SBI PO Prelims Full Test 5

Directions: The given sentence is divided into four parts A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark 'No error' as your answer.

The company's holistic approach places a strong emphasis (A) on fostering innovation, encourage seamless collaboration (B) among diverse teams, and maintaining an unwavering dedication (C) to consistently delivering exceptional quality. (D)

Directions: The given sentence is divided into four parts A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark 'No error' as your answer.

The surgeon's remarkable skill was evident (A) as she performed intricate procedures, deftly manipulating (B) delicate tissues, meticulously suturing minute incisions, and orchestrates (C) a symphony of precision, all in the pursuit of restoring health and vitality. (D)

Directions: The given sentence is divided into four parts A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark 'No error' as your answer.

Despite the shocking nature of the news (A) that had just been revealed, she wasn't unfazed (B) by it at all, displaying a remarkable resilience (C) and composure that impressed everyone around her. (D)

. Directions: The given sentence is divided into four parts A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark 'No error' as your answer.

As the curious child attempted to stealthily peak through (A) the intricately adorned keyhole of the antique chest, (B) a fleeting glimpse of the mysterious treasure (C) concealed within sparked his imagination. (D)

Directions: The given sentence is divided into four parts A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark 'No error' as your answer.

The entrepreneur's achievements were a culmination of unyielding determination, (A) calculated risk-taking, and tireless innovation, all of which underscored (B) his ability to navigate the complex landscape of business (C) with a blend of creativity and strategic acumen. (D)

Directions: The given sentence is divided into four parts A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark 'No error' as your answer.

 Despite our diligent efforts, we couldn't hardly find (A) any tangible evidence whatsoever to (B) even remotely suggest that they weren't in any way involved (C) in the perplexing series of events that transpired. (D)

Directions: The given sentence is divided into four parts A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark 'No error' as your answer.

The new professor's lecture, while not lacking in intricate details, (A) failed to present nothing of value to the students (B) who were uninitiated and unfamiliar with (C) the profound depths of the subject matter. (D)

8. In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column phrases are A, B, C and in the second column, the phrases are D, E, F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these' as your answer.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Indian government is planning to team up with the private sector to study and test small modular reactors (SMRs). Nuclear energy is an important power source in the world’s energy mix as it waits for the development and maturation of (other) renewable energy technologies while fossil-fuel-based sources, especially coal, continue to remain relevant and more affordable. Nuclear power offers a sufficiently high and sustainable power output, even if externalised costs like those of building safe and reliable reactors and handling spent nuclear fuel complicate this calculus. Indeed, cost and time estimates that expand to nearly twice as much as at the point of a project’s commissioning are not unheard of. The nuclear power tariff is thus higher from ‘younger’ facilities, even if they also fill gaps that haunt power from renewable sources. SMRs, of 10 MWe-300 MWe each, are smaller versions of their conventional counterparts. They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs. But the challenge is to have this aspiration survive SMRs’ external costs.

The government’s privatisation of nuclear power generation will also increase the demand for regulatory safeguards against radioactive material being diverted for military use. The first-generation SMRs are expected to use low-enriched uranium in facilities assembled on-site with factory-made parts, to produce waste that can be handled using existing technologies and power that can be sold at economical rates. But the reactor will need frequent refuelling and will yield a consequential amount of plutonium; both outcomes will stress proliferation resistance. The IAEA has touted the use of ‘safeguardable’ reactor designs but such solutions will increase capital costs. Subsequent SMR generations may also require more enriched uranium, especially if their feasibility is pegged on longer periods of continuous generation, or more sophisticated systems to increase fuel-use efficiency, which would increase the operational surface area and the generation cost. In fact, nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost and safety expectations that do not change with energy output, which means SMR-based tariffs need not automatically be lower. This is why the Department of Atomic Energy increased its reactors’ capacity from 220 MW to 700 MW. SMRs’ ability to bolster the prospects of nuclear power in India will thus depend on their commercial viability — and in turn on the availability of less uncertain market conditions, stable grids, and opportunities to mass-produce parts — and the price of proliferation resistance.

Question:

Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "feasibility" as used in the passage?

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Indian government is planning to team up with the private sector to study and test small modular reactors (SMRs). Nuclear energy is an important power source in the world’s energy mix as it waits for the development and maturation of (other) renewable energy technologies while fossil-fuel-based sources, especially coal, continue to remain relevant and more affordable. Nuclear power offers a sufficiently high and sustainable power output, even if externalised costs like those of building safe and reliable reactors and handling spent nuclear fuel complicate this calculus. Indeed, cost and time estimates that expand to nearly twice as much as at the point of a project’s commissioning are not unheard of. The nuclear power tariff is thus higher from ‘younger’ facilities, even if they also fill gaps that haunt power from renewable sources. SMRs, of 10 MWe-300 MWe each, are smaller versions of their conventional counterparts. They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs. But the challenge is to have this aspiration survive SMRs’ external costs.

The government’s privatisation of nuclear power generation will also increase the demand for regulatory safeguards against radioactive material being diverted for military use. The first-generation SMRs are expected to use low-enriched uranium in facilities assembled on-site with factory-made parts, to produce waste that can be handled using existing technologies and power that can be sold at economical rates. But the reactor will need frequent refuelling and will yield a consequential amount of plutonium; both outcomes will stress proliferation resistance. The IAEA has touted the use of ‘safeguardable’ reactor designs but such solutions will increase capital costs. Subsequent SMR generations may also require more enriched uranium, especially if their feasibility is pegged on longer periods of continuous generation, or more sophisticated systems to increase fuel-use efficiency, which would increase the operational surface area and the generation cost. In fact, nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost and safety expectations that do not change with energy output, which means SMR-based tariffs need not automatically be lower. This is why the Department of Atomic Energy increased its reactors’ capacity from 220 MW to 700 MW. SMRs’ ability to bolster the prospects of nuclear power in India will thus depend on their commercial viability — and in turn on the availability of less uncertain market conditions, stable grids, and opportunities to mass-produce parts — and the price of proliferation resistance.

Question:

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "bolster" as used in the passage?

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Indian government is planning to team up with the private sector to study and test small modular reactors (SMRs). Nuclear energy is an important power source in the world’s energy mix as it waits for the development and maturation of (other) renewable energy technologies while fossil-fuel-based sources, especially coal, continue to remain relevant and more affordable. Nuclear power offers a sufficiently high and sustainable power output, even if externalised costs like those of building safe and reliable reactors and handling spent nuclear fuel complicate this calculus. Indeed, cost and time estimates that expand to nearly twice as much as at the point of a project’s commissioning are not unheard of. The nuclear power tariff is thus higher from ‘younger’ facilities, even if they also fill gaps that haunt power from renewable sources. SMRs, of 10 MWe-300 MWe each, are smaller versions of their conventional counterparts. They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs. But the challenge is to have this aspiration survive SMRs’ external costs.

The government’s privatisation of nuclear power generation will also increase the demand for regulatory safeguards against radioactive material being diverted for military use. The first-generation SMRs are expected to use low-enriched uranium in facilities assembled on-site with factory-made parts, to produce waste that can be handled using existing technologies and power that can be sold at economical rates. But the reactor will need frequent refuelling and will yield a consequential amount of plutonium; both outcomes will stress proliferation resistance. The IAEA has touted the use of ‘safeguardable’ reactor designs but such solutions will increase capital costs. Subsequent SMR generations may also require more enriched uranium, especially if their feasibility is pegged on longer periods of continuous generation, or more sophisticated systems to increase fuel-use efficiency, which would increase the operational surface area and the generation cost. In fact, nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost and safety expectations that do not change with energy output, which means SMR-based tariffs need not automatically be lower. This is why the Department of Atomic Energy increased its reactors’ capacity from 220 MW to 700 MW. SMRs’ ability to bolster the prospects of nuclear power in India will thus depend on their commercial viability — and in turn on the availability of less uncertain market conditions, stable grids, and opportunities to mass-produce parts — and the price of proliferation resistance.

Question:

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: "They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs."

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Indian government is planning to team up with the private sector to study and test small modular reactors (SMRs). Nuclear energy is an important power source in the world’s energy mix as it waits for the development and maturation of (other) renewable energy technologies while fossil-fuel-based sources, especially coal, continue to remain relevant and more affordable. Nuclear power offers a sufficiently high and sustainable power output, even if externalised costs like those of building safe and reliable reactors and handling spent nuclear fuel complicate this calculus. Indeed, cost and time estimates that expand to nearly twice as much as at the point of a project’s commissioning are not unheard of. The nuclear power tariff is thus higher from ‘younger’ facilities, even if they also fill gaps that haunt power from renewable sources. SMRs, of 10 MWe-300 MWe each, are smaller versions of their conventional counterparts. They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs. But the challenge is to have this aspiration survive SMRs’ external costs.

The government’s privatisation of nuclear power generation will also increase the demand for regulatory safeguards against radioactive material being diverted for military use. The first-generation SMRs are expected to use low-enriched uranium in facilities assembled on-site with factory-made parts, to produce waste that can be handled using existing technologies and power that can be sold at economical rates. But the reactor will need frequent refuelling and will yield a consequential amount of plutonium; both outcomes will stress proliferation resistance. The IAEA has touted the use of ‘safeguardable’ reactor designs but such solutions will increase capital costs. Subsequent SMR generations may also require more enriched uranium, especially if their feasibility is pegged on longer periods of continuous generation, or more sophisticated systems to increase fuel-use efficiency, which would increase the operational surface area and the generation cost. In fact, nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost and safety expectations that do not change with energy output, which means SMR-based tariffs need not automatically be lower. This is why the Department of Atomic Energy increased its reactors’ capacity from 220 MW to 700 MW. SMRs’ ability to bolster the prospects of nuclear power in India will thus depend on their commercial viability — and in turn on the availability of less uncertain market conditions, stable grids, and opportunities to mass-produce parts — and the price of proliferation resistance.

Question:

According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

A) The passage suggests that SMRs will reduce the need for regulatory safeguards.

B) Nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost that does not change with energy output.

C) Subsequent generations of SMRs may require more enriched uranium for longer periods of continuous generation.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Indian government is planning to team up with the private sector to study and test small modular reactors (SMRs). Nuclear energy is an important power source in the world’s energy mix as it waits for the development and maturation of (other) renewable energy technologies while fossil-fuel-based sources, especially coal, continue to remain relevant and more affordable. Nuclear power offers a sufficiently high and sustainable power output, even if externalised costs like those of building safe and reliable reactors and handling spent nuclear fuel complicate this calculus. Indeed, cost and time estimates that expand to nearly twice as much as at the point of a project’s commissioning are not unheard of. The nuclear power tariff is thus higher from ‘younger’ facilities, even if they also fill gaps that haunt power from renewable sources. SMRs, of 10 MWe-300 MWe each, are smaller versions of their conventional counterparts. They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs. But the challenge is to have this aspiration survive SMRs’ external costs.

The government’s privatisation of nuclear power generation will also increase the demand for regulatory safeguards against radioactive material being diverted for military use. The first-generation SMRs are expected to use low-enriched uranium in facilities assembled on-site with factory-made parts, to produce waste that can be handled using existing technologies and power that can be sold at economical rates. But the reactor will need frequent refuelling and will yield a consequential amount of plutonium; both outcomes will stress proliferation resistance. The IAEA has touted the use of ‘safeguardable’ reactor designs but such solutions will increase capital costs. Subsequent SMR generations may also require more enriched uranium, especially if their feasibility is pegged on longer periods of continuous generation, or more sophisticated systems to increase fuel-use efficiency, which would increase the operational surface area and the generation cost. In fact, nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost and safety expectations that do not change with energy output, which means SMR-based tariffs need not automatically be lower. This is why the Department of Atomic Energy increased its reactors’ capacity from 220 MW to 700 MW. SMRs’ ability to bolster the prospects of nuclear power in India will thus depend on their commercial viability — and in turn on the availability of less uncertain market conditions, stable grids, and opportunities to mass-produce parts — and the price of proliferation resistance.

Question:

Which of the following sentence/s can be inferred from the passage?

A. The cost of renewable energy technologies is currently an obstacle to fully replacing fossil fuels.

B. The capital costs of maintaining nuclear reactors are influenced by safety and regulatory requirements.

C. SMRs may face challenges in achieving lower tariffs despite their smaller size and modular design.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Indian government is planning to team up with the private sector to study and test small modular reactors (SMRs). Nuclear energy is an important power source in the world’s energy mix as it waits for the development and maturation of (other) renewable energy technologies while fossil-fuel-based sources, especially coal, continue to remain relevant and more affordable. Nuclear power offers a sufficiently high and sustainable power output, even if externalised costs like those of building safe and reliable reactors and handling spent nuclear fuel complicate this calculus. Indeed, cost and time estimates that expand to nearly twice as much as at the point of a project’s commissioning are not unheard of. The nuclear power tariff is thus higher from ‘younger’ facilities, even if they also fill gaps that haunt power from renewable sources. SMRs, of 10 MWe-300 MWe each, are smaller versions of their conventional counterparts. They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs. But the challenge is to have this aspiration survive SMRs’ external costs.

The government’s privatisation of nuclear power generation will also increase the demand for regulatory safeguards against radioactive material being diverted for military use. The first-generation SMRs are expected to use low-enriched uranium in facilities assembled on-site with factory-made parts, to produce waste that can be handled using existing technologies and power that can be sold at economical rates. But the reactor will need frequent refuelling and will yield a consequential amount of plutonium; both outcomes will stress proliferation resistance. The IAEA has touted the use of ‘safeguardable’ reactor designs but such solutions will increase capital costs. Subsequent SMR generations may also require more enriched uranium, especially if their feasibility is pegged on longer periods of continuous generation, or more sophisticated systems to increase fuel-use efficiency, which would increase the operational surface area and the generation cost. In fact, nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost and safety expectations that do not change with energy output, which means SMR-based tariffs need not automatically be lower. This is why the Department of Atomic Energy increased its reactors’ capacity from 220 MW to 700 MW. SMRs’ ability to bolster the prospects of nuclear power in India will thus depend on their commercial viability — and in turn on the availability of less uncertain market conditions, stable grids, and opportunities to mass-produce parts — and the price of proliferation resistance.

Question:

According to the author, what primary factor influences the increase in nuclear power tariffs from ‘younger’ facilities?

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Indian government is planning to team up with the private sector to study and test small modular reactors (SMRs). Nuclear energy is an important power source in the world’s energy mix as it waits for the development and maturation of (other) renewable energy technologies while fossil-fuel-based sources, especially coal, continue to remain relevant and more affordable. Nuclear power offers a sufficiently high and sustainable power output, even if externalised costs like those of building safe and reliable reactors and handling spent nuclear fuel complicate this calculus. Indeed, cost and time estimates that expand to nearly twice as much as at the point of a project’s commissioning are not unheard of. The nuclear power tariff is thus higher from ‘younger’ facilities, even if they also fill gaps that haunt power from renewable sources. SMRs, of 10 MWe-300 MWe each, are smaller versions of their conventional counterparts. They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs. But the challenge is to have this aspiration survive SMRs’ external costs.

The government’s privatisation of nuclear power generation will also increase the demand for regulatory safeguards against radioactive material being diverted for military use. The first-generation SMRs are expected to use low-enriched uranium in facilities assembled on-site with factory-made parts, to produce waste that can be handled using existing technologies and power that can be sold at economical rates. But the reactor will need frequent refuelling and will yield a consequential amount of plutonium; both outcomes will stress proliferation resistance. The IAEA has touted the use of ‘safeguardable’ reactor designs but such solutions will increase capital costs. Subsequent SMR generations may also require more enriched uranium, especially if their feasibility is pegged on longer periods of continuous generation, or more sophisticated systems to increase fuel-use efficiency, which would increase the operational surface area and the generation cost. In fact, nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost and safety expectations that do not change with energy output, which means SMR-based tariffs need not automatically be lower. This is why the Department of Atomic Energy increased its reactors’ capacity from 220 MW to 700 MW. SMRs’ ability to bolster the prospects of nuclear power in India will thus depend on their commercial viability — and in turn on the availability of less uncertain market conditions, stable grids, and opportunities to mass-produce parts — and the price of proliferation resistance.

Question:

The passage states that the first-generation SMRs will use:

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

The Indian government is planning to team up with the private sector to study and test small modular reactors (SMRs). Nuclear energy is an important power source in the world’s energy mix as it waits for the development and maturation of (other) renewable energy technologies while fossil-fuel-based sources, especially coal, continue to remain relevant and more affordable. Nuclear power offers a sufficiently high and sustainable power output, even if externalised costs like those of building safe and reliable reactors and handling spent nuclear fuel complicate this calculus. Indeed, cost and time estimates that expand to nearly twice as much as at the point of a project’s commissioning are not unheard of. The nuclear power tariff is thus higher from ‘younger’ facilities, even if they also fill gaps that haunt power from renewable sources. SMRs, of 10 MWe-300 MWe each, are smaller versions of their conventional counterparts. They aspire to be safer without compromising commercial feasibility by _________ the higher energy content of nuclear fuel, a modular design, a smaller operational surface area, and lower capital costs. But the challenge is to have this aspiration survive SMRs’ external costs.

The government’s privatisation of nuclear power generation will also increase the demand for regulatory safeguards against radioactive material being diverted for military use. The first-generation SMRs are expected to use low-enriched uranium in facilities assembled on-site with factory-made parts, to produce waste that can be handled using existing technologies and power that can be sold at economical rates. But the reactor will need frequent refuelling and will yield a consequential amount of plutonium; both outcomes will stress proliferation resistance. The IAEA has touted the use of ‘safeguardable’ reactor designs but such solutions will increase capital costs. Subsequent SMR generations may also require more enriched uranium, especially if their feasibility is pegged on longer periods of continuous generation, or more sophisticated systems to increase fuel-use efficiency, which would increase the operational surface area and the generation cost. In fact, nuclear reactors have a fixed baseline cost and safety expectations that do not change with energy output, which means SMR-based tariffs need not automatically be lower. This is why the Department of Atomic Energy increased its reactors’ capacity from 220 MW to 700 MW. SMRs’ ability to bolster the prospects of nuclear power in India will thus depend on their commercial viability — and in turn on the availability of less uncertain market conditions, stable grids, and opportunities to mass-produce parts — and the price of proliferation resistance.

Question:

According to the passage, which of the following is mentioned as a complicating factor in the calculus of nuclear power’s sustainability?

Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? if the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select 'No correction required' as the answer.

The State Bank of India scandal exemplify the depth of SBI operational and risk management failings.

Directions: In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose the alternative that indicates 'No improvement'.

He disentangled her arms from his neck and crawled into bed besides her.

Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required' as the answer.

It is better to start over than giving up when we fail despite all the efforts we put in.

Direction: A sentence/ a part of the sentence is underlined. Five alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives. In case no improvement needed, click the option corresponding to 'No improvement'.

India can be counted among those nations that has impacted severely.

A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Five alternatives are given to the underlined part, which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the option corresponding to 'No improvement'.

Facebook said it had blocked a wide swathe on pages because the draft law did not provide clearly define news content. 

Directions: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options fit for the replacement, according to you, then select 'None of these' as your answer.

Business cycles as we know them today were codified and ________(A)(Examined carefully and methodically) by Arthur Burns and Wesley Mitchell in their 1946 book Measuring Business Cycles. One of Burns and Mitchell’s key insights was that many economic indicators move together. During an ______(B)(The act of increasing (something) in size), not only does output rise, but also employment rises and unemployment falls. New construction also typically increases, and inflation may rise if the expansion is particularly _______(C)(Quick and energetic). Conversely, during a recession, the output of goods and services declines, employment falls, and unemployment rises; new construction also declines. In the era before World War II, prices also typically fell during a ________(D)(a massive contraction in economic activities), since the 1950s prices have continued to rise during downturns, though more slowly than during expansions (i.e., the rate of inflation falls). Burns and Mitchell defined a recession as a period when a broad range of economic indicators falls for a ________(E)(to make something continue for a long period) period, roughly at least half a year.

Question:

Which of the following fits the blank labelled (A)?

Directions: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options fit for the replacement, according to you, then select 'None of these' as your answer.

Business cycles as we know them today were codified and ________(A)(Examined carefully and methodically) by Arthur Burns and Wesley Mitchell in their 1946 book Measuring Business Cycles. One of Burns and Mitchell’s key insights was that many economic indicators move together. During an ______(B)(The act of increasing (something) in size), not only does output rise, but also employment rises and unemployment falls. New construction also typically increases, and inflation may rise if the expansion is particularly _______(C)(Quick and energetic). Conversely, during a recession, the output of goods and services declines, employment falls, and unemployment rises; new construction also declines. In the era before World War II, prices also typically fell during a ________(D)(a massive contraction in economic activities), since the 1950s prices have continued to rise during downturns, though more slowly than during expansions (i.e., the rate of inflation falls). Burns and Mitchell defined a recession as a period when a broad range of economic indicators falls for a ________(E)(to make something continue for a long period) period, roughly at least half a year.

Question:

Which of the following fits the blank labelled (B)?

Directions: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options fit for the replacement, according to you, then select 'None of these' as your answer.

Business cycles as we know them today were codified and ________(A)(Examined carefully and methodically) by Arthur Burns and Wesley Mitchell in their 1946 book Measuring Business Cycles. One of Burns and Mitchell’s key insights was that many economic indicators move together. During an ______(B)(The act of increasing (something) in size), not only does output rise, but also employment rises and unemployment falls. New construction also typically increases, and inflation may rise if the expansion is particularly _______(C)(Quick and energetic). Conversely, during a recession, the output of goods and services declines, employment falls, and unemployment rises; new construction also declines. In the era before World War II, prices also typically fell during a ________(D)(a massive contraction in economic activities), since the 1950s prices have continued to rise during downturns, though more slowly than during expansions (i.e., the rate of inflation falls). Burns and Mitchell defined a recession as a period when a broad range of economic indicators falls for a ________(E)(to make something continue for a long period) period, roughly at least half a year.

Question:

Which of the following fits the blank labelled (C)?

Directions: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options fit for the replacement, according to you, then select 'None of these' as your answer.

Business cycles as we know them today were codified and ________(A)(Examined carefully and methodically) by Arthur Burns and Wesley Mitchell in their 1946 book Measuring Business Cycles. One of Burns and Mitchell’s key insights was that many economic indicators move together. During an ______(B)(The act of increasing (something) in size), not only does output rise, but also employment rises and unemployment falls. New construction also typically increases, and inflation may rise if the expansion is particularly _______(C)(Quick and energetic). Conversely, during a recession, the output of goods and services declines, employment falls, and unemployment rises; new construction also declines. In the era before World War II, prices also typically fell during a ________(D)(a massive contraction in economic activities), since the 1950s prices have continued to rise during downturns, though more slowly than during expansions (i.e., the rate of inflation falls). Burns and Mitchell defined a recession as a period when a broad range of economic indicators falls for a ________(E)(to make something continue for a long period) period, roughly at least half a year.

Question:

Which of the following fits the blank labelled (D)?

Directions: Given below is a passage with five blanks (A-E). A phrase written in brackets is given against each blank. Choose the right word from the options which can replace the phrase most appropriately. If none of the options fit for the replacement, according to you, then select 'None of these' as your answer.

Business cycles as we know them today were codified and ________(A)(Examined carefully and methodically) by Arthur Burns and Wesley Mitchell in their 1946 book Measuring Business Cycles. One of Burns and Mitchell’s key insights was that many economic indicators move together. During an ______(B)(The act of increasing (something) in size), not only does output rise, but also employment rises and unemployment falls. New construction also typically increases, and inflation may rise if the expansion is particularly _______(C)(Quick and energetic). Conversely, during a recession, the output of goods and services declines, employment falls, and unemployment rises; new construction also declines. In the era before World War II, prices also typically fell during a ________(D)(a massive contraction in economic activities), since the 1950s prices have continued to rise during downturns, though more slowly than during expansions (i.e., the rate of inflation falls). Burns and Mitchell defined a recession as a period when a broad range of economic indicators falls for a ________(E)(to make something continue for a long period) period, roughly at least half a year.

Question:

Which of the following fits the blank labelled (E)?

Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Milieu

A. The artist's work was greatly influenced by his cultural milieu.

B. She bought a new milieu to match her kitchen's decor.

C. The scientists shared a communal milieu that fostered collaboration and innovation.

Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

It's a _________ robbery asking such a high price for that old bicycle!

He was the most _________ liar I'd ever seen. 

Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

He was tired of all the _________ and gossip in the office

His classmate does not enjoy his company because he is always _________ others.

Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill in the blanks of the following questions.

The _________ was so great that it turned into madness.

She cried out in _________ at her lover's parting.

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer. 

In these early lessons, I encouraged (A) her in the use of different (B) forms of conveying (C) for expression (D) the same idea.

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer. 

As the caution (A) climbed to higher elevations (B), more couple (C) was necessary as icy patches (D) became more frequent.

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer. 

How bare (A) times have I told (B) you not to leave the house (C) at night in your many (D) feet?

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer. 

All the sleep (A) and lack of activities (B) was catching (C) up with her and she was exhausted (D).

In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer. 

Owing to exhaustion (A) he closed himself (B) eyes and took a deep (C) breath to steady his (D).

Rearrange the following five sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Proponents of geoengineering argue that impacts of global heating could be so great that every option to limit these must be explored. 

(B) It said that the programme should be designed to “move forward in a socially responsible manner” with researchers following a code of conduct, research catalogued in a public registry, and public engagement undertaken. 

(C) The US should establish a multimillion-dollar research programme on solar geoengineering, according to the country’s national science academy.  

(D) Social dimensions cited for research included “domestic and international conflict and cooperation” and “justice, ethics, and equity”. 

(E) The academy said the programme should include scientific research on the possible climate outcomes of geoengineering and impacts on ecosystems and society. 

Question:

Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

Rearrange the following five sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Proponents of geoengineering argue that impacts of global heating could be so great that every option to limit these must be explored. 

(B) It said that the programme should be designed to “move forward in a socially responsible manner” with researchers following a code of conduct, research catalogued in a public registry, and public engagement undertaken. 

(C) The US should establish a multimillion-dollar research programme on solar geoengineering, according to the country’s national science academy.  

(D) Social dimensions cited for research included “domestic and international conflict and cooperation” and “justice, ethics, and equity”. 

(E) The academy said the programme should include scientific research on the possible climate outcomes of geoengineering and impacts on ecosystems and society. 

Question:

Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

Rearrange the following five sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Proponents of geoengineering argue that impacts of global heating could be so great that every option to limit these must be explored. 

(B) It said that the programme should be designed to “move forward in a socially responsible manner” with researchers following a code of conduct, research catalogued in a public registry, and public engagement undertaken. 

(C) The US should establish a multimillion-dollar research programme on solar geoengineering, according to the country’s national science academy.  

(D) Social dimensions cited for research included “domestic and international conflict and cooperation” and “justice, ethics, and equity”. 

(E) The academy said the programme should include scientific research on the possible climate outcomes of geoengineering and impacts on ecosystems and society. 

Question:

Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

Rearrange the following five sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Proponents of geoengineering argue that impacts of global heating could be so great that every option to limit these must be explored. 

(B) It said that the programme should be designed to “move forward in a socially responsible manner” with researchers following a code of conduct, research catalogued in a public registry, and public engagement undertaken. 

(C) The US should establish a multimillion-dollar research programme on solar geoengineering, according to the country’s national science academy.  

(D) Social dimensions cited for research included “domestic and international conflict and cooperation” and “justice, ethics, and equity”. 

(E) The academy said the programme should include scientific research on the possible climate outcomes of geoengineering and impacts on ecosystems and society. 

Question:

Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

Rearrange the following five sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Proponents of geoengineering argue that impacts of global heating could be so great that every option to limit these must be explored. 

(B) It said that the programme should be designed to “move forward in a socially responsible manner” with researchers following a code of conduct, research catalogued in a public registry, and public engagement undertaken. 

(C) The US should establish a multimillion-dollar research programme on solar geoengineering, according to the country’s national science academy.  

(D) Social dimensions cited for research included “domestic and international conflict and cooperation” and “justice, ethics, and equity”. 

(E) The academy said the programme should include scientific research on the possible climate outcomes of geoengineering and impacts on ecosystems and society. 

Question:

Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total number of chair [plastic + wooden] sold in five different shops [A, B, C, D and E].

The table show the ratio of wooden and plastic chair sold in each shop.

Note – Number of plastic chairs sold in shop E is 72.

Question:

Number of wooden chairs sold in shop A is [x + 21]. Out of total chair manufactured in shop A, only x% of chair is sold. Ratio of wooden and plastic unsold chair in shop A is 5:4. Find the number of unsold wooden chair in shop A?

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total number of chair [plastic + wooden] sold in five different shops [A, B, C, D and E].

The table show the ratio of wooden and plastic chair sold in each shop.

Note – Number of plastic chairs sold in shop E is 72.

Question:

Number of table sold in shop B is 3/5th of number of wooden chair sold in same shop. Ratio of number wooden and plastic table sold in shop B is 2:1. Find the number of wooden tables sold in shop B?

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total number of chair [plastic + wooden] sold in five different shops [A, B, C, D and E].

The table show the ratio of wooden and plastic chair sold in each shop.

Note – Number of plastic chairs sold in shop E is 72.

Question:

Selling price of one wooden chair is Rs. 1350 and Selling price one plastic chair is Rs. 750 in shop C. Find the total revenue earned by shop C?

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total number of chair [plastic + wooden] sold in five different shops [A, B, C, D and E].

The table show the ratio of wooden and plastic chair sold in each shop.

Note – Number of plastic chairs sold in shop E is 72.

Question:

Ratio of number of wooden chairs sold in shop E and F is 4:5 and ratio of number of plastic chair sold in shop E and F is 3:4. Find the number of chairs sold in shop F?

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total number of chair [plastic + wooden] sold in five different shops [A, B, C, D and E].

The table show the ratio of wooden and plastic chair sold in each shop.

Note – Number of plastic chairs sold in shop E is 72.

Question:

Total number of wooden chairs sold in all shop together is m and total number of plastic chair sold in all shop together is n. Find the value of 7m + 8n?

Ratio of milk and water in container A is 5:2 and Ratio of milk and water in container B is 1 : 3. Both mixtures mixed in mixed in container C. Ratio of milk and water in container C is 31:28. Quantity of container A is 70 Liter and difference between milk and water in container B is x. Find the value of x?

Find the missing number in series

12, 36, ?, 150, 252, 392.

What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

6, 3.5, 4.5, ?, 48, 392.

What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

12, 25, 40, 57, ?, 97

Rs. 15000 in at compound interest of r% p.a., compounded annually for 2 years such that amount received by him is Rs. 21600. Find the compound interest when Rs. 16000 invest at [ r -10] % p.a., for 2 years?

In a box, there are 8 red balls, x blue balls and 10 green balls. The probability of getting one red balls from the box is 1/3. Find the probability of getting two blue balls from bag?

52. The bar graph shows the percentage electric cars sold out of total car [ electric + fuel] sold and number of fuel car sold in five different showrooms [A, B, C, D and E].

Question:

Difference between number of electric and fuel car [ petrol + diesel sold in showroom A is x. Number of petrol car sold in shop A is [(x/2) + 5]. Find the number of diesel car sold in A?

The bar graph shows the percentage electric cars sold out of total car [ electric + fuel] sold and number of fuel car sold in five different showrooms [A, B, C, D and E].

Question:

Sum of electric car sold in showroom B and C together is y. Sum of fuel car sold in showroom B and C together is z. Find the value of 7y + 5z?

The bar graph shows the percentage electric cars sold out of total car [ electric + fuel] sold and number of fuel car sold in five different showrooms [A, B, C, D and E].

Question:

Number of fuel car sold in showroom F is 20% more than the number of fuel car sold in show room E and number of electric cars sold in showroom F is 36 more than the number of fuel car sold in same showroom. Find the number of car sold in showroom F?

The bar graph shows the percentage electric cars sold out of total car [ electric + fuel] sold and number of fuel car sold in five different showrooms [A, B, C, D and E].

Question:

Ratio between number of fuel car sold in showroom D and E is m:n. Ratio of number of electric and fuel car sold in showroom G is [m + n] : [n – m]. Number of electric cars sold in showroom G is 65. Find the number of fuel car sold in showroom G? [ Ratio is lowest possible value]

The bar graph shows the percentage electric cars sold out of total car [ electric + fuel] sold and number of fuel car sold in five different showrooms [A, B, C, D and E].

Question:

The average number of electric cars sold in all showroom together is [k + 22]. Find the value of k?

Pipe ‘A” takes 30 hours to fill a tank while pipe ‘B’ takes 10 hours less time than pipe A. Pipe ‘A’ and ‘B’ are opened together and every alternate hour outlet pipe C is also opened. [1^st hour Pipe A and Pipe B opened and next hour pipe A, B and C opened, next hour only pipe A and B opened]. If pipe ‘C’ takes 40 hours empty the tank, then find the total time taken to fill the tank above mention way?

Directions: Below question is followed by two statements labeled I and II. Decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:

What is the selling price of the article?

Statement I: The marked price of the article is 60% more than the cost price of the article and the shopkeeper offers the discount of 20%.

Statement II: Ratio of the cost to marked price of the article is 5:8 and Discount amount is Rs. 192

Directions: Below question is followed by two statements labeled I and II. Decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:

What is the quantity of milk in vessel A?

Statement I: Ratio of the mixture of milk and water in vessel A is 5:3 and the total quantity of the mixture of milk and water in vessel B is 20 liters more than the quantity of mixture in vessel A.

Statement II: Ratio of the milk and water in vessel B is 3:2. If the mixture of vessel A and B is mixed together, Quantity of milk in final mixture is 22 liters more than water.

Directions: Below question is followed by two statements labeled I and II. Decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:

Find the speed of Boat P and Boat Q in still water?

Statement I: Boat P covers 100 km in downstream in 4 hours and Boat Q covers 140 km in downstream in 4 hours. Sum of speed boat is 50 km /hour.  

Statement II: Boat Q covers 75 km in upstream in 3 hours. Speed of stream is 5 km hours. Difference between speed of boat P and Q is 10 km/hour.

A and B start a business with Rs. 16000 and Rs. 18000. After x months C joined the business with Rs. 20000 and x months before A invest Rs. 4000 more in the business. Ratio of their profit share after one year is Rs. 26:27:20. Find the value of x² + 29?

A boat can cover [25x + 20y] km downstream distance in 10 hours while the same boat cover [12x + 2y + 2] km distance 5 hours upstream. Value of x is square of even prime number and speed of boat in still water is 16 km/hr. Find the time taken by boat to cover [13x  + 10y] km downstream distance?

A semi-circle has a circumference of 144 cm, Area of full circle is equal to perimeter of a square. Side of square is equal to area of rectangle. Breadth of rectangle is 14cm. Find the perimeter of rectangle?

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In an online survey conducted among 1000 participants (Adults + children), the number of adults who use 'Facebook' was 16.67% more than the number of adults who use 'Twitter'. The number of children who use 'Twitter', 'Facebook', and 'Instagram' was in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. The number of adults who use 'Instagram' was 50% less than the number of adults who use 'Twitter'. The total number of adults who use 'Instagram' was 12.5% of the total number of children who participated in the survey. Among all the participants surveyed, each person uses exactly one social media platform either 'Twitter', 'Facebook' or 'Instagram'.

Question:

Find the ratio between the number of children who use 'Instagram' and the number of adults who use 'Twitter' respectively?

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In an online survey conducted among 1000 participants (Adults + children), the number of adults who use 'Facebook' was 16.67% more than the number of adults who use 'Twitter'. The number of children who use 'Twitter', 'Facebook', and 'Instagram' was in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. The number of adults who use 'Instagram' was 50% less than the number of adults who use 'Twitter'. The total number of adults who use 'Instagram' was 12.5% of the total number of children who participated in the survey. Among all the participants surveyed, each person uses exactly one social media platform either 'Twitter', 'Facebook' or 'Instagram'.

Question:

Find the average number of children participants who use 'Twitter', 'Facebook' and 'Instagram'?

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In an online survey conducted among 1000 participants (Adults + children), the number of adults who use 'Facebook' was 16.67% more than the number of adults who use 'Twitter'. The number of children who use 'Twitter', 'Facebook', and 'Instagram' was in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. The number of adults who use 'Instagram' was 50% less than the number of adults who use 'Twitter'. The total number of adults who use 'Instagram' was 12.5% of the total number of children who participated in the survey. Among all the participants surveyed, each person uses exactly one social media platform either 'Twitter', 'Facebook' or 'Instagram'.

Question:

Among the total number of adult participants who use 'Twitter', 40% were women. If from Facebook and Instagram out of adult user, 30% were women then how many 'adult' women participants participated in the survey?

Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In an online survey conducted among 1000 participants (Adults + children), the number of adults who use 'Facebook' was 16.67% more than the number of adults who use 'Twitter'. The number of children who use 'Twitter', 'Facebook', and 'Instagram' was in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. The number of adults who use 'Instagram' was 50% less than the number of adults who use 'Twitter'. The total number of adults who use 'Instagram' was 12.5% of the total number of children who participated in the survey. Among all the participants surveyed, each person uses exactly one social media platform either 'Twitter', 'Facebook' or 'Instagram'.

Question:

Number of participants who use 'Instagram' were how much more/less than the number of participants who use 'Twitter'?

A buy an item at Rs. [ 2x + 180]. A sold the item at 25% profit to be B. B sold to C at 20% profit and C sold D at 10% loss. D sold to E at 20% profit. Cost price of E is [5x + 10]. Find the selling price of B?

Ratio of boys and girls in a class is 3:2. [x + 10] boys and 2x girls joined the class. Now ratio of boys and girls in the class is 6:5. Find the difference of boys and girls initially?

Speed of a car is 75 km /hr. Car cover [7x + 10] km distance in 2 hours and 10t km in 4 hours. A bike cover (5x + 20) km with speed of [t + 10] and (5x + 40) km with speed of 70 km/hr. Find the average speed of the bike for whole journey?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Nine persons live on nine storey building and manages different portfolio in an investment firm which are Alternatives, Bonds, Cash, Derivatives, Funds, Gold, Growth, Property and Stocks but not necessarily in same order. The bottommost floor is floor 1 just above floor 1 is floor 2 and so on up to the top most floors is floor 9. Only three persons live between the one who manages the Derivatives folio and the one who manages Cash folio. As many persons live between the one who manages Property folio and the one who manages the Stocks folio as many person between the one who manages Bonds folio and the one who manages Stocks folio. The one who manages Alternatives folio lives below the floors of the one who manages Bonds folio. The one who manages Growth folio lives above the floors of the one who manages Gold folio. The person who manages the Cash folio lives on an odd number floor. The one who manages Gold folio lives three floors above the floor of the one who manages the Derivatives folio. The person who manages the Bonds folio lives below the floor of the one who manages Derivatives folio. The person who manages Alternatives folio does not live adjacent to the one who manages the Funds folio.

Question:

The number of persons who live above the floor of the one who manages Cash folio is equal to the number of persons living below whom?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Nine persons live on nine storey building and manages different portfolio in an investment firm which are Alternatives, Bonds, Cash, Derivatives, Funds, Gold, Growth, Property and Stocks but not necessarily in same order. The bottommost floor is floor 1 just above floor 1 is floor 2 and so on up to the top most floors is floor 9. Only three persons live between the one who manages the Derivatives folio and the one who manages Cash folio. As many persons live between the one who manages Property folio and the one who manages the Stocks folio as many person between the one who manages Bonds folio and the one who manages Stocks folio. The one who manages Alternatives folio lives below the floors of the one who manages Bonds folio. The one who manages Growth folio lives above the floors of the one who manages Gold folio. The person who manages the Cash folio lives on an odd number floor. The one who manages Gold folio lives three floors above the floor of the one who manages the Derivatives folio. The person who manages the Bonds folio lives below the floor of the one who manages Derivatives folio. The person who manages Alternatives folio does not live adjacent to the one who manages the Funds folio.

Question:

Find the odd one out.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Nine persons live on nine storey building and manages different portfolio in an investment firm which are Alternatives, Bonds, Cash, Derivatives, Funds, Gold, Growth, Property and Stocks but not necessarily in same order. The bottommost floor is floor 1 just above floor 1 is floor 2 and so on up to the top most floors is floor 9. Only three persons live between the one who manages the Derivatives folio and the one who manages Cash folio. As many persons live between the one who manages Property folio and the one who manages the Stocks folio as many person between the one who manages Bonds folio and the one who manages Stocks folio. The one who manages Alternatives folio lives below the floors of the one who manages Bonds folio. The one who manages Growth folio lives above the floors of the one who manages Gold folio. The person who manages the Cash folio lives on an odd number floor. The one who manages Gold folio lives three floors above the floor of the one who manages the Derivatives folio. The person who manages the Bonds folio lives below the floor of the one who manages Derivatives folio. The person who manages Alternatives folio does not live adjacent to the one who manages the Funds folio.

Question:

Which of the following statement(s) is / are incorrect?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Nine persons live on nine storey building and manages different portfolio in an investment firm which are Alternatives, Bonds, Cash, Derivatives, Funds, Gold, Growth, Property and Stocks but not necessarily in same order. The bottommost floor is floor 1 just above floor 1 is floor 2 and so on up to the top most floors is floor 9. Only three persons live between the one who manages the Derivatives folio and the one who manages Cash folio. As many persons live between the one who manages Property folio and the one who manages the Stocks folio as many person between the one who manages Bonds folio and the one who manages Stocks folio. The one who manages Alternatives folio lives below the floors of the one who manages Bonds folio. The one who manages Growth folio lives above the floors of the one who manages Gold folio. The person who manages the Cash folio lives on an odd number floor. The one who manages Gold folio lives three floors above the floor of the one who manages the Derivatives folio. The person who manages the Bonds folio lives below the floor of the one who manages Derivatives folio. The person who manages Alternatives folio does not live adjacent to the one who manages the Funds folio.

Question:

Which floor does the person who manages Cash folio lives on?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Nine persons live on nine storey building and manages different portfolio in an investment firm which are Alternatives, Bonds, Cash, Derivatives, Funds, Gold, Growth, Property and Stocks but not necessarily in same order. The bottommost floor is floor 1 just above floor 1 is floor 2 and so on up to the top most floors is floor 9. Only three persons live between the one who manages the Derivatives folio and the one who manages Cash folio. As many persons live between the one who manages Property folio and the one who manages the Stocks folio as many person between the one who manages Bonds folio and the one who manages Stocks folio. The one who manages Alternatives folio lives below the floors of the one who manages Bonds folio. The one who manages Growth folio lives above the floors of the one who manages Gold folio. The person who manages the Cash folio lives on an odd number floor. The one who manages Gold folio lives three floors above the floor of the one who manages the Derivatives folio. The person who manages the Bonds folio lives below the floor of the one who manages Derivatives folio. The person who manages Alternatives folio does not live adjacent to the one who manages the Funds folio

Question:

Who lives just above the floor of the person who manages Alternatives folio?

In the number 83629475, if 1 is subtracted from every odd digit and 2 is subtracted from every even digit, then how many digits appear more than once in the resulting number?

In the word BRIGHTEN, all the vowels are first arranged alphabetically, and then all the consonants are arranged alphabetically, and then all the vowels are replaced by the previous letter, and all the consonants are replaced by the next letter from the English alphabet. Which letter will be fourth from the right end?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons F, J, M, N, Q, S, V and W sit on a horizontal row and some of them face towards North direction while some of them face towards South direction and each person buy a certain number of stocks which are 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 16 and 18 but not necessarily in same order. No two adjacent person faces towards same direction. Only two persons sit between F and V and both of them buy prime number of stocks. W buys half the stock bought by S and sits to the left of him. Q sits three places away from M and difference between numbers of stocks bought by them is least natural number. The person who buys cube number of stocks faces in south direction. Q buys more stocks than M. The difference between number of stocks bought by S and N is equal to that of between M and J. V and N faces in same direction. S sits second to the right of Q. M sits third to the left of N who sits at one of the extreme end. W buys stocks more than F who buys stocks more than V.

Question:

Who sits fourth to the left of N?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons F, J, M, N, Q, S, V and W sit on a horizontal row and some of them face towards North direction while some of them face towards South direction and each person buy a certain number of stocks which are 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 16 and 18 but not necessarily in same order. No two adjacent person faces towards same direction. Only two persons sit between F and V and both of them buy prime number of stocks. W buys half the stock bought by S and sits to the left of him. Q sits three places away from M and difference between numbers of stocks bought by them is least natural number. The person who buys cube number of stocks faces in south direction. Q buys more stocks than M. The difference between number of stocks bought by S and N is equal to that of between M and J. V and N faces in same direction. S sits second to the right of Q. M sits third to the left of N who sits at one of the extreme end. W buys stocks more than F who buys stocks more than V.

Question:

Who among them buy twice the stocks that of V buys?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons F, J, M, N, Q, S, V and W sit on a horizontal row and some of them face towards North direction while some of them face towards South direction and each person buy a certain number of stocks which are 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 16 and 18 but not necessarily in same order. No two adjacent person faces towards same direction. Only two persons sit between F and V and both of them buy prime number of stocks. W buys half the stock bought by S and sits to the left of him. Q sits three places away from M and difference between numbers of stocks bought by them is least natural number. The person who buys cube number of stocks faces in south direction. Q buys more stocks than M. The difference between number of stocks bought by S and N is equal to that of between M and J. V and N faces in same direction. S sits second to the right of Q. M sits third to the left of N who sits at one of the extreme end. W buys stocks more than F who buys stocks more than V.

Question:

How many persons sit between F and W?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons F, J, M, N, Q, S, V and W sit on a horizontal row and some of them face towards North direction while some of them face towards South direction and each person buy a certain number of stocks which are 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 16 and 18 but not necessarily in same order. No two adjacent person faces towards same direction. Only two persons sit between F and V and both of them buy prime number of stocks. W buys half the stock bought by S and sits to the left of him. Q sits three places away from M and difference between numbers of stocks bought by them is least natural number. The person who buys cube number of stocks faces in south direction. Q buys more stocks than M. The difference between number of stocks bought by S and N is equal to that of between M and J. V and N faces in same direction. S sits second to the right of Q. M sits third to the left of N who sits at one of the extreme end. W buys stocks more than F who buys stocks more than V.

Question:

Who sits third to the left of the person who sits second to the right of the person who buys 7 stocks?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons F, J, M, N, Q, S, V and W sit on a horizontal row and some of them face towards North direction while some of them face towards South direction and each person buy a certain number of stocks which are 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 16 and 18 but not necessarily in same order. No two adjacent person faces towards same direction. Only two persons sit between F and V and both of them buy prime number of stocks. W buys half the stock bought by S and sits to the left of him. Q sits three places away from M and difference between numbers of stocks bought by them is least natural number. The person who buys cube number of stocks faces in south direction. Q buys more stocks than M. The difference between number of stocks bought by S and N is equal to that of between M and J. V and N faces in same direction. S sits second to the right of Q. M sits third to the left of N who sits at one of the extreme end. W buys stocks more than F who buys stocks more than V.

Question:

Which of the following is the correctly matched?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

In a family of nine members, there are two married couples and there is no single parent of a child. J is the sister – in – law of D. H is not the sister of S. M is the aunt of L. C is the mother – in – law of T. O is the nephew of H. L is the son of C’s only daughter. H and T are not siblings. M is unmarried. The number of male person is more than that of female person. O is not the son of C. J is the aunt of H.

Question:

Which of the following statement is/ are correct?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

In a family of nine members, there are two married couples and there is no single parent of a child. J is the sister – in – law of D. H is not the sister of S. M is the aunt of L. C is the mother – in – law of T. O is the nephew of H. L is the son of C’s only daughter. H and T are not siblings. M is unmarried. The number of male person is more than that of female person. O is not the son of C. J is the aunt of H.

Question:

Find the odd one out.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

In a family of nine members, there are two married couples and there is no single parent of a child. J is the sister – in – law of D. H is not the sister of S. M is the aunt of L. C is the mother – in – law of T. O is the nephew of H. L is the son of C’s only daughter. H and T are not siblings. M is unmarried. The number of male person is more than that of female person. O is not the son of C. J is the aunt of H.

Question:

How is H related to T?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight entrepreneurs B, G, J, L, N, P, Q and S went to a conference to present their ideas to get an investment where they sit around a circular table and facing towards the centre but not necessarily in same order. Q sits second to the right of the person who sits immediate right to P. Only two persons sit between S and B who is not an immediate neighbour of P. L faces the person who sits second to the left of J. G sits opposite to the person who sits immediate right to L. S does not sit opposite to Q. As many person sit between Q and S as many person between Q and L.

Question:

Who sits second to the right of the person who sits immediate left to the person who sits opposite to N?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight entrepreneurs B, G, J, L, N, P, Q and S went to a conference to present their ideas to get an investment where they sit around a circular table and facing towards the centre but not necessarily in same order. Q sits second to the right of the person who sits immediate right to P. Only two persons sit between S and B who is not an immediate neighbour of P. L faces the person who sits second to the left of J. G sits opposite to the person who sits immediate right to L. S does not sit opposite to Q. As many person sit between Q and S as many person between Q and L.

Question:

Which of the following statement is correct?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight entrepreneurs B, G, J, L, N, P, Q and S went to a conference to present their ideas to get an investment where they sit around a circular table and facing towards the centre but not necessarily in same order. Q sits second to the right of the person who sits immediate right to P. Only two persons sit between S and B who is not an immediate neighbour of P. L faces the person who sits second to the left of J. G sits opposite to the person who sits immediate right to L. S does not sit opposite to Q. As many person sit between Q and S as many person between Q and L.

Question:

What is the position of J with respect to S?

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight entrepreneurs B, G, J, L, N, P, Q and S went to a conference to present their ideas to get an investment where they sit around a circular table and facing towards the centre but not necessarily in same order. Q sits second to the right of the person who sits immediate right to P. Only two persons sit between S and B who is not an immediate neighbour of P. L faces the person who sits second to the left of J. G sits opposite to the person who sits immediate right to L. S does not sit opposite to Q. As many person sit between Q and S as many person between Q and L.

Question:

Find the odd one out.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight entrepreneurs B, G, J, L, N, P, Q and S went to a conference to present their ideas to get an investment where they sit around a circular table and facing towards the centre but not necessarily in same order. Q sits second to the right of the person who sits immediate right to P. Only two persons sit between S and B who is not an immediate neighbour of P. L faces the person who sits second to the left of J. G sits opposite to the person who sits immediate right to L. S does not sit opposite to Q. As many person sit between Q and S as many person between Q and L.

Question:

Who among them sits opposite to G?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

A person starts from point A facing north. He walks 4m north to reach point B. He turns right and walks 5m to reach point C. Then he turns left and walks 3m to point D. He turns left and walks 6m to point E. Then he turns right and walks 2m to point F. He turns right again and walks 4m to point G. Then he turns right and walks 7m to point H. He turns left and walks 5m to point I. From there, he turns right and walks 6m to point J. Finally, he turns left and walks 3m to reach his final position point K.

Question:

If the person had turned left from point K and walks 4 m to point L then what is the distance between point A and point L?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

A person starts from point A facing north. He walks 4m north to reach point B. He turns right and walks 5m to reach point C. Then he turns left and walks 3m to point D. He turns left and walks 6m to point E. Then he turns right and walks 2m to point F. He turns right again and walks 4m to point G. Then he turns right and walks 7m to point H. He turns left and walks 5m to point I. From there, he turns right and walks 6m to point J. Finally, he turns left and walks 3m to reach his final position point K.

Question:

Which one is odd?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

A person starts from point A facing north. He walks 4m north to reach point B. He turns right and walks 5m to reach point C. Then he turns left and walks 3m to point D. He turns left and walks 6m to point E. Then he turns right and walks 2m to point F. He turns right again and walks 4m to point G. Then he turns right and walks 7m to point H. He turns left and walks 5m to point I. From there, he turns right and walks 6m to point J. Finally, he turns left and walks 3m to reach his final position point K.

Question:

What is the direction of point K with respect to the starting point A?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Nine Olympic sports viz., Wrestling, Boxing, Football, Basketball, Archery, Shooting, Athletics, Gymnastics, and Hockey are scheduled across Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, with each sport being played at 12 PM, 1 PM, or 2 PM but not necessarily in the same order.
Gymnastics and Archery are not scheduled on Monday. There are exactly three sports scheduled between the times of Gymnastics and Archery. Shooting is scheduled immediately after Archery, but it is not scheduled at 1 PM on any day. There are two sports scheduled between Shooting and Athletics. There are three sports scheduled between Athletics and Basketball. Boxing and Football are scheduled on the same day, but not necessarily at the same time. Football is not the first sport of the schedule. Hockey is scheduled neither before Wrestling nor immediately before Gymnastics.

Question:

How many sports are scheduled between Archery and Boxing?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Nine Olympic sports viz., Wrestling, Boxing, Football, Basketball, Archery, Shooting, Athletics, Gymnastics, and Hockey are scheduled across Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, with each sport being played at 12 PM, 1 PM, or 2 PM but not necessarily in the same order.
Gymnastics and Archery are not scheduled on Monday. There are exactly three sports scheduled between the times of Gymnastics and Archery. Shooting is scheduled immediately after Archery, but it is not scheduled at 1 PM on any day. There are two sports scheduled between Shooting and Athletics. There are three sports scheduled between Athletics and Basketball. Boxing and Football are scheduled on the same day, but not necessarily at the same time. Football is not the first sport of the schedule. Hockey is scheduled neither before Wrestling nor immediately before Gymnastics.

Question:

The number of sports scheduled before Athletics is equal to the number of sports scheduled after ___?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Nine Olympic sports viz., Wrestling, Boxing, Football, Basketball, Archery, Shooting, Athletics, Gymnastics, and Hockey are scheduled across Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, with each sport being played at 12 PM, 1 PM, or 2 PM but not necessarily in the same order.
Gymnastics and Archery are not scheduled on Monday. There are exactly three sports scheduled between the times of Gymnastics and Archery. Shooting is scheduled immediately after Archery, but it is not scheduled at 1 PM on any day. There are two sports scheduled between Shooting and Athletics. There are three sports scheduled between Athletics and Basketball. Boxing and Football are scheduled on the same day, but not necessarily at the same time. Football is not the first sport of the schedule. Hockey is scheduled neither before Wrestling nor immediately before Gymnastics.

Question:

Which sport is scheduled on Wednesday at 1 PM?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Nine Olympic sports viz., Wrestling, Boxing, Football, Basketball, Archery, Shooting, Athletics, Gymnastics, and Hockey are scheduled across Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, with each sport being played at 12 PM, 1 PM, or 2 PM but not necessarily in the same order.
Gymnastics and Archery are not scheduled on Monday. There are exactly three sports scheduled between the times of Gymnastics and Archery. Shooting is scheduled immediately after Archery, but it is not scheduled at 1 PM on any day. There are two sports scheduled between Shooting and Athletics. There are three sports scheduled between Athletics and Basketball. Boxing and Football are scheduled on the same day, but not necessarily at the same time. Football is not the first sport of the schedule. Hockey is scheduled neither before Wrestling nor immediately before Gymnastics.

Question:

Wrestling is scheduled immediately before which sport?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Nine Olympic sports viz., Wrestling, Boxing, Football, Basketball, Archery, Shooting, Athletics, Gymnastics, and Hockey are scheduled across Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, with each sport being played at 12 PM, 1 PM, or 2 PM but not necessarily in the same order.
Gymnastics and Archery are not scheduled on Monday. There are exactly three sports scheduled between the times of Gymnastics and Archery. Shooting is scheduled immediately after Archery, but it is not scheduled at 1 PM on any day. There are two sports scheduled between Shooting and Athletics. There are three sports scheduled between Athletics and Basketball. Boxing and Football are scheduled on the same day, but not necessarily at the same time. Football is not the first sport of the schedule. Hockey is scheduled neither before Wrestling nor immediately before Gymnastics.

Question:

At what day and time is Hockey scheduled?

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

All Circles are Rectangle.

Only Square are Triangle.

Only a few Squares are Rectangle.

Conclusions:

I. All Rectangles can be Square.

II. Some Circles are Square.

III. No Triangle is Rectangle.

Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some P are R.

Only a few R are S.

All S are T.

Conclusions:

I. All P can be S.

II. All R can be T.

III. All S can never be R.