SBI PO Prelims Full Test 8

Direction: In each of the following questions below, four statements are given which may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct. If all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.

Direction: In each of the following questions below, four statements are given which may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct. If all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.

. Direction: In each of the following questions below, four statements are given which may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct. If all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.

Direction: In each of the following questions below, four statements are given which may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct. If all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.

Direction: In each of the following questions below, four statements are given which may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct. If all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.

6. In the following question, two columns are given containing three phrases each. In the first column, phrases are A, B, and C, and in the second column, the phrases are D, E and F. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If, none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, select ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill the blanks of the following questions. 

1. After the lockdown was loosened, the restaurants were ________ to operate from 9 am to 8 pm. 

2. Manisha was ________ to work from home on the condition that she submitted all her work before time. 

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill the blanks of the following questions. 

1. It is the case of any pandemic or mass-spreading disease, the cure is rare and the cost of treatment keeps ________. 

2. Molly's fever kept _________ until the doctor had no choice but to plunge her into an ice bath. 

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill the blanks of the following questions. 

1. After the 'Unlock' phase schools started _________ the schedules for their exams. 

2. The parole board was ________ the prisoners on the condition that they do not travel internationally for a year. 

Directions: Find out the most effective word from the given options to fill the blanks of the following questions. 

1. Green tea has proven to be more ________ than black tea or milk tea. 

2. Amy always found a game of volleyball ________ after a day of hard work at the office. 

A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Five alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the option corresponding to "No improvement".

If someone had teased your child so nastily, you would have behaved in the same way.

Which of the following phrases (1), (2), (3), (4) given below in the statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.

The electric car industry is poised for massive growth, but it’s not yet clear which companies will came out on top.

A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Five alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, click the option corresponding to "No improvement".

The children wanted to go to the circus but their father had already booked tickets for the ice-skating spectacular. 

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

Question:

Which of the following words is/are the synonyms of the word "comprehensive" in the context of the passage?

A. Fragmentary
B. Thorough
C. Rigorous

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

Question:

Which of the following words is/are the antonyms of the word "minuscule" in the context of the passage?

A. Ample
B. Substantial
C. Considerable

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

Question:

What is the primary focus of the study conducted by scientists at Columbia University, as mentioned in the passage?

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

Question:

Which of the following sentence(s) can be true as per the passage?

A. A litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics, according to the research.
B. The research team's automated algorithm was solely developed for identifying plastics in the SRS platform, without broader applications.
C. The concentration levels of nanoplastics in bottled water were found to be consistent with existing standards, as indicated by the study's results.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

Question:

Which of the following options correctly fills the blanks given below?

In the study on bottled water, SRS microscopy primarily employs the _________ to gather detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles, utilizing a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform with an automated algorithm to identify plastics. The investigation unveiled approximately _________ micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

Question:

How did the custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform assist in nanoplastic analysis?

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

Question:

Which of the following options best describes the tone of the passage

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

A recent study conducted by scientists at Columbia University in New York has uncovered alarming levels of micro- and nano-plastics in bottled water. Published on January 8, 2024, in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the research indicates that a litre of bottled water may contain over one lakh particles of these tiny plastic fragments, with 90% classified as nanoplastics. The findings, challenging previous estimates, suggest a significantly higher concentration of these minuscule plastic particles than initially believed. The scientists aimed to bridge the knowledge gap in nanoplastic analysis, utilizing a custom hyperspectral stimulated Raman scattering (SRS) imaging platform to profile individual plastic particles.

Analyzing nanoplastics poses challenges due to their size and the limitations of available diagnostic techniques. In response, the researchers employed a custom hyperspectral SRS imaging platform in their experiment. This platform captured multiple images of molecules at different wavelengths, enabling a comprehensive understanding of the object's composition. SRS microscopy, utilizing the Raman effect, involved beaming light at specific frequencies to induce inelastic scattering, providing detailed information about the chemical makeup of plastic particles. An automated algorithm, developed by the research team, processed data from the SRS platform to identify plastics. The scientists validated the setup's efficiency using bottled water as a model system to detect micro- and nano-plastics.

The investigation unveiled approximately 2.4 lakh micro- and nano-plastic particles per litre of bottled water, challenging previous estimations focusing on larger microplastics. The study's magnitude suggests that experts may have underestimated microplastic concentrations in bottled water. Notably, the newly detected nanoplastic fraction constitutes around 90% of the total population of plastic particles, which were previously invisible under conventional imaging. The study's implications extend beyond concentration levels; it also revealed the presence of particles not conforming to existing standards, suggesting a broader range of particulate inhabitants in bottled water. The research highlights the pressing issue of plastic pollution at the nanometer level and the urgent need for more accurate analysis methods.

Question:

What did the automated algorithm, developed by the research team, primarily do in the experiment?

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Aurangzeb's son, Bahadur Shah I, ___(1)___ the religious policies of his father and attempted to reform the administration. "However, after his death in 1712, the Mughal dynasty sank into chaos and violent feuds. In 1719 alone, four emperors successively ascended the throne". During the reign of Muhammad Shah (reigned 1719–1748), the empire began to break up, and vast tracts of central India passed from Mughal to Maratha's hands. The far-off Indian campaign of Nadir Shah, who had previously reestablished Iranian suzerainty over most of West Asia, the Caucasus, and Central Asia, culminated with the Sack of Delhi and ___(2)___ the remnants of Mughal power and prestige. Many of the empire's elites now sought to control their own affairs and broke away to form independent kingdoms. But, according to Sugata Bose and Ayesha Jalal, the Mughal Emperor continued to be the highest manifestation of sovereignty. Not only the Muslim gentry, but the Maratha, Hindu, and Sikh leaders took part in ceremonial acknowledgments of the emperor as the sovereign of India. Meanwhile, some regional polities within the increasingly fragmented Mughal Empire, involved themselves and the state in global ___(3)___, leading only to defeat and loss of territory during the Carnatic Wars and the Bengal War. The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (1759–1806) made ___(4)___ attempts to reverse the Mughal decline but ultimately had to seek the protection of the Emir of Afghanistan, Ahmed Shah Abdali, which led to the Third Battle of Panipat between the Maratha Empire and the Afghans (led by Abdali) in 1761. In 1771, the Marathas recaptured Delhi from Afghan control and in 1784 they officially became the protectors of the emperor in Delhi, a state of affairs that continued until the Second Anglo-Maratha War. Thereafter, the British East India Company became the protectors of the Mughal dynasty in Delhi. The British East India Company took control of the former Mughal province of Bengal-Bihar in 1793 after it ___(5)___ local rule (Nizamat) that lasted until 1858, marking the beginning of the British colonial era over the Indian subcontinent. By 1857 a considerable part of former Mughal India was under the East India Company's control. After a crushing defeat in the war of 1857–1858 which he nominally led, the last Mughal, Bahadur Shah Zafar, was ___(6)___ by the British East India Company and exiled in 1858. Through the Government of India Act 1858, the British Crown assumed direct control of East India Company-held territories in India in the form of the new British Raj. In 1876 the British Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Aurangzeb's son, Bahadur Shah I, ___(1)___ the religious policies of his father and attempted to reform the administration. "However, after his death in 1712, the Mughal dynasty sank into chaos and violent feuds. In 1719 alone, four emperors successively ascended the throne". During the reign of Muhammad Shah (reigned 1719–1748), the empire began to break up, and vast tracts of central India passed from Mughal to Maratha's hands. The far-off Indian campaign of Nadir Shah, who had previously reestablished Iranian suzerainty over most of West Asia, the Caucasus, and Central Asia, culminated with the Sack of Delhi and ___(2)___ the remnants of Mughal power and prestige. Many of the empire's elites now sought to control their own affairs and broke away to form independent kingdoms. But, according to Sugata Bose and Ayesha Jalal, the Mughal Emperor continued to be the highest manifestation of sovereignty. Not only the Muslim gentry, but the Maratha, Hindu, and Sikh leaders took part in ceremonial acknowledgments of the emperor as the sovereign of India. Meanwhile, some regional polities within the increasingly fragmented Mughal Empire, involved themselves and the state in global ___(3)___, leading only to defeat and loss of territory during the Carnatic Wars and the Bengal War. The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (1759–1806) made ___(4)___ attempts to reverse the Mughal decline but ultimately had to seek the protection of the Emir of Afghanistan, Ahmed Shah Abdali, which led to the Third Battle of Panipat between the Maratha Empire and the Afghans (led by Abdali) in 1761. In 1771, the Marathas recaptured Delhi from Afghan control and in 1784 they officially became the protectors of the emperor in Delhi, a state of affairs that continued until the Second Anglo-Maratha War. Thereafter, the British East India Company became the protectors of the Mughal dynasty in Delhi. The British East India Company took control of the former Mughal province of Bengal-Bihar in 1793 after it ___(5)___ local rule (Nizamat) that lasted until 1858, marking the beginning of the British colonial era over the Indian subcontinent. By 1857 a considerable part of former Mughal India was under the East India Company's control. After a crushing defeat in the war of 1857–1858 which he nominally led, the last Mughal, Bahadur Shah Zafar, was ___(6)___ by the British East India Company and exiled in 1858. Through the Government of India Act 1858, the British Crown assumed direct control of East India Company-held territories in India in the form of the new British Raj. In 1876 the British Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Aurangzeb's son, Bahadur Shah I, ___(1)___ the religious policies of his father and attempted to reform the administration. "However, after his death in 1712, the Mughal dynasty sank into chaos and violent feuds. In 1719 alone, four emperors successively ascended the throne". During the reign of Muhammad Shah (reigned 1719–1748), the empire began to break up, and vast tracts of central India passed from Mughal to Maratha's hands. The far-off Indian campaign of Nadir Shah, who had previously reestablished Iranian suzerainty over most of West Asia, the Caucasus, and Central Asia, culminated with the Sack of Delhi and ___(2)___ the remnants of Mughal power and prestige. Many of the empire's elites now sought to control their own affairs and broke away to form independent kingdoms. But, according to Sugata Bose and Ayesha Jalal, the Mughal Emperor continued to be the highest manifestation of sovereignty. Not only the Muslim gentry, but the Maratha, Hindu, and Sikh leaders took part in ceremonial acknowledgments of the emperor as the sovereign of India. Meanwhile, some regional polities within the increasingly fragmented Mughal Empire, involved themselves and the state in global ___(3)___, leading only to defeat and loss of territory during the Carnatic Wars and the Bengal War. The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (1759–1806) made ___(4)___ attempts to reverse the Mughal decline but ultimately had to seek the protection of the Emir of Afghanistan, Ahmed Shah Abdali, which led to the Third Battle of Panipat between the Maratha Empire and the Afghans (led by Abdali) in 1761. In 1771, the Marathas recaptured Delhi from Afghan control and in 1784 they officially became the protectors of the emperor in Delhi, a state of affairs that continued until the Second Anglo-Maratha War. Thereafter, the British East India Company became the protectors of the Mughal dynasty in Delhi. The British East India Company took control of the former Mughal province of Bengal-Bihar in 1793 after it ___(5)___ local rule (Nizamat) that lasted until 1858, marking the beginning of the British colonial era over the Indian subcontinent. By 1857 a considerable part of former Mughal India was under the East India Company's control. After a crushing defeat in the war of 1857–1858 which he nominally led, the last Mughal, Bahadur Shah Zafar, was ___(6)___ by the British East India Company and exiled in 1858. Through the Government of India Act 1858, the British Crown assumed direct control of East India Company-held territories in India in the form of the new British Raj. In 1876 the British Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Aurangzeb's son, Bahadur Shah I, ___(1)___ the religious policies of his father and attempted to reform the administration. "However, after his death in 1712, the Mughal dynasty sank into chaos and violent feuds. In 1719 alone, four emperors successively ascended the throne". During the reign of Muhammad Shah (reigned 1719–1748), the empire began to break up, and vast tracts of central India passed from Mughal to Maratha's hands. The far-off Indian campaign of Nadir Shah, who had previously reestablished Iranian suzerainty over most of West Asia, the Caucasus, and Central Asia, culminated with the Sack of Delhi and ___(2)___ the remnants of Mughal power and prestige. Many of the empire's elites now sought to control their own affairs and broke away to form independent kingdoms. But, according to Sugata Bose and Ayesha Jalal, the Mughal Emperor continued to be the highest manifestation of sovereignty. Not only the Muslim gentry, but the Maratha, Hindu, and Sikh leaders took part in ceremonial acknowledgments of the emperor as the sovereign of India. Meanwhile, some regional polities within the increasingly fragmented Mughal Empire, involved themselves and the state in global ___(3)___, leading only to defeat and loss of territory during the Carnatic Wars and the Bengal War. The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (1759–1806) made ___(4)___ attempts to reverse the Mughal decline but ultimately had to seek the protection of the Emir of Afghanistan, Ahmed Shah Abdali, which led to the Third Battle of Panipat between the Maratha Empire and the Afghans (led by Abdali) in 1761. In 1771, the Marathas recaptured Delhi from Afghan control and in 1784 they officially became the protectors of the emperor in Delhi, a state of affairs that continued until the Second Anglo-Maratha War. Thereafter, the British East India Company became the protectors of the Mughal dynasty in Delhi. The British East India Company took control of the former Mughal province of Bengal-Bihar in 1793 after it ___(5)___ local rule (Nizamat) that lasted until 1858, marking the beginning of the British colonial era over the Indian subcontinent. By 1857 a considerable part of former Mughal India was under the East India Company's control. After a crushing defeat in the war of 1857–1858 which he nominally led, the last Mughal, Bahadur Shah Zafar, was ___(6)___ by the British East India Company and exiled in 1858. Through the Government of India Act 1858, the British Crown assumed direct control of East India Company-held territories in India in the form of the new British Raj. In 1876 the British Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Aurangzeb's son, Bahadur Shah I, ___(1)___ the religious policies of his father and attempted to reform the administration. "However, after his death in 1712, the Mughal dynasty sank into chaos and violent feuds. In 1719 alone, four emperors successively ascended the throne". During the reign of Muhammad Shah (reigned 1719–1748), the empire began to break up, and vast tracts of central India passed from Mughal to Maratha's hands. The far-off Indian campaign of Nadir Shah, who had previously reestablished Iranian suzerainty over most of West Asia, the Caucasus, and Central Asia, culminated with the Sack of Delhi and ___(2)___ the remnants of Mughal power and prestige. Many of the empire's elites now sought to control their own affairs and broke away to form independent kingdoms. But, according to Sugata Bose and Ayesha Jalal, the Mughal Emperor continued to be the highest manifestation of sovereignty. Not only the Muslim gentry, but the Maratha, Hindu, and Sikh leaders took part in ceremonial acknowledgments of the emperor as the sovereign of India. Meanwhile, some regional polities within the increasingly fragmented Mughal Empire, involved themselves and the state in global ___(3)___, leading only to defeat and loss of territory during the Carnatic Wars and the Bengal War. The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (1759–1806) made ___(4)___ attempts to reverse the Mughal decline but ultimately had to seek the protection of the Emir of Afghanistan, Ahmed Shah Abdali, which led to the Third Battle of Panipat between the Maratha Empire and the Afghans (led by Abdali) in 1761. In 1771, the Marathas recaptured Delhi from Afghan control and in 1784 they officially became the protectors of the emperor in Delhi, a state of affairs that continued until the Second Anglo-Maratha War. Thereafter, the British East India Company became the protectors of the Mughal dynasty in Delhi. The British East India Company took control of the former Mughal province of Bengal-Bihar in 1793 after it ___(5)___ local rule (Nizamat) that lasted until 1858, marking the beginning of the British colonial era over the Indian subcontinent. By 1857 a considerable part of former Mughal India was under the East India Company's control. After a crushing defeat in the war of 1857–1858 which he nominally led, the last Mughal, Bahadur Shah Zafar, was ___(6)___ by the British East India Company and exiled in 1858. Through the Government of India Act 1858, the British Crown assumed direct control of East India Company-held territories in India in the form of the new British Raj. In 1876 the British Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Aurangzeb's son, Bahadur Shah I, ___(1)___ the religious policies of his father and attempted to reform the administration. "However, after his death in 1712, the Mughal dynasty sank into chaos and violent feuds. In 1719 alone, four emperors successively ascended the throne". During the reign of Muhammad Shah (reigned 1719–1748), the empire began to break up, and vast tracts of central India passed from Mughal to Maratha's hands. The far-off Indian campaign of Nadir Shah, who had previously reestablished Iranian suzerainty over most of West Asia, the Caucasus, and Central Asia, culminated with the Sack of Delhi and ___(2)___ the remnants of Mughal power and prestige. Many of the empire's elites now sought to control their own affairs and broke away to form independent kingdoms. But, according to Sugata Bose and Ayesha Jalal, the Mughal Emperor continued to be the highest manifestation of sovereignty. Not only the Muslim gentry, but the Maratha, Hindu, and Sikh leaders took part in ceremonial acknowledgments of the emperor as the sovereign of India. Meanwhile, some regional polities within the increasingly fragmented Mughal Empire, involved themselves and the state in global ___(3)___, leading only to defeat and loss of territory during the Carnatic Wars and the Bengal War. The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (1759–1806) made ___(4)___ attempts to reverse the Mughal decline but ultimately had to seek the protection of the Emir of Afghanistan, Ahmed Shah Abdali, which led to the Third Battle of Panipat between the Maratha Empire and the Afghans (led by Abdali) in 1761. In 1771, the Marathas recaptured Delhi from Afghan control and in 1784 they officially became the protectors of the emperor in Delhi, a state of affairs that continued until the Second Anglo-Maratha War. Thereafter, the British East India Company became the protectors of the Mughal dynasty in Delhi. The British East India Company took control of the former Mughal province of Bengal-Bihar in 1793 after it ___(5)___ local rule (Nizamat) that lasted until 1858, marking the beginning of the British colonial era over the Indian subcontinent. By 1857 a considerable part of former Mughal India was under the East India Company's control. After a crushing defeat in the war of 1857–1858 which he nominally led, the last Mughal, Bahadur Shah Zafar, was ___(6)___ by the British East India Company and exiled in 1858. Through the Government of India Act 1858, the British Crown assumed direct control of East India Company-held territories in India in the form of the new British Raj. In 1876 the British Queen Victoria assumed the title of Empress of India.

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 6.

Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Scrutinise

A. The teacher advised the students to scrutinise the details of the historical event in their essays.

B. The detective decided to scrutinise the evidence for any overlooked clues.C. The chef decided to scrutinise the recipe to ensure it was prepared correctly.

Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Empower

A. The non-profit aims to empower young women by providing education and career training.

B. The government decided to empower the local authorities with more decision-making powers.C. The heavy storms empower the rivers, causing floods in the low-lying areas.

Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Urbanisation

A. The rapid urbanisation of countryside villages has led to the loss of agricultural land.

B. Urbanisation has boosted economic development by creating more job opportunities.

C. After the urbanisation of the building, it was transformed into a vibrant city centre.

A sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If there is no change required, mark 'No rearrangement required' as your answer.

All these potential (A) brought in by the fintech startups transform (B) their innovations (C) to further indicate (D) the BFSI sector in India by making them more convenient, simple, and hassle-free

A sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If there is no change required, mark 'No rearrangement required' as your answer.

Carbon dioxide emissions must equivalent (A) by the fall (B) of a global lockdown safe (C) every two years for the next decade for the world to keep within roughly (D) limits of global heating.

A sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If there is no change required, mark 'No rearrangement required' as your answer.

Production linked incentive scheme, which is aimed (A) at boosting (B) domestic manufacturing and exports, is expected (C) to increase (D) the country’s production.

A sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If there is no change required, mark 'No rearrangement required' as your answer.

Higher inflation, particularly (A) in food, not only affects (B) the spending capacity (C) of the poor but also creates greater uncertainty (D) for businesses.

A sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their places. Four options with different arrangements of these words are given. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If there is no change required, mark 'No rearrangement required' as your answer.

An organization that is achieving (A) as a means for objectives (B) defined established (C) has been referred to as a formal (D)organization.

The question below consists of a set of six labelled sentences. They are all sentences of the same paragraph but their order has been jumbled. Sentence C given below is the third sentence in the correct order. Arrange the other five sentences in their correct order to make a coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow:

A. Once inside, they would be impressed by the cordiality of the service and decided to check into the inn.

B. The innkeeper learned that there are hardly a few things people delight in more than finding fault with other people's work.

C. Once the innkeeper did as he was told, every traveller who passed by the inn walked in to point out the mistake.

D. This provided the innkeeper with the fortune that he had sought in vain for so long.

E. An innkeeper was unable to make both ends meet even though he did his best to draw customers by making his inn comfortable.

F. In order to solve his problem, he consulted a sage who advised him to change the name of his inn to 'The Five Bells Inn', but hang six bells at the entrance.

Question:

Which of the following is the first sentence after rearrangement?

The question below consists of a set of six labelled sentences. They are all sentences of the same paragraph but their order has been jumbled. Sentence C given below is the third sentence in the correct order. Arrange the other five sentences in their correct order to make a coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow:

A. Once inside, they would be impressed by the cordiality of the service and decided to check into the inn.

B. The innkeeper learned that there are hardly a few things people delight in more than finding fault with other people's work.

C. Once the innkeeper did as he was told, every traveller who passed by the inn walked in to point out the mistake.

D. This provided the innkeeper with the fortune that he had sought in vain for so long.

E. An innkeeper was unable to make both ends meet even though he did his best to draw customers by making his inn comfortable.

F. In order to solve his problem, he consulted a sage who advised him to change the name of his inn to 'The Five Bells Inn', but hang six bells at the entrance.

Question:

Which of the following is the second sentence after rearrangement?

The question below consists of a set of six labelled sentences. They are all sentences of the same paragraph but their order has been jumbled. Sentence C given below is the third sentence in the correct order. Arrange the other five sentences in their correct order to make a coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow:

A. Once inside, they would be impressed by the cordiality of the service and decided to check into the inn.

B. The innkeeper learned that there are hardly a few things people delight in more than finding fault with other people's work.

C. Once the innkeeper did as he was told, every traveller who passed by the inn walked in to point out the mistake.

D. This provided the innkeeper with the fortune that he had sought in vain for so long.

E. An innkeeper was unable to make both ends meet even though he did his best to draw customers by making his inn comfortable.

F. In order to solve his problem, he consulted a sage who advised him to change the name of his inn to 'The Five Bells Inn', but hang six bells at the entrance.

Question:

Which of the following is the fourth sentence after rearrangement?

The question below consists of a set of six labelled sentences. They are all sentences of the same paragraph but their order has been jumbled. Sentence C given below is the third sentence in the correct order. Arrange the other five sentences in their correct order to make a coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow:

A. Once inside, they would be impressed by the cordiality of the service and decided to check into the inn.

B. The innkeeper learned that there are hardly a few things people delight in more than finding fault with other people's work.

C. Once the innkeeper did as he was told, every traveller who passed by the inn walked in to point out the mistake.

D. This provided the innkeeper with the fortune that he had sought in vain for so long.

E. An innkeeper was unable to make both ends meet even though he did his best to draw customers by making his inn comfortable.

F. In order to solve his problem, he consulted a sage who advised him to change the name of his inn to 'The Five Bells Inn', but hang six bells at the entrance.

Question:

Which of the following is the fifth sentence after rearrangement?

The question below consists of a set of six labelled sentences. They are all sentences of the same paragraph but their order has been jumbled. Sentence C given below is the third sentence in the correct order. Arrange the other five sentences in their correct order to make a coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow:

A. Once inside, they would be impressed by the cordiality of the service and decided to check into the inn.

B. The innkeeper learned that there are hardly a few things people delight in more than finding fault with other people's work.

C. Once the innkeeper did as he was told, every traveller who passed by the inn walked in to point out the mistake.

D. This provided the innkeeper with the fortune that he had sought in vain for so long.

E. An innkeeper was unable to make both ends meet even though he did his best to draw customers by making his inn comfortable.

F. In order to solve his problem, he consulted a sage who advised him to change the name of his inn to 'The Five Bells Inn', but hang six bells at the entrance.

Question:

Which of the following is the sixth sentence after rearrangement?

The bar graph shows the length (in m) of five different trains [A, B, C, D and E].

The table shows time taken by each train to cross a 240 long bridge.

Question:

Train B cross q m long bridge in 40 sec. Find the value of 7q + 25?

The bar graph shows the length (in m) of five different trains [A, B, C, D and E].

The table shows time taken by each train to cross a 240 long bridge.

Question:

Speed of train F is average speed of train B and E. Train cross 240 long bridge in 29 sec. Find the length of train F?

The bar graph shows the length (in m) of five different trains [A, B, C, D and E].

The table shows time taken by each train to cross a 240 long bridge.

Question:

Train C cross five platform of same length and also cross distance between platform in 282 sec. If length of distance between platform is 420m. Find the distance of each platform?

The bar graph shows the length (in m) of five different trains [A, B, C, D and E].

The table shows time taken by each train to cross a 240 long bridge.

Question:

Train E cross s m long bridge in 38 sec and z m long bridge in 48 sec. Find the time taken by train A to cross [ s + z] long bridge?

The bar graph shows the length (in m) of five different trains [A, B, C, D and E].

The table shows time taken by each train to cross a 240 long bridge.

Question:

Train A and Train B cross each other in t sec when moving opposite direction and train C and train D cross each other in n sec when moving same direction. Find the sum of t and n?

Boat and stream Boat B can cover [d + 23] km distance in downstream in  (t -1) hours with while another boat A can cover same distance in upstream (t + 3) hours. Ratio of downstream speed B and upstream speed of A is 7:3. If speed of boat A is 12.5% less than speed of boat B and Speed of stream is 5 km/hr, then find the value of d.

Ratio in a village the ratio of literate males to literate females is 3x : (x - 1). 75% of the males are literate and 60% of the females are illiterate. Ratio of male and female in the village is 2:1. Find the value of 4x% of x³?

In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

870, 855, 840, 825, 810, 800

In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

7, 12, 37, 161, 787, 3912

. In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

1, 2, 6, 20, 120, 720

8 men can complete a job in 10 days, while 5 women can complete the same job in 24 days. 10 men started the work and worked for 3 days. After that, all men left and 6 women completed the remaining work. If the total payment for the work is Rs. 25,200, how much did each woman earn per day?

A buy a cycle at Rs. [x + 1500] and invest Rs. 500 in repairing. Then sold it at Rs. 7x to B. B sold in again at Rs. P. If profit percentage of both A and B is 40% then find the value of P?

he pie chart shows the percentage distribution of age of five persons [A, B, C, D and E].

Note – Ratio of age of D after 5 years and age of A 2 years ago is 5 : 2.

Question:

Find the difference between age of A and C together and age of B and E together?

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of age of five persons [A, B, C, D and E].

Note – Ratio of age of D after 5 years and age of A 2 years ago is 5 : 2.

Question:

Ratio of age of A after 6 years and age of B after 12 years in i:j. Find the value of 5i + 7j

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of age of five persons [A, B, C, D and E].

Note – Ratio of age of D after 5 years and age of A 2 years ago is 5 : 2.

Question:

[Age of C/ Age of D] is written by p(p/q). Age of M at 5 years ago is 8q. Find the sum of present age of M and E?

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of age of five persons [A, B, C, D and E].

Note – Ratio of age of D after 5 years and age of A 2 years ago is 5 : 2.

Question:

Age of F after 5 years is 25% more than the present age of A. Difference between age of F and E is y years. Age of G is 3y years. Find the age of G after 5 years?

The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of age of five persons [A, B, C, D and E].

Note – Ratio of age of D after 5 years and age of A 2 years ago is 5 : 2.

Question:

Find the ratio between sum of age of A and B after 10 years and age of C and D before 5 years

How many different ways a 5 members group can be formed out of 4 men and 5 women, the group have at least 2 men?

Raju obtained 80% in examination. Raj obtained 10 more marks than Raju and Roy obtained 90% marks in that exam. If Roy score 6 marks more than Raj and Raja obtained 75% marks in the exam find the makrs of Raja?

60. What approximate will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

What approximately will come in the place of the question mark '?' in the following question?

√35.88 × ∛728.89 + 119.89 × (1/19.89) = √?

What approximate value should come in place of “?” in the following equation:

56.08% of 100.05 – 57.15 ÷ 19.05 + ? = 65.03

What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

√255.96 × 11.99 + 15.15 × 13.94 = ? + 4.99²

Length of a cuboid is 6 m more than its breadth while its height is 25% more than its breadth. Volume of cuboid is 3240 m³. Find its total surface area? [Length, breadth and height is integer]

The length of the rectangle is 7 meters less than the radius of the circle, and the breadth of the rectangle is 8 meters less than length of rectangle. Side of square is 8 more than the average of length and breadth of rectangle. To fence the rectangle filed, the total expenditure is Rs. 480 at rate of Rs. 5/m. The base of the triangle is the 2 m less than the length of rectangle and height of triangle is 6 m less than the breadth of rectangle.

Question:

Find the total expenditure to fencing the circle at rate of Rs. 2.5 per m?

The length of the rectangle is 7 meters less than the radius of the circle, and the breadth of the rectangle is 8 meters less than length of rectangle. Side of square is 8 more than the average of length and breadth of rectangle. To fence the rectangle filed, the total expenditure is Rs. 480 at rate of Rs. 5/m. The base of the triangle is the 2 m less than the length of rectangle and height of triangle is 6 m less than the breadth of rectangle.

Question:

Difference between area of rectangle and square is 4x. Side of another square is x/8. Find the area of another square?

The length of the rectangle is 7 meters less than the radius of the circle, and the breadth of the rectangle is 8 meters less than length of rectangle. Side of square is 8 more than the average of length and breadth of rectangle. To fence the rectangle filed, the total expenditure is Rs. 480 at rate of Rs. 5/m. The base of the triangle is the 2 m less than the length of rectangle and height of triangle is 6 m less than the breadth of rectangle.

Question:

Difference between area of triangle and circle is y. Find the value of 7y?

In the question, two quantities I, II are given. You have to solve both the quantities and establish the correct relation between Quantity - I and Quantity - II and choose the correct option accordingly.

Quantity I:  A 120-liter mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 3:x. Then 15 liters of water are added so that the final ratio of milk to water becomes 12:7. What is the value of ‘9x’?

Quantity II: 17.5

In the question, two quantities I, II are given. You have to solve both the quantities and establish the correct relation between Quantity - I and Quantity - II and choose the correct option accordingly.

The average weight of a group of 40 people is ‘x + 5’ kg. When a new member of replace a 40 kg people then average weight is 31 kg. When another person left the group then average weight is 30 kg. Weight of person who left last whose weight is 10 kg less than the person who joined the group.

Quantity I: What is the value of 3x.

Quantity II: What is the weight of new joined member?

In the question, two quantities I, II are given. You have to solve both the quantities and establish the correct relation between Quantity - I and Quantity - II and choose the correct option accordingly.

20% of value of M and N is equal to value of P. Sum of 20% of M and value of Q is equal to average of N and P. 33.33% of Q is equal to 12.5% of N. Sum of P and Q is 50 less than M. Average of M and N is 60 more than the value of P. Sum of N and Q is 10 less than M.

Quantity I:  Find M is what percent of N?

Quantity II: Find [ M + Q] is what percent of [N + P]?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons – Alice, Bob, Carol, David, Eve, Frank, Grace, Harry, Ivy, and John – are a Tech Titans team and each one of them is launching a new software feature on two different dates (12^th and 21^st) in five different months – January, February, March, April, and May – but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons launch on the same date in the same month.Frank launches on an even-numbered date in March. Two persons launch between Frank and Carol. An equal number of persons launched after David and before Bob, and neither of them launched in January. David did not launch on an even-numbered date. Eve launches after Carol and before Alice. John launches on a date immediately before the one in which Alice launches. The number of persons launching before Eve is the same as after Harry. Only one person launches between Ivy and Harry. Ivy does not launch in the same month as Frank.

Question:

In which month does Grace launch a new software feature?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons – Alice, Bob, Carol, David, Eve, Frank, Grace, Harry, Ivy, and John – are a Tech Titans team and each one of them is launching a new software feature on two different dates (12^th and 21^st) in five different months – January, February, March, April, and May – but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons launch on the same date in the same month.Frank launches on an even-numbered date in March. Two persons launch between Frank and Carol. An equal number of persons launched after David and before Bob, and neither of them launched in January. David did not launch on an even-numbered date. Eve launches after Carol and before Alice. John launches on a date immediately before the one in which Alice launches. The number of persons launching before Eve is the same as after Harry. Only one person launches between Ivy and Harry. Ivy does not launch in the same month as Frank.

Question:

How many persons launched between Carol and Eve?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons – Alice, Bob, Carol, David, Eve, Frank, Grace, Harry, Ivy, and John – are a Tech Titans team and each one of them is launching a new software feature on two different dates (12^th and 21^st) in five different months – January, February, March, April, and May – but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons launch on the same date in the same month.Frank launches on an even-numbered date in March. Two persons launch between Frank and Carol. An equal number of persons launched after David and before Bob, and neither of them launched in January. David did not launch on an even-numbered date. Eve launches after Carol and before Alice. John launches on a date immediately before the one in which Alice launches. The number of persons launching before Eve is the same as after Harry. Only one person launches between Ivy and Harry. Ivy does not launch in the same month as Frank.

Question:

Which of the given statements is true?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons – Alice, Bob, Carol, David, Eve, Frank, Grace, Harry, Ivy, and John – are a Tech Titans team and each one of them is launching a new software feature on two different dates (12^th and 21^st) in five different months – January, February, March, April, and May – but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons launch on the same date in the same month.Frank launches on an even-numbered date in March. Two persons launch between Frank and Carol. An equal number of persons launched after David and before Bob, and neither of them launched in January. David did not launch on an even-numbered date. Eve launches after Carol and before Alice. John launches on a date immediately before the one in which Alice launches. The number of persons launching before Eve is the same as after Harry. Only one person launches between Ivy and Harry. Ivy does not launch in the same month as Frank.

Question:

Four of the following are similar in some way therefore forms a group. Find the odd one out.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons – Alice, Bob, Carol, David, Eve, Frank, Grace, Harry, Ivy, and John – are a Tech Titans team and each one of them is launching a new software feature on two different dates (12^th and 21^st) in five different months – January, February, March, April, and May – but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons launch on the same date in the same month.Frank launches on an even-numbered date in March. Two persons launch between Frank and Carol. An equal number of persons launched after David and before Bob, and neither of them launched in January. David did not launch on an even-numbered date. Eve launches after Carol and before Alice. John launches on a date immediately before the one in which Alice launches. The number of persons launching before Eve is the same as after Harry. Only one person launches between Ivy and Harry. Ivy does not launch in the same month as Frank.

Question:

Who  launched on the 12^th  of February?

Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: D = G ≥ N = U; R ≤ V = P K ≥ M; Z = T ≤ R

Conclusions:

I. G ≥ Z

II. R = P

III. D > M

Direction: In the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/ are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.

Statements: M ≤ P L ≤ S

Conclusions:

I. S ≥ H

II. F ≤ R

III. R ≥ L

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Twelve persons – K to V – friends attended a meeting sitting on a rectangle table in such a way that two persons each side and one person each sit on the corner not necessarily in the same order. All of them are facing the towards the centre of the table. M sits fourth to the right of Q and sit opposite to K. S, who sits two places away from K, does not sit at corner. P sits to the immediate right of V, who sits third to the left of L. L sits immediate right of S. N sit opposite P. T and U are neighbours. U sits third to the right of R.R and V do not sit at the corners.

Question:

What is the position of O with respect to S?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Twelve persons – K to V – friends attended a meeting sitting on a rectangle table in such a way that two persons each side and one person each sit on the corner not necessarily in the same order. All of them are facing the towards the centre of the table. M sits fourth to the right of Q and sit opposite to K. S, who sits two places away from K, does not sit at corner. P sits to the immediate right of V, who sits third to the left of L. L sits immediate right of S. N sit opposite P. T and U are neighbours. U sits third to the right of R.R and V do not sit at the corners.

Question:

Who sits fourth to the left of N?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Twelve persons – K to V – friends attended a meeting sitting on a rectangle table in such a way that two persons each side and one person each sit on the corner not necessarily in the same order. All of them are facing the towards the centre of the table. M sits fourth to the right of Q and sit opposite to K. S, who sits two places away from K, does not sit at corner. P sits to the immediate right of V, who sits third to the left of L. L sits immediate right of S. N sit opposite P. T and U are neighbours. U sits third to the right of R.R and V do not sit at the corners.

Question:

How many persons sit between T and V when counted from the right of V?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Twelve persons – K to V – friends attended a meeting sitting on a rectangle table in such a way that two persons each side and one person each sit on the corner not necessarily in the same order. All of them are facing the towards the centre of the table. M sits fourth to the right of Q and sit opposite to K. S, who sits two places away from K, does not sit at corner. P sits to the immediate right of V, who sits third to the left of L. L sits immediate right of S. N sit opposite P. T and U are neighbours. U sits third to the right of R.R and V do not sit at the corners.

Question:

Four of the following are similar in some way therefore forms a group. Find the odd one out.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Twelve persons – K to V – friends attended a meeting sitting on a rectangle table in such a way that two persons each side and one person each sit on the corner not necessarily in the same order. All of them are facing the towards the centre of the table. M sits fourth to the right of Q and sit opposite to K. S, who sits two places away from K, does not sit at corner. P sits to the immediate right of V, who sits third to the left of L. L sits immediate right of S. N sit opposite P. T and U are neighbours. U sits third to the right of R.R and V do not sit at the corners.

Question:

Which of the following statement is true?

a. Q sit opposite O.
b. K and L are neighbours.
c. P sit in the middle side

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.Eight persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are standing such that A is 25 m to the East of B. C is 30 m to the South of A. D is 35 m to the West of C. E is 20 m to the North of D. F is 40 m to the East of E. G is 15 m to the South of F. H is 20 m to the East of G.

Question:

If another person X is standing 25 m North of C, then in which direction is X with respect to G?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.Eight persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are standing such that A is 25 m to the East of B. C is 30 m to the South of A. D is 35 m to the West of C. E is 20 m to the North of D. F is 40 m to the East of E. G is 15 m to the South of F. H is 20 m to the East of G.

Question:

Approx how far is A with respect to H?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.Eight persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are standing such that A is 25 m to the East of B. C is 30 m to the South of A. D is 35 m to the West of C. E is 20 m to the North of D. F is 40 m to the East of E. G is 15 m to the South of F. H is 20 m to the East of G.

Question:

In which direction is H standing with respect to B?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons namely D to M lives on five story building on two flats I and II such that bottom most floor is number 1 and top most floor is number 5 and Flat I is to the west of Flat II but not necessarily in the same order.Three floors between the floor F and M and both of them live in different flat. M lives above F. J lives on an even numbered floor and odd number flat. Number of floors above J is same as number of floors below D, who is to the east of G. E lives two floors above G and immediately above the floor of K. H and L does not live in the same flat as D and M. L lives above H, who does not live on the same floor as I.

Question:

On which floor K does live?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons namely D to M lives on five story building on two flats I and II such that bottom most floor is number 1 and top most floor is number 5 and Flat I is to the west of Flat II but not necessarily in the same order.Three floors between the floor F and M and both of them live in different flat. M lives above F. J lives on an even numbered floor and odd number flat. Number of floors above J is same as number of floors below D, who is to the east of G. E lives two floors above G and immediately above the floor of K. H and L does not live in the same flat as D and M. L lives above H, who does not live on the same floor as I.

Question:

How many floors are there between L and G?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons namely D to M lives on five story building on two flats I and II such that bottom most floor is number 1 and top most floor is number 5 and Flat I is to the west of Flat II but not necessarily in the same order.Three floors between the floor F and M and both of them live in different flat. M lives above F. J lives on an even numbered floor and odd number flat. Number of floors above J is same as number of floors below D, who is to the east of G. E lives two floors above G and immediately above the floor of K. H and L does not live in the same flat as D and M. L lives above H, who does not live on the same floor as I.

Question:

Who lives just below M’s floor in the same flat?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons namely D to M lives on five story building on two flats I and II such that bottom most floor is number 1 and top most floor is number 5 and Flat I is to the west of Flat II but not necessarily in the same order.Three floors between the floor F and M and both of them live in different flat. M lives above F. J lives on an even numbered floor and odd number flat. Number of floors above J is same as number of floors below D, who is to the east of G. E lives two floors above G and immediately above the floor of K. H and L does not live in the same flat as D and M. L lives above H, who does not live on the same floor as I.

Question:

Four of the following are similar in some way therefore forms a group. Find the odd one out.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.

Ten persons namely D to M lives on five story building on two flats I and II such that bottom most floor is number 1 and top most floor is number 5 and Flat I is to the west of Flat II but not necessarily in the same order.Three floors between the floor F and M and both of them live in different flat. M lives above F. J lives on an even numbered floor and odd number flat. Number of floors above J is same as number of floors below D, who is to the east of G. E lives two floors above G and immediately above the floor of K. H and L does not live in the same flat as D and M. L lives above H, who does not live on the same floor as I.

Question:

In which flat and floor I live?

irections: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Books are Notebooks.

Only a few Notebooks are Copy.

Only a few Copy are Scales.

Conclusions:

I. Some Books are Copy.

II. Some Copy are not Scales is a possibility.

III. No Book is Copy.

Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Only a few Flower are Grass.

No Grass is Bush.

Only Bush is Shrubs.

Conclusions:

I. Some Grass are not Flower.

II. Some Shrubs are not Flower.

III. All Grass can be Bush.

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

A certain number of students are seated in a straight line facing North. N is seated at one of the ends of the row, and two students are seated between N and T. There are equal numbers of students on both sides of S. R sits third to the left of T, who is positioned fourth from one of the extreme ends. A is seated at one of the extreme ends of the row. R is not seated at any extreme end. There are five students between A and M. D is seated exactly halfway between A and M. Two students are seated between M and S. The number of students between R and N is the same as that between R and M.

Question:

Who is sitting exactly between R and M?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

A certain number of students are seated in a straight line facing North. N is seated at one of the ends of the row, and two students are seated between N and T. There are equal numbers of students on both sides of S. R sits third to the left of T, who is positioned fourth from one of the extreme ends. A is seated at one of the extreme ends of the row. R is not seated at any extreme end. There are five students between A and M. D is seated exactly halfway between A and M. Two students are seated between M and S. The number of students between R and N is the same as that between R and M.

Question:

How many students are seated in the row?

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

A certain number of students are seated in a straight line facing North. N is seated at one of the ends of the row, and two students are seated between N and T. There are equal numbers of students on both sides of S. R sits third to the left of T, who is positioned fourth from one of the extreme ends. A is seated at one of the extreme ends of the row. R is not seated at any extreme end. There are five students between A and M. D is seated exactly halfway between A and M. Two students are seated between M and S. The number of students between R and N is the same as that between R and M.

Question:

Which one is odd?

How many such pairs of digits are there in the number '84572135', each of which has as many digits between them in the number (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the number system?

In the word "CHARACTER", each consonant is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and each vowel is replaced by the next letter in the alphabetical series. After replacing the letters, arrange all the resulting letters in ascending alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter from the left end and the fifth letter from the right end in the word thus formed?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.There are eight persons in a family – Rohit is married to Anika, who is the aunt of Zoya. Krish is the only son of Rohit. Sanya is the daughter of Varun. Varun is the elder brother of Anika. Alok is the father of both Varun and Anika. Veer is the cousin brother of Krish. Zoya and Veer are siblings. Rohit has no siblings. Zoya is the niece of Anika.

Question:

How is Alok related to Sanya?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.There are eight persons in a family – Rohit is married to Anika, who is the aunt of Zoya. Krish is the only son of Rohit. Sanya is the daughter of Varun. Varun is the elder brother of Anika. Alok is the father of both Varun and Anika. Veer is the cousin brother of Krish. Zoya and Veer are siblings. Rohit has no siblings. Zoya is the niece of Anika.

Question:

Who is the father of Krish?

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.There are eight persons in a family – Rohit is married to Anika, who is the aunt of Zoya. Krish is the only son of Rohit. Sanya is the daughter of Varun. Varun is the elder brother of Anika. Alok is the father of both Varun and Anika. Veer is the cousin brother of Krish. Zoya and Veer are siblings. Rohit has no siblings. Zoya is the niece of Anika.

Question:

Who is the daughter of Varun?