to the government or its nominee or government companies will be waived	(Q)boost the Centre's royalty and cess income as they are charged as a percent of the price.
(C)The Cabinet has approved the deregulation of the sale of domestically-produced crude oil	(R) with Brent as a marker, instead of the global practice of a ‘five-cut’ – or yield of five most-used refined products – norm.

A. B-P

B. B-Q

C. A-R

D. C-P

E. None of these

18. Direction: In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. The phrases are labelled A, B and C in the first column and P, Q and R in the second column. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase in the second column to make it grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. Identify the correct option given below that gives the correct sequence in which one or more sentence can be formed . If one of the options make it possible for a meaningful sentence to be formed, indicate 'None of these' as your answer.

Column 1	Column 2
(A) The sudden curb on sugar exports, and difficulties of logistics, such as a shortage of trucks and railway wagons	(P) to let them ship out unrefined stocks as they grapple with mounting stockpiles
(B)India capped this season's exports at 10 million tonnes, a figure they had almost reached	(Q)already collected data from mills and exporters regarding raw sugar exports.
(C)Additional shipments from India, the world's biggest exporter of sugar after Brazil,	(R)could weigh on raw sugar futures , which are trading near their lowest in four months.

A. A-P

B. A-R

C. B-Q

D. C-R

E. None of these

19. In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, and C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with phrase from the second column to make grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Column 1	Column 2
A. A cable car taking visitors to a mountaintop view of some of northern Italy’s	D. relatively rare but doctors suspect that the sudden increase in the infection could further complicate India’s fight against the pandemic.
B. Scientists have unearthed a 43-million-year-old fossil of an extinct	E. products claiming to be cures and preventions are on the rise.
C. China reopened a key terminal at the world's third-busiest cargo, after a shutdown to	F. four-legged whale that once lived both on land and in the sea, making it amphibious.

A. A - E, B - D

B. C - E

C. B - F, C - E

D. B - F

E. None of these

20. Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Catharsis

A. After a long drought in ICC tournaments, India's victory brought a much-needed catharsis to their fans.

B. The coach emphasized the importance of catharsis to maintain team discipline and focus.C. His catharsis during the game was evident when he showed aggressive behavior on the field.

A. Only A

B. Both A & B

C. Only C

D. All A, B & C

E. None of these

21. Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Egregious

A. The company's egregious abuse of labour laws drew international condemnation.

B. She made an egregious effort to correct the mistake, impressing her supervisor.C. His egregious error cost the team the championship.

A. Only A

B. Both A & C

C. Only B

D. All A, B & C

E. None of these

22. Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Cognizant

A. She was fully cognizant of the potential risks involved in the project.

B. The cognizant cat jumped gracefully from the fence to the ground.C. They remained cognizant of the changes in their environment during the expedition.

A. Only A

B. Both A & C

C. Only B

D. All A, B & C

E. None of these

23. Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Ordeal

A. The trial was a long and painful ordeal for everyone involved.

B. Cooking a simple meal should not be such an ordeal.C. Reading the book was an ordeal of enjoyment and excitement.

A. Only A

B. Both A & B

C. Only C

D. All A, B & C

E. None of these

24. Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Queer

A. The market situation has queer trends that defy traditional predictions.

B. The magician performed queer tricks that astonished the audience.C. They decided to queer a book that was full of mysterious stories.

A. Only A

B. Both A & B

C. Only C

D. All A, B & C

E. None of these

25. Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The inertia(A) emanates(B) from the reffusal(C) to recognize that a lot of the old grammar(D) of politics has been overturned(E).

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

26. Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

The Hispanics(A) had hoped for solid movemant(B) on the all-important issue(C) of immigration(D) which has turned out to be a huge disappointment(E).

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

27. Directions: In the following sentence, five words are given in bold, out of which one word is misspelled. Find the misspelled word.

Children who are eligible(A) for admission(B) in nursary(C) or classes one and two will need special(D) attention(E).

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

28. Directions: In each of the questions given below, three words are given in bold. These three words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.

Deep inside the portal(A) lies a mysterious(B) door, rumoured to be a forest (C) to the underworld.

A. CAB

B. ABC

C. BCA

D. CBA

E. None of the above.

29. Directions: In each of the questions given below, three words are given in bold. These three words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.

He was hope (A) and weak, still, he kept going on with the tired (B) of finding (C) a silver lining.

A. BAC

B. CAB

C. ACB

D. ABC

E. None of the above.

30. Directions: In each of the questions given below, three words are given in bold. These three words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.

The over killing(A) car fell off the bridge and crashed(B) into a nearby store, speeding(C) two.

A. CAB

B. BCA

C. CBA

D. ACB

E. None of the above.

31. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are placed one above the other vertically, not necessarily in the same order. Only five boxes are placed between H and I. D is placed immediately above I. Only three boxes are placed between C and D. As many boxes between C and H, as between D and G. F is placed below G but not at the bottom. More than four boxes are placed between D and F. One box is placed between F and E. Box G is placed above A

Question:

Find the odd one out.

A. CF

B. IG

C. HA

D. DC

E. EF

32. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Question:

How many boxes were placed between D and F?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. Five

33. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Question:

Which box is placed second from the bottom?

A. F

B. E

C. C

D. A

E. H

34. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Question:

Which box is placed three places below B?

A. A

B. C

C. D

D. E

E. F

35. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Question:

If B and G interchange their places, which box is placed two places above C?

A. D

B. I

C. B

D. G

E. A

36. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work in different banks i.e. PNB, Canara and SBI. A minimum of two persons and a maximum of three persons work in each bank.

E does not work in SBI. E and G work in different banks. B works with G but does not work in PNB bank. F does not work with E and B. A does not work in Canara Bank. H works in the bank along with D but does not work in SBI. C works with A but does not work with F and B.

Question:

In which bank, does the maximum number of persons work?

A. PNB

B. Canara

C. SBI

D. Both (2) and (3)

E. Both (1) and (2)

37. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work in different banks i.e. PNB, Canara and SBI. A minimum of two persons and a maximum of three persons work in each bank.

Question:

Who works in Canara bank?

A. C

B. A

C. The person who works with G.

D. The person who works with F.

E. B

38. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work in different banks i.e. PNB, Canara and SBI. A minimum of two persons and a maximum of three persons work in each bank.

Question:

D works in which bank?

A. SBI

B. Canara

C. PNB

D. Either (1) or (3)

E. Either (2) or (3)

39. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work in different banks i.e. PNB, Canara and SBI. A minimum of two persons and a maximum of three persons work in each bank.

Question:

Find the odd one out:

A. AC

B. HF

C. BD

D. AE

E. DF

40. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work in different banks i.e. PNB, Canara and SBI. A minimum of two persons and a maximum of three persons work in each bank.

Question:

Which of the following statement is true?

A. B and E do not work in Canara.

B. G and C work in same bank.

C. C and A work in SBI.

D. More than one is true.

E. None is true.

41. Direction: In the question below, there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows them from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All brain is good.

All study is boring.

No brain is study.

Conclusions:

I. No good is study.

II. Some brain can be boring.

A. Both follow

B. Only I follow

C. Neither I or II follow

D. Only II follow

E. Either I or II follow

42. Direction: In the question below, there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows them from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some machine is not oil.

Some oil is iron.

Some iron is not game.

Conclusions:

I. All game can be machine.

II. Some oil is not game.

A. Either I or II follow

B. None follow

C. Both follow

D. Only I follow

E. Only II follow

43. In each question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

Only father is brother.

Some father is mother.

Some mother is son.

Conclusions:

I. Some son is father

II. No son is father.

A. Only I follows

B. Both I and II follow

C. Only II follows

D. Either I or II follows

E. None follows

44. Direction: Read the following and answer the given questions:

Six friends M, N, O, P, Q, and R each got different marks in the examination. P score more than R. All having lesser marks than O. M score more than Q and less than R.P does not score maximum marks. The one who scores the least marks scores 31 marks. Q score is not an odd number. The one who scores the 4th highest score 52 marks.

Question:

Who score the least marks?

A. N

B. R

C. Q

D. M

E. O

45. Direction: Read the following and answer the given questions:

Question:

Who among the following person has scored third highest marks?

A. Q

B. R

C. N

E. O

E. Either R or N

46. Direction: Read the following and answer the given questions:

Question:

If P's score is 61 marks then what may be the score of R?

A. 58

B. 68

C. 51

D. 64

E. None of these

47. How many pair of letters are there in the word "LABIALISE" that has as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet? (Both forward & backward direction)

A. Two

B. Four

C. One

D. Three

E. More than four

48. Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

There are eight friends D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K sitting around a circular table and all are facing the centre. They all are from different countries – Poland, Germany, Denmark, Russia, Spain, Ireland, France and Italy but not necessarily in the same order.

J who is from Germany sits just opposite the person from Russia. F is neither from Denmark nor from Ireland. I is sitting third to the right of E, who is from Italy. G is sitting to the immediate left of the person from Ireland. E is sitting to the immediate left of H, who is from Russia. The person from France and K are sitting opposite each other. I is neither from France nor from Denmark and D is from Poland. D and I are the immediate neighbours.

Question:

Which of the following statement is true?

I. I is from Ireland and sitting opposite to one from Spain

II. France and Poland are sitting opposite to each other

III. One who is from Italy is second to the left of G.

A. Only I is true

B. Only II is true

C. Only III is true

D. All I , II and III are true

E. Only I and III is true

49. Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Question:

How many person/persons are sitting between K and G in anticlockwise direction from K?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

50. Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Question:

Who is sitting third to the right of the person from Poland?

A. F

B. D

C. I

D. G

E. E

51. Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Question:

Who is sitting to the immediate left of the person from Denmark?

A. D

B. The person from France

C. E

D. The person from Germany

E. The person from Italy

52. Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Question:

Who is the immediate neighbour of E?

A. H

B. G

C. K

D. D

E. None of these

53. Direction: Following questions are based on the five words given below.
XGN KCS CQZ IWE DTF
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

Question:

If both the first and second alphabets in each of the words are changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, which of the following words will have only two vowels after rearrangement?

A. XGN

B. KCS

C. CQZ

D. IWE

E. DTF

54. Direction: Following questions are based on the five words given below.
XGN KCS CQZ IWE DTF
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

Question:

If the letter of given words are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right within the words then which of the following words will remain unchanged?

A. XGN

B. KCS

C. CQZ

D. IWE

E. DTF

55. Direction: Following questions are based on the five words given below.
XGN KCS CQZ IWE DTF
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

Question:

If all the alphabets are assigned numbers starting from A till Z (i.e. A = 1, B = 2, and so on), then what will be the sum of IWE?

A. 37

B. 41

C. 45

D. 39

E. 33

56. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.

If in the word "NEEDFUL" each consonant is replaced by the next alphabet and each vowel is replaced by the previous alphabet in the English alphabetical order then, which of the following will be the fifth letter from the left end?

A. D

B. G

C. T

D. O

E. None of these

57. Find the odd one out from the given options:

A. CACD

B. SQRS

C. PNPQ

D. LJLM

E. HFHI

58. Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Ten Candidates are sitting in two parallel rows in such a way that in Row 1 A, B, C, D, and E are sitting facing south, and in Row 2 P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting facing north. B sits to the left of A. Two persons sit between R and T. One persons sit between D and E, who does not sit next to C. At most two person sits right of D. S sits three places away from Q. The number of persons sitting to the right of A is equal to the number of persons sitting to the right of Q. The person who sits opposite to T sits four places away from C. A sits second from the end. T sits to the right of S. D sits Immediate next to the one who is facing Q.

Question:

What is position of P with respect to C?

A. Immediate right of one who faces C

B. Second to the right of one who faces C

C. Immediate left of one who faces C

D. Second to the left of one who faces C

E. None of these

59. Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Question:

Who among the following sits right of B?

I: A

II: D

III. E

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Only I and II

D. Only I and III

E. None of these

60. Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Question:

If position of D and E are interchanged, then who is sitting exactly opposite to E?

A. Q

B. R

C. S

D. P

E. T

61. Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Question:

How many person are sitting in between One who faces A and one who faces E?

A. One

B. One who faces A is immediate left of one who faces E

C. Three

D. One who faces A is immediate right of one who faces E

E. Two

62. Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Question:

Who is sitting immediate left of R?

A. T

B. P

C. S

D. Q

E. R is sitting in the end

63. Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follows:

There are 8 houses H1, H2, H3, H4, H5, H7, H8, and H9 in a locality. H2 is 10m to the south of H1. H3 is 7m in the west of H5. H4 is 3m in the east of H2. H5 is exactly between H1 and H2. H7 is 4m in the north of H4. H8 is 8m west of H9. H7 is exactly between H8 and H9.

Question:

What is the shortest distance between H2 and H7?

A. 7m

B. 8m

C. 5m

D. 10m

E. 1m

64. Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follows:

Question:

What is the total distance covered by a person if he has to go to H3 from H8?

A. 5√2m

B. 15m

C. 6m

D. 14m

E. 9m

65. Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the question that follows:

Question:

H9 is in which direction with respect to H2?

A. None of these

B. Northeast

C. Southwest

D. Southeast

E. Northwest

66. Two men A and B can finish a piece of work in 9 and 12 days respectively. With the help of C, they complete the work in 4 days. If the contract fee was Rs. 7200, find how much C is paid.

A. 800

B. 1600

C. 2400

D. 3200

E. 6400

67. The average age of 40 students of a class is 15 years. When 10 new students are admitted, the average age is increased by 0.2 years. The average age of new students is

A. 15.2 years

B. 16 years

C. 16.2 years

D. 16.4 years

E. 15.6 years

68. Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The below table shows the data of four different candy shops (A, B, C, and D) selling four different types of candies.

Shops	Cotton candy	Lollipop	Milkybar	Jellybeans
A	200	160	230	165
B	180	150	170	215
C	240	180	190	180
D	220	200	210	220

Question:

The price per candy of the Jellybean candies sold by shop C is Rs 5. Then find the total revenue generated by shop C by selling 60% of the Jellybean.

A. Rs. 520

B. Rs. 540

C. Rs. 560

D. Rs. 600

E. Rs. 620

69. Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The below table shows the data of four different candy shops (A, B, C, and D) selling four different types of candies.

Shops	Cotton candy	Lollipop	Milkybar	Jellybeans
A	200	160	230	165
B	180	150	170	215
C	240	180	190	180
D	220	200	210	220

Question:

The price for each Cotton candy sold by all the shops is Rs.10. Then find the total revenue generated by all the shop by selling the Cotton candies.

A. Rs. 7200

B. Rs. 7800

C. Rs. 8000

D. Rs. 8200

E. Rs. 8400

70. Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The below table shows the data of four different candy shops (A, B, C, and D) selling four different types of candies.

Shops	Cotton candy	Lollipop	Milkybar	Jellybeans
A	200	160	230	165
B	180	150	170	215
C	240	180	190	180
D	220	200	210	220

Question:

If shop D sold 40% of the Lollipop candies for Rs 5. per piece. Then find the total revenue generated by shop D by selling all the remaining Lollipop candies at the price of Rs. 8.

A. Rs. 1360

B. Rs. 1380

C. Rs. 1400

D. Rs. 1420

E. Rs. 1440

71. Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The below table shows the data of four different candy shops (A, B, C, and D) selling four different types of candies.

Shops	Cotton candy	Lollipop	Milkybar	Jellybeans
A	200	160	230	165
B	180	150	170	215
C	240	180	190	180
D	220	200	210	220

Question:

Find the ratio of total Milkybar candies sold by shop D to the total Jellybean candies sold by shop A.

A. 12 : 13

B. 13 : 14

C. 11 : 14

D. 14 : 11

E. 14 : 13

72. Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The below table shows the data of four different candy shops (A, B, C, and D) selling four different types of candies.

Shops	Cotton candy	Lollipop	Milkybar	Jellybeans
A	200	160	230	165
B	180	150	170	215
C	240	180	190	180
D	220	200	210	220

Question:

Find the total number of all types of candies sold by shop B.

A. 685

B. 725

C. 715

D. 735

E. 705

73. The principal amount of Rs. 27000 is invested in the ratio of 4 : 5 in simple interest at the rate of interest 20% and 24% respectively for 4 years. Find the total simple interest.

A. Rs. 25000

B. Rs. 20000

C. Rs. 17000

D. Rs. 12000

E. Rs. 24000

74. Cost of two types of wheat is Rs. 12 and Rs. 16 per kg respectively. If both the wheats are mixed together on the ratio 3 : 5, then what should be the price of mixed variety of wheat per kg?

A. Rs. 12.5

B. Rs. 14.5

C. Rs. 16.5

D. Rs. 17.5

E. Rs. 18.5

75. Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the following questions:

The Bar Graph given below shows the number of ice creams and chocolates sold by four different companies.

Question:

What is the ratio of the total number of Ice creams and Chocolates sold by the four companies?

A. 27:32

B. 29:31

C. 26:33

D. 23:32

E. None of these

75. Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the following questions:

The Bar Graph given below shows the number of ice creams and chocolates sold by four different companies.

A. 40%, 16.66%

B. 25%, 21.21%

C. 25%, 16.66%

D. 24%, 16%

E. 18%, 6.66%

77. Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the following questions:

The Bar Graph given below shows the number of ice creams and chocolates sold by four different companies.

Question:

What is the difference between the total number of Ice creams and chocolates sold by company P and Q and the total number of chocolates sold by company R and S?

A. 1955

B. 1950

C. 1900

D. 1850

E. 1940

78. Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the following questions:

The Bar Graph given below shows the number of ice creams and chocolates sold by four different companies.

Question:

The number of chocolates sold by company U is 25% more than the number of ice creams sold by company Q. Find the average of the number of chocolates sold by all five companies together.

A. 865

B. 825

C. 805

D. 860

E. 820

79. Direction: Read the following graph carefully and answer the following questions:

The Bar Graph given below shows the number of ice creams and chocolates sold by four different companies.

Question:

The number of chocolates sold by company P and Q together is what percentage more than the number of ice creams sold by company Q and R together?

A. 5%

B. 5%

C. 30%

D. 40%

E. 20%

80. A boat whose speed is 20 kmph in still water. The same boat goes 60 km downstream and the same distance upstream in 8 hours. Find the total time taken by boat to travel 30km downstream and 40km upstream.

A. 9 hours

B. 5 hours

C. 2 hours

D. 8 hours

E. 10 hours

81. Two books are sold at Rs 1250 each with 0% loss and 0% profit. If one of the book was sold at 20% loss than the other is sold at what profit %

A. 15%

B. 25%

C. 30%

D. 20%

E. 35%

82. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x² – 23x + 126 = 0

II. y² + 24y + 119 = 0

A. x > y

B. x < y

C. x ≥ y

D. x ≤ y

E. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

83. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. x² – 22x + 117 = 0

II. y² – 32y + 255 = 0

A. x > y

B. x < y

C. x ≥ y

D. x ≤ y

E. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

84. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 5x² – 13x – 6 = 0

II. 5y² + 22y + 8 = 0

A. x > y

B. x < y

C. x ≥ y

D. x ≤ y

E. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

85. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 5x² – 23x + 26 = 0

II. 10y² – 29y + 19 = 0

A. x > y

B. x < y

C. x ≥ y

D. x ≤ y

E. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

86. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 3x² – 10x – 8 = 0

II. 2y² + y –15 = 0

A. x > y

B. x < y

C. x ≥ y

D. x ≤ y

E. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

87. If the difference between the value of the number increased by 30% and the value of the number decreased by 10% is 28. Find the number.

A. 65

B. 67

C. 70

D. 23

E. 45

88. is divided into two parts in such a way that fifth part of the first and the eighth part of the second are in the ratio of 3 : 4. Find the first part.

A. 27

B. 30

C. 20

D. 64

E. 57

89. In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

22, 21, 41, 128, 513, 2564

A. 128

B. 513

C. 2564

D. 21

E. 41

90. Which is the wrong term in the following series?54 57 62 69 78 90 102

A. 57

B. 69

C. 90

D. 78

E. 62

91. Find out the wrong number.21, 29, 151, 971, 7100, 66781

A. 29

B. 151

C. 971

D. 7100

E. 21

92. Find out the wrong term in the given number series.5, 7, 11, 20, 27, 43, 69

A. 11

B. 20

C. 27

D. 43

E. 69

93. Which is the wrong term in the following series?16, 10, 8, 16, 64, 512, 8192

A. 16

B. 512

C. 10

D. 8

E. 64

94. Neha could see 600 meters during fog when she was moving with 5 km/hr. She saw a train coming from behind and disappeared in 4 min. If the length of the train is 400 m. Then, find the speed of the train (in km/h)?

A. 32

B. 30

C. 28

D. 24

E. 29

95. What approximate value should come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation:

78.1 + 21.89 – 22.01 × 2.89 = ?

A. 40

B. 33

C. 22

D. 34

E. 55

96. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

285.7 + 296.8 – 152.1 – 181.4 = ?

A. 250

B. 248

C. 249

D. 245

E. 239

97. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

12 × 3.5 + 12³ – 32² – 119 × 6 ÷ 42 = ?³

A. 11

B. 729

C. 81

D. 9

E. None of these

98. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

6.4 ÷ 1.6 of 5 + 1.3 × 3.1 - 0.03 = ?

A. 22

B. 4.8

C. 30

D. 20

E. 28

99. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

8 × (1/2) ÷ 2 + 8 ÷ 16 × 4 – 3 × 2 ÷ 4 × 2 = 2^?

A. 0

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1

E. 4

100. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

37% of 50 – 55% of 250 = ? - {60 (200 – 99 × 2) ÷ 4}

A. 89

B. -89

C. 126

D. 186

E. None of these.

Bihar Cooperative Bank Prelims Full Test 3

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