SSC JE Mechanical – 14 Nov 2022 – Shift-2

1. In this question three statements are given followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to consider the three statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

All birds are kites.

Some kites are imported.

No imported thing is red.

Conclusions:

(I) No kite is red.

(II) Some birds are red.

(III) Some kites are red.

2. Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?

784 ÷ 112 + 28 × 2 - 63 = 729

3. Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1.Adult Butterfly

2.Eggs

3.Pupa

4.Caterpillar

5.Emerging  Butterfly

4. If A denotes '+', B denotes '×', C denotes '-', and D denotes '÷' then what will be the value of the following expression ?

121 D 11 A 15 C 6 B 3 = ?

5. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. 

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed) 

(317, 518, 719)

(427, 628, 829) 

6. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

7. How many numbers of triangle are there in the following figure?

8. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets. 

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(26, 74, 41)

(33, 81, 48)

9. If A denotes ‘+’, B denotes ‘ב, C denotes ‘−’, and D denotes ‘÷’, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in the following equation?

56 D 8 B 2 C 14 A 6 B 5 C 30 = ? 

10. Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? EM, JP, OV, TE, ?

11. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

143 : 170 :: 255 : ? :: 483 : 530 

12. A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

13. Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term.

HONEST : TSENOH :: JUNGLE : ELGNUJ :: CHEWING : ? 

14. Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term.

TIN3 : VGP15 :: MAN4 : OYP20 :: NUT8 : ? 

15. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) and complete the given number series?

108, 133, 162, 195, 232, ? 

16. In a code language, ‘REACTION’ is written as ‘9 - 22 - 26 - 24 - 7 - 18 - 12 - 13’ and ‘SCIENCE’ is written as ‘8 - 24 - 18 - 22 - 13 - 24 - 22’. How will ‘CHEMICAL’ be written in that language?

17. Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern.

18. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

12, 101, 45, 134, 78, 167, ? 

19. Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given pair. 

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Cobbler : Awl 

20. If A denotes ‘+', B denotes ‘×', C denotes ‘–’, and D denotes ‘÷', then what will be the value of the following expression?

128 C 7 B 21 A 64 D 2 = ?

21. Select the set in which the numbers are NOT related in the same way as are the numbers of the given set. 

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(12, 18, 108)

22. Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite to the face showing 6.

23. Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the given words in the order they appear in an English dictionary.

1. Compassion

2. Complexion

3. Complacency

4. Competence

5. Compatible

6. Compendious

 24. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

83, 69, 57, ?, 39, 33, 29

25. Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

1. Adaptation

2. Adjunct

3. Addendum

4. Adjacent

5. Advocate

6. Adjudicate

7. Adjourn

26. Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

27. In a certain code language, ‘DUST’ is written as ‘64’ and ‘FARM’ is written as ‘38’. How will ‘GOLF’ be written in that language?

28. In a certain code language, 'LAMP' is written as '121512613141611' and 'LANE' is written as '12151261413522'. How will 'JOYS' be written in that language?

29. Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

1. Legerity

2. Legitimate

3. Legislation

4. Legendary

5. Legalist

6. Legging

30. Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows with four people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. B, L, O and T are seated in the same row facing South. A, C, K and P are seated in the same row facing North. C sits at the extreme left end of their row and is the immediate neighbour of A. K sits between A and P and is exactly opposite L. T sits exactly opposite P. O does not sit at the extreme corner of their row. Who sits exactly opposite A?

31. Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the letter series.

K_J_ON_MJ_ON_M_L_NK_JL_ _

32. Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements:

Some scribbles are drawings.

Some drawings are paintings.

Conclusions:

I. All drawings are scribbles.

II. Some scribbles are definitely not paintings.

33. Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern(rotation is NOT allowed).

34. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets. 

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(37, 42, 126)

(21, 26, 78) 

35. In a certain code language, 'WHATEVER' is written as '204' and 'TOGETHER' is written as '196'.How will 'TRAINING' be written in that language?

36. Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1. Baby

2. Embryo

3. Kid

4. Foetus

5. Teenager 

37. Which of the given letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

FBID, ICMF, LDQH, ?, RFYL

38. L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are eight people sitting around a square table facing the centre of the table. Some of them sit at the corners while others sit at the exact centre of the sides. R sits at one of the corners of the table with M and O sitting on either of his sides. Q sits to the immediate left of M. P does not sit at any of the corners and is not the immediate neighbour of Q. N sits third to the left of S. Who sits second to the left of P?

39. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

40. Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

GJLD, ?, KZPT, MURO, OPTJ

41. J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven friends of different heights each. O is taller than N but not taller than L. M is the tallest. J is shorter than three of his friends. P is shorter than only M. N is not the shortest. Who amongst the seven friends is the shortest?

42. Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at line 'AB' as shown.

43. Pointing at a boy, Shikha said, “He is my brother’s mother’s husband’s son.” How is that boy related to Shikha?

44. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Rectangle : Line :: Circle : ?

45. Pointing towards a man, Pushpa, who is a girl, said, “He is the father-in-law of my father’s wife”. How is Pushpa related to the man?

46. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.

_ KJ _ KJJK _J _ _ 

47. Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/ number of consonants / vowels in the word)

Bold : Timid 

48. City C is north of the mid-point of the horizontal line joining city A and city B. City A is to the north-east of city E and south-west of city C. If city D is to the east of city C and north of city B, then what is the position of city D with respect to city E?

49. Sia starts from Point A and drives 10.7 km towards the north. She then takes a right turn, drives 8.2 km, turns right and drives 14.3 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 5.4 km. Further she takes a right turn, drives 3.2 km and takes a final left turn, drives 2.8km and stops at Point P. How far and towards which direction should she now drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree turns only)

50. Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the pattern.

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country?

2. Who among the following received the Bharat Ratna in 2001 to become the third Indian Classical Musician to receive India’s highest civilian honour?

3. In Odisha rice is considered as what type of crop?

4. What is the threshold limit for household annual income for receiving microfinance loan as per RBI directions of 2022?

5. How are the field lines inside the solenoid?

6. Pakyong airport is located in ________

7. In 2019, which of the following nations won the FIFA Women’s World Cup?

8. Who among the following was awarded the Padma Vibhushan, India’s second highest civilian award, for his contribution to Performing Arts?

9. The ________ of the Constitution of India states liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship for the Indian citizens.

10. The outer crust of Earth is called ______.

11. Who among the following has written the ‘Arthashastra’?

12. Who among the following was the first Gupta ruler of ancient India, married to a Lichchavi princess?

13. Who became only the third Indian to win a singles tennis match at Olympics in July 2021?

14. Which glacier is the source of river Alaknanda spread over an area of 21.17 sq km in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand?

15. Consider the following statements related to shuttler Kidambi Srikanth:

1. He won the silver medal at the BWF World Championship 2021.

2. He has been conferred with Arjuna award in 2018.

3. He is the first Indian man to reach the finals of BWF World Championship.

Which of the above statement/statements are correct?

16. Lysozyme, which is present in egg, has ___________.

17. Western cyclonic disturbances are responsible for:

18. A person with high blood pressure should take which of the following foods?

19. Which ministry launched the SMILE Scheme on 12^th February 2022?

20. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the characteristic features of the Indian Desert?

21.  As per the Indian Constitution, the size of the Council of Ministers shall NOT exceed:

22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the Indian river system?

A. Mandovi and Juari are two important rivers of Goa.

B. Periyar is the largest river of Karnataka.

C. Vaitarna originates from the Trimbak hills in Nashik district of Maharashtra. 

23. In which of the following places, does the Hornbill Festival take place annually in the month of December?

24. Which of the following instruments is used to detect the presence of current in the circuit?

25. Which of the following statemens is TRUE?

26. What is the SI unit for measuring the electric potential difference between two points in an electric circuit carrying some current?

27. What community of organisms found in compost bins, lawns, mulch or almost anywhere in soil or leaf litter serve as decomposers that helps break down organic matter and return valuable nutrients to the soil?

28. The women’s team from ____________lifted the 9^th National Women’s Ice Hockey Championship in Himachal Pradesh in January 2022.

29. Which of the following texts, related to the history of the Delhi Sultanate, was authored by Ziauddin Barani?

30. The equation given below describes which law ?

31. Which programme of the Ministry of Power successfully completed seven years of distributing and selling LED lights on January 2022?

32. Which is the marine ecological realm that experiences the effects of tidal and longshore currents and breaking waves to a depth of 5 to 10 metres below the low-tide level, depending on the intensity of storm waves?

33. Lactose is a natural sugar found in milk and dairy products and consists of one molecule of glucose and one of the _________.

34. Stratification in the field of ecology refers to:

35. As per the 2011 Census, what is the density of the population of India?

36. The aquatic plant ______ which is one of the most invasive weeds found growing wherever there is standing water. It drains oxygen from the water, which leads to death of fishes.

37. Ankita Raina is associated with which sport?

38. What is another name for baby Christ?

39. BIFR was set up in 1987. The full form of BIFR is:

40. The full form of IIP is:

41. The first English factory was set up on the banks of the river ____________ in 1651.

42. The Jhaveri sisters- Nayana, Suverna, Ranjana and Darshana are famously associated with which style of dance?

43. The Dampier-Hodges line is related to which of the following?

44. Which of the following was NOT a method of communication in earlier times in India?

45. Which of the following is NOT an example of small savings?

46. What is the carbon percentage by mass in the human body?

47. Which is a method of converting a solution into a solid, where a supersaturated solution nucleates the solute by a chemical equilibrium-controlled process?

48. The 11^th fundamental duty was added by which of the following Constitutional amendments?

49.Which of the following groups are all membrane-bound organelles?

50.  Who was appointed as the Chairman of National Financial Reporting Authority in March 2022?

1. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 727°C and a sink temperature of 27°C. Maximum efficiency of the engine is _________.

2. Which of the following basic component set is required for wet sump lubricating system?

3. The ratio of the difference between the maximum and minimum equilibrium speed to the mean equilibrium speed is:

4. Continuity equation is applicable to which of the following fluids?

5. Which of the following is a dead-weight governor?

6. In a thermosyphon cooling system, the water flows through the system due to:

7. A centrifugal pump is having manometric efficiency of 80% and a manometric head of 30 m. If the tangential velocity at the outlet of the pump is 20 m/s, then what will be the velocity of the whirl at the outlet of the pump? Take g = 10 m/s² .

8. For the compression stroke of a two-stroke diesel engine which of the below statements is correct?

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of steam trap?

10. Which of the following is the correct application of the ideal gas equation on the T-S diagram of the Rankine cycle?

11. In actual 4S four-stroke diesel engine the injection of fuel inside the cylinder cut off when the piston approaches

12. Turgo turbine is a non-Pelton wheel impulse turbine which is designed for ____.

13. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

14. Determine the maximum possible reduction for cold rolling a 400 mm thick slab when coefficient of friction µ = 0.07 and the roll diameter is 500 mm.

15. Which of the following statement is FALSE about a hermetically sealed compressor?

16. The value of nozzle efficiency doesn’t depend on which of the following?

17. Thermostat is used in a water cooled engine to maintain the:

18. The mathematical expression in terms of velocity (V) and acceleration due to gravity (g) for the Kinetic Head is given by ________.

19. For locomotive or portable boiler, which of the following pressure gauges is more suitable?

20. The size of a steam stop valve is designed by_____________.

21. Which of the following is NOT a type of wet sump lubricating system?

22. The angle of repose is defined as the maximum inclination of plane at which a body remain in equilibrium over the inclined plane by the assistance of friction only. According to the definition of angle of repose the correct relation between angle of repose (α) and angle of friction (ɸ) is:

23. Which of the following is the effect of super cooling?

24. A turbine develops 400 kW power under a head of 81 metres at 225 rpm. What will be the speed of the turbine under a head of 64 metres?

25. The frictional power of a single cylinder four-stroke engine is estimated to be 25 kW. If the mechanical efficiency is 75%, then the value of indicated power (in kW) will be:

26. For an incompressible flow, the volume flow rate of fluid with a given area of flow increases with _______.

27. Atmospheric pressure is taken as datum in:

28. The major use of an economiser is_____________.

29. The ratio of area of flow to the wetted perimeter is called _____________.

30. Internal latent heat is defined as _________.

31. An economiser takes heat from _________ for heating feed water.

32. Minor losses in the head are caused due to.

33. The channel which carries water away from the power house after it has passed through the turbine in the hydroelectric plant, is called _____.

34. A bar of 2 m² cross-sectional area is subjected to 150 N force, as shown in the given figure. What will be the stress developed in the bar?

35. The continuity equation is based on which of the following applications?

36. The condition under which W = ∫ pdV is Not true?

37. Which of the following gear trains will give the smallest speed reduction from the first shaft to the last shaft?

38. Which of the following materials are used as a cavitation-resistant material to minimize the effect of cavitation?

39. Head loss caused by an obstruction in the pipe having an area A and maximum area of obstruction as a is given by the expression:

40. The area under the p-V curve represents ___________.

41. Which of the following mechanical gauges can measure vacuum pressure by suitably modifying the graduations of the dial and adjusting the pointer?

42. Volumetric efficiency is the ratio of:

43. Which of the following is NOT a unit of evaporation rate?

44. Which of the following fluids has very low vapor pressure?

45. Which of the following thermodynamic properties is a result of the second law of thermodynamics?

46. A perfect gas has bulk modulus at a constant temperature:

47. Which of the following is an example of a reversible process?

48. Which of the following refrigeration systems is used for cryogenic cooling?

49. Which of the following is a non-positive displacement compressor?

50. Which of the following operation is used for grinding a flat surface?

51. Venturimeter is used for measuring the flow rates of

52. From which of the following air standard cycles an Otto cycle may be obtained if constant pressure heat addition is removed?

53. In a two-stage reciprocating compressor, air inlet happens at 1.5 bar while the delivery pressure is 54 bar. The ideal intercooler pressure must be:

54. A roots blower compresses 0.08 m³ air from 1 bar to 1.5 bar per revolution and ideal work input is found to be 3438.89 Nm, then roots efficiency is:

55. A fusible plug is used to_____________.

56. The first law of thermodynamics can be verified by __________.

57. Chezy’s formula is used for.

58. What is the reason for providing baffles in between water tubes in a Babcock and Wilcox boiler?

59. Choose the correct answer from the following four options. 

S1: In case of water cooled engine, installation must be at the front of vehicle.

S2: In case of air cooled engine, installation must be at the front of vehicle.

60. Production of the conical surface by a gradual reduction in diameter along the length of the cylinder is known as:

61. Select the correct statement linked with the Bernoulli’s equation.

62. The slope of the hydraulic gradient line is _______the slope of the energy gradient line if the pipe has a uniform cross-section.

63. For the given P-V diagram, which of the following statements holds true?

64. Which of the following is NOT a statement of the second law of thermodynamics?

65. For the power stroke of a two-stroke petrol engine which of the below statements is correct?

66. If three forces are acting on the body as shown in the below figure and the body is in equilibrium, then the magnitude of forces F₁ and F₂ will be:

67. In a boiler test 1250 kg of coal is consumed in 24 hours. The mass of water evaporated is 13,000 kg and the mean effective pressure is 7 bar. The feed water temperature is 40°C, the heating value of coal is 30000 kJ/kg. The enthalpy of 1 kg of steam at 7 bar is 2570.7 kJ. Equivalent evaporation per kg of coal is_____.

68. Lubricating oil is insufficient in the case of mist lubricating system when throttle is

69. Clearance ratio of a reciprocating compressor is 0.03. If the ratio of suction to discharge volume is 8, then the volumetric efficiency of such compressor will be equal to ______.

70. The principle of single stroke reciprocating compressor is similar to:

71. Water is flowing at the rate of 0.05 m³ /s in a smooth pipe of diameter 500 mm and length of 900 m. What will be the nature of the flow? Take the kinematic viscosity of water as 0.02 stokes.

72. Stirling cycle consists of _________.

73. Depending on ________________, the Hydraulic Gradient Line could rise or fall.

74. Which of the following option is correct if reheating of steam or air in the Rankine cycle is performed during the lower stages of turbine exhaust?

75. For the ice refrigeration system, which of the following statements holds true?

76. Double feed pump is commonly employed for_____________.

77. In a thermosyphon cooling system, the water flows through the system:

78. In actual four-stroke petrol engine ignition takes place when the piston approaches.

79. Choose the correct answer from the following four options.

S1: Higher volumetric efficiency due to more time for mixture intake in a four-stroke engine.

S2: Lower volumetric efficiency due to the lesser time for mixture intake in a two-stroke engine. 

80. Brake power may be measured with the use of a/an:

81. The steam separator is installed____________.

82. A reciprocating compressor has a bore diameter of 150 mm and a stroke of 200 mm. If volumetric efficiency of the compressor is 85%, then actual swept volume will be equal to:

83. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

84. In a petrol engine, HC emission is found minimum in the exhaust during:

85. A motor is pumping ‘Q’ quantity of water through a pipe of diameter 100 mm with a velocity of 5 m/s. After some years of working the pipe was required to be replaced with a new one whose diameter is 50mm. The velocity of water will be ________________.

86. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the assumption of the Air standard cycle?

87. The specific volume of air is:

88. For an incompressible fluid flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the fluid at different cross-sections will be proportional to:

89. A cam and follower combination belongs to the category of ____________.

90. In the pitot tube, when kinetic energy is converted into pressure energy causing the liquid to rise in the vertical limb, the height of liquid is called ______.

91. The ratio of pressure intensity at a point and specific weight of the fluid at that point is called _______.

92. The SI unit 1 cubic meter per second is equal to ________.

93. If the sum of whirl components of velocity at the inlet and outlet of a DE level turbine is found to be 1200 m/s and the mass flow rate of steam is 15 kg/minute, then the tangential force on the blade is:

94. For an incompressible fluid, the discharge is usually expressed as the:

95. Entropy of a system ________.

96. What will be the pressure at point B of this U-tube manometer? Take ρ₁ =density of light liquid and ρ₂ = density of heavy liquid.

97. In variable flow process:

98. The force behind the existence of surface tension is:

99. A 100 N force acts from a point P(0, 0, 0) to a point Q(1, 1, 1); then the force in, N, is represented as:

100. In dry sump lubricating system the capacity of the oil pressure pump compared to oil scavenging pump is always: