1.Ashtapradhan was a council of ministers:
A. in the Gupta administration
B. in the Chola administration
C. in the Vijayanagar administration
D. in the Maratha administration
Solutions
The Ashta Pradhan (also termed Asta Pradhad or the Council of 8) was a council of eight ministers that administered the Maratha empire. The council was formed in 1674 by their king, Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
2. Which one among the following newspapers was published first?
A. The Madras Mail
B. The Indian Social Reformer
C. The Bengal Gazette
D. The Times of India
Solutions
Hicky’s Bengal Gazette or the Original Calcutta General Advertiser was an English language weekly newspaper published in Kolkata (then Calcutta), the capital of British India. It was the first newspaper printed in Asia, and was published for two years, before the East India Company seized the newspaper’s types and printing press.
3. Jiyatarang Movement started in
A. Nagaland
B. Tripura
C. Manipur
D. Mizoram
Solutions
The Jiyatarang movement started in Manipur. The movement was against the colonial regime.
4. Which term is not used in the preamble of the Indian constitution?
A. Republic
B. Integrity
C. Federal
D. Socialist
Solutions
Socialist term is not used in the preamble of the Indian constitution.
5. The Prime Minister of India is the head of the:
A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. Both the State and Central Government
D. None of them
Solutions
The Prime Minister of India, is the chief of government, chief advisor to the President of India, head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the majority party in parliament. The Prime Minister leads the executive branch of the Government of India.
6. How many types of writs can be issued by the supreme court?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Solutions
Therefore there is judicial control on administrative actions and individuals rights to check and balance through the provision of ‘WRITS’ by the supreme Court . As per Article 32 of the Constitution of India Supreme Court can issue 5 types of writs: Habeas corpus- means presenting the body.
7. The Indian Economy is characterized by:
A. pre-dominance of agriculture
B. low per capita income
C. Massive unemployment
D. All of the above
correct answer is D. All of the above (Pre – dominance of agriculture, Low per capita income, and Massive unemployment.)
Key Points
- Agriculture is called the backbone of the Indian economy because 70% of the Indian population are engaged in agriculture and raw material for the Industrial sectors like food processing company, and the textile industry comes from the agricultural sector.
- Per capita income is a measure of the amount of money earned per person in a nation or geographic region.
- Per capita income is used to determine the average per-person income for an area and to evaluate the standard of living and quality of life of the population.
- The unemployment rate is the proportion of the economically active population (those in work plus those seeking and available to work) who are unemployed.
- Mass unemployment exists when officially one person in ten in the labor force is counted as being out of work.
8. The Green Revolution in India has contributed to:
A. inter-regional inequality
B. inter-class inequality
C. inter-crop inequality
D. All of the above
The correct answer is D. All of the above.
Explanation:
The Green Revolution, while significantly increasing food production in India, also led to several inequalities.
- Inter-regional inequality:The Green Revolution was implemented unevenly across different regions of India. Areas with better infrastructure and access to resources like irrigation and fertilizers benefited more, leading to disparities between developed and less developed regions.
- Inter-class inequality:Within regions, the benefits of the Green Revolution were largely concentrated among large landowners who could afford to invest in new technologies like high-yielding varieties (HYVs) and fertilizers. This further exacerbated existing economic disparities between rich and poor farmers.
- Inter-crop inequality:The focus on high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice led to a shift away from other crops like pulses and millets, which were traditionally grown by smaller farmers and consumed by poorer sections of the population. This shift contributed to imbalances in crop production and increased dependence on a few key staples.
9. Core industries include:
A. basic industries
B. industries catering to defence requirements
C. critical industries
D. All the above
The correct answer is D. All the above
Explanation:
Core industries are those that form the backbone of an economy. They generally include:
- Basic industries (like steel, cement, electricity, etc.)
- Industries catering to defence requirements (essential for national security)
- Critical industries (whose functioning is vital for the economy and infrastructure)
Hence, all the options listed are part of core industries.
10. Which zone of a candle flame is the hottest?
A. Dark innermost zone
B. Outermost zone
C. Middle luminous zone
D. Central zone
The correct answer is B. Outermost zone.
Explanation: The outermost zone of a candle flame is the hottest because it receives the most oxygen, allowing for complete combustion to occur.
Why other options are incorrect:
- A. Dark innermost zone:This zone is the least hot due to limited oxygen supply and incomplete combustion.
- C. Middle luminous zone:This zone is moderately hot and is characterized by the yellow light emitted from burning carbon particles.
- D. Central zone:This option is not a standard term used to describe zones in a candle flame.
11. Which one of the following is used to remove Astigmatism for a human eye?
A. Concave lens
B. Convex lens
C. Cylindrical lens
D. Prismatic lens
The correct answer is C. Cylindrical lens.
Explanation: Astigmatism is a vision defect where the curvature of the cornea or lens is uneven, causing blurred vision. Cylindrical lenses are designed to correct this irregularity by focusing light differently in different meridians of the eye, thereby sharpening vision.
Why other options are incorrect:
- A. Concave lens:Concave lenses are used to correct nearsightedness (myopia), where the eye focuses light in front of the retina. They are not designed to address the uneven curvature causing astigmatism.
- B. Convex lens:Convex lenses are used to correct farsightedness (hyperopia), where the eye focuses light behind the retina. They are also not suitable for astigmatism correction.
- D. Prismatic lens:Prismatic lenses are used to correct eye alignment issues, such as strabismus (crossed eyes). They do not address the curvature problems associated with astigmatism.
12. Which one of the following is a mixed fertilizer?
A. Urea
B. CAN
C. Ammonium sulphate
D. NPK
The correct answer is D. NPK.
Explanation: A mixed fertilizer contains multiple nutrients, and NPK stands for Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium, which are all essential nutrients for plant growth, making it a mixed fertilizer.
Why other options are incorrect:
- A. Urea: Urea is a straight fertilizer, meaning it only contains nitrogen.
- B. CAN: CAN stands for Calcium Ammonium Nitrate, which is also considered a straight fertilizer as it primarily provides nitrogen.
- C. Ammonium sulphate: Ammonium sulphate is another straight fertilizer, containing only nitrogen and sulfur.
13. The most reactive among the halogens is:
A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
The most reactive among the halogens is A. Fluorine.
Explanation
- Reactivity trend: The reactivity of halogens decreases as you move down the group in the periodic table (Group 17), making fluorine the most reactive.
- Electronegativity and atomic size: Fluorine has the smallest atomic size and the highest electronegativity among the halogens, meaning it has the strongest attraction for electrons and readily gains an electron to achieve a stable electron configuration, which explains its high reactivity.
Why other options are incorrect
- B. Chlorine: Chlorine is less reactive than fluorine due to its larger atomic size and lower electronegativity.
- C. Bromine: Bromine is less reactive than both fluorine and chlorine due to its even larger atomic size and lower electronegativity.
- D. Iodine: Iodine is the least reactive of the given halogens, owing to its largest atomic size and lowest electronegativity.
14. Which one of the following is a modified stem?
A. Carrot
B. Sweet potato
C. Coconut
D. Potato
The correct option is D. Potato.
Explanation
- A potato is a modified underground stem called a tuber.
- It stores food, mainly starch, and has buds (eyes) from which new shoots and roots can grow.
- These buds are evidence that the potato is a stem, as roots don’t have buds.
Why other options are incorrect
- A. Carrot: A carrot is a modified root, specifically a taproot, which stores food.
- B. Sweet potato: A sweet potato is also a modified root, an adventitious root that stores food.
- C. Coconut: A coconut is a fruit, specifically a fibrous drupe, containing a seed.
15. ‘Athlete’s Foot’ is a disease caused by
A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Protozoan
D. Nematode
The correct option is B. Fungus.
Explanation
- Athlete’s foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin of the feet.
- The fungi responsible, called dermatophytes, thrive in warm, moist environments, which are often found inside shoes.
- The infection is contagious and can spread through contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces in places like public showers and pools.
Why other options are incorrect
- A. Bacteria: Bacteria can cause various infections, and a secondary bacterial infection can sometimes occur with athlete’s foot due to skin damage, but bacteria are not the primary cause of the disease.
- C. Protozoan: Protozoa are single-celled organisms that cause diseases like malaria and amoebic dysentery, but not athlete’s foot.
- D. Nematode: Nematodes are parasitic worms, and they are not the cause of athlete’s foot.
16. Which one of the following is present in chlorophyll which gives a green colour to plant leaves?
A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Iron
D. Manganese
The correct option is B. Magnesium
Explanation
- Magnesium (Mg) is a key element located at the center of the chlorophyll molecule’s porphyrin ring structure.
- It plays a vital role in capturing light energy during photosynthesis.
- The green color of plant leaves is a result of chlorophyll reflecting green wavelengths of light while absorbing blue and red wavelengths.
Why other options are incorrect
- A. Calcium: Calcium is an essential mineral for plant growth and development but is not a component of chlorophyll.
- C. Iron: Iron is required for the synthesis of chlorophyll, but it is not part of the chlorophyll molecule’s structure itself.
- D. Manganese: Manganese is required by plants as a cofactor for some enzymes involved in photosynthesis but is not found in the chlorophyll molecule.
17. In human beings, the opening of the stomach into the small intestine is called
A. caecum
B. ileum
C. esophagus
D. pylorus
The correct option is D. pylorus.
Explanation of the options
- Pylorus: The pylorus is a muscular sphincter at the lower end of the stomach that regulates the passage of partially digested food (chyme) into the small intestine.
- Caecum: The caecum is a pouch at the beginning of the large intestine, receiving waste matter from the small intestine.
- Ileum: The ileum is the final and longest section of the small intestine, located after the jejunum and connecting to the large intestine.
- Esophagus: The esophagus is the muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach.
18. Which of the dance forms enlisted in UNESCO?
A. Mudiyeltu
B. Bidesia
C. Maach
D. Yakshagan
The correct option is A. Mudiyettu.
Explanation
- Mudiyettu is a traditional ritual theatre and dance drama from Kerala that was inscribed on UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.
- It is a community ritual performed in Bhadrakali temples to depict the mythological battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika.
Information on other dance forms
- Bidesia: This is a form of folk theatre from the Bhojpuri-speaking region of India, known for its powerful social commentary. It is not currently on the UNESCO list.
- Maach: This is a folk theatre form from the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. It is not on the UNESCO list of intangible cultural heritage.
- Yakshagana: A well-known traditional theatre form from Karnataka, it combines dance, music, and dialogue. While an institution related to it, the Keremane Idagunji Mahaganapati Yakshagana Mandali, has been accredited by UNESCO, Yakshagana itself is not on the list as a dance form.
19. ‘India of our Dreams’ is a book written by:
A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
B. Dr. C. Subramanian
C. M.V. Kamath
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
The correct option is C. M.V. Kamath
About M.V. Kamath’s India of our Dreams
- It is a book of essays and opinions by M.V. Kamath, who was a prominent journalist and broadcasting executive.
- Kamath served as an editor for publications like the Sunday Times and The Times of India.
20. With which game is ‘Bully’ associated?
A. Cricket
B. Football
C. Golf
D. Hockey
The term “bully” is associated with the game of Hockey.
In field hockey, a “bully” is a method used to restart the game after a temporary stoppage in play for reasons other than a penalty corner, penalty stroke, or goal. Two players, one from each team, will face each other and tap their sticks on the ground and then against their opponent’s stick three times, before trying to gain control of the ball to resume play.
While the term “bullying” can also refer to aggressive or intimidating behavior in sports in general, when used in a sports context as a specific term of play or technique, “bully” is strongly associated with hockey.
21. Which amongst the following Abbreviations stands for organization related to Indian space programme ?
A. NASA
B. ISO
C. ISRO
D. NSAT
Solutions
Indian space research organisation (ISRO) is the space agency of government of India.
Headquartered at Banglore, it was established on 15th of August 1969.
22. Indian Standard Time relates to:
A. 75.5º E longitude
B. 82.5º E longitude
C. 90.5º E longitude
D. 0º longitude
Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on the longitude 82.5° E. This meridian, also written as 82°30′ E, passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh and is considered the standard time for the entire country.
This longitude was chosen because it lies roughly in the middle of India’s east-west longitudinal extent, which helps to ensure a uniform time across the country. It results in IST being 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
23. In which Eco-system Grassland is included?
A. Marine
B. Fresh water
C. Terrestrial
D. Artificial
Grassland is a terrestrial ecosystem. Terrestrial ecosystems are exclusively land-based, in contrast to aquatic ecosystems found in water. Other examples of terrestrial ecosystems include forests, deserts, and tundra.
Here is a breakdown of the four ecosystem types listed:
- Marine: An ecosystem found in saltwater, such as oceans, seas, and coral reefs.
- Freshwater: An aquatic ecosystem with low salt content, including rivers, lakes, and ponds.
- Terrestrial: A land-based ecosystem, which includes grasslands.
- Artificial: A human-made ecosystem, such as a crop field, aquarium, or zoo.
24. The antibiotic penicillin is obtained from which of the following?
A. synthetic process
B. a bacterium
C. fungus
D. virus infected cells
The correct answer is C. fungus.
- Penicillin is produced from the Penicillium molds, which are a type of fungus.
- Scottish physician and microbiologist Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 when he noticed that the fungus Penicillium notatum was inhibiting the growth of a bacterial culture in his lab.
25. Petrology is the study of:
A. rocks
B. soils
C. earth
D. minerals
Petrology is the study of rocks.
- This branch of geology deals with the origin, composition, structure, and classification of rocks.
- It encompasses the three main types of rocks: igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary
26. In context of Mauryan period ‘Gudhapurushas’ referred to –
A. Detectives
B. Blacksmith
C. Army commander
D. Chariot rider
In the context of the Mauryan period, Gudhapurushas referred to A. Detectives.
Details of the espionage system:
- The Mauryan Empire, based on Kautilya’s Arthashastra, had a sophisticated and well-organized spy network.
- The Gudhapurushas were secret agents and detectives responsible for gathering intelligence for the emperor.
- These spies were organized into two main categories:
- Sansthana: Stationary spies who operated from a fixed base.
- Sanchari: Wandering or mobile spies.
- The system also included other types of agents, such as the infamous Vishakanyas (poisonous girls).
- The entire espionage department was under the control of a high-ranking official known as the Mahamatyapasarpa.
27. Which among the following parts of a plant is involved in gaseous exchange?
A. Stomata
B. Lenticels
C. Vacuoles
D. Stomata and Lenticels
The correct answer is D. Stomata and Lenticels.
Here’s why:
- Stomata: These are microscopic pores primarily found on the leaves, but can also be on the stems. They are the main site for gaseous exchange in most plants, allowing for the intake of carbon dioxide and the release of oxygen and water vapor.
- Lenticels: These are porous, lens-shaped areas found on the woody stems and roots of plants. They allow for gas exchange in parts of the plant that are no longer covered by stomata due to secondary growth.
- Vacuoles: These are membrane-bound organelles within plant cells that are mainly involved in storage, maintaining turgor pressure, and waste disposal. They are not directly involved in gaseous exchange with the atmosphere.
28. Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
A. Surendranath Banerjee
B. C.R. Das
C. Ashutosh Mukharjee
D. Rabindra Nath Tagore
A. Surendranath Banerjee was a key leader of the agitation against the Partition of Bengal in 1905. He was one of the foremost public figures who protested the partition and organized protests, petitions, and public support across Bengal.
Important Context:
- Other leaders: While Surendranath Banerjee was a leading figure, the anti-partition and Swadeshi movements saw leadership from various people, including Rabindranath Tagore, Krishna Kumar Mitra, and later, more radical figures like Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal.
- Rabindranath Tagore: Contributed to the movement by writing patriotic songs and organizing the Rakhi Utsav to symbolize unity between Hindus and Muslims.
- C.R. Das (Chittaranjan Das): Was a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement, but his major role came later with the Non-Cooperation Movement and the formation of the Swaraj Party.
- Ashutosh Mukherjee: Was a notable educator and judge who contributed significantly to the Indian education system but was not a primary leader of the political agitation against the partition
29. Graphite is used in nuclear reactors for –
A. reducing the speed of fast neutrons
B. cooling the reactor
C. absorbing neutrons
D. None of the above
Graphite is used in nuclear reactors for A. reducing the speed of fast neutrons. In this role, it is called a moderator.
Here’s a breakdown of its function:
- Nuclear fission: When a fissile atom (like Uranium-235) is struck by a neutron, it splits and releases energy along with more fast-moving neutrons.
- The need for a moderator: These newly released neutrons are too fast to efficiently cause further fission. They need to be slowed down to “thermal” speeds to increase the probability of them being absorbed by other fuel atoms and continuing the chain reaction.
- How graphite works: As the fast neutrons collide with the carbon atoms in the graphite moderator, they lose energy and slow down.
- Efficiency: Graphite is effective because it slows down the neutrons without absorbing too many of them, ensuring enough are available to sustain the chain reaction.
Other options are incorrect:
- B. cooling the reactor: While graphite has good thermal properties, it is not the primary coolant. Other materials like water, heavy water, or gas are used for cooling.
- C. absorbing neutrons: Materials like boron or cadmium are used in control rods to absorb neutrons and slow down the chain reaction. Graphite is valued for its low neutron absorption.
30. The Republic Day parade, held every year, is organized by which of the following ministries?
A. Union Home Ministry
B. Union Ministry of Defence
C. Union Ministry of Finance
D. Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
The Republic Day parade in India is organized by the Union Ministry of Defence. It showcases the country’s military strength and rich cultural heritage on January 26 each year. The Ministry of Defence’s official website, Rashtraparv, is dedicated to providing information related to Republic Day and Independence Day celebrations.
31. Which of the following articles can not be suspended upon the proclamation of the National Emergency?
A. Article 20 and 21
B. All Fundamental Rights
C. All Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
D. None of the above
Upon the proclamation of a National Emergency, Article 20 and Article 21 cannot be suspended. This was a critical safeguard added to the Indian Constitution by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, which followed the experience of the 1975-77 Emergency.
Here is a breakdown of what these articles protect:
- Article 20: Provides protection in respect of conviction for offenses, ensuring protections against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination.
- Article 21: Guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty, stating that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
32. What would be the effect on an economy if money supply is increased more than market expectations because of decision on part of the Central Bank?
A. Balance of Payment increases
B. Growth in Import
C. Hyperinflation
D. Stagflation
A decision by a Central Bank to increase the money supply more than the market expects can have several significant effects on an economy. The most direct and anticipated effect is often an increase in the rate of inflation. This is because more money in circulation chases the same amount of goods and services, driving up prices.
Here’s a detailed explanation of the effects:
- Inflationary Pressure: When the money supply increases, consumers have more money to spend, and businesses might borrow more to invest. If this increased demand outpaces the economy’s ability to produce more goods and services, it leads to a general rise in prices, which is known as inflation. A key concept explaining this is the quantity theory of money.
- Hyperinflation (Extreme Case): In situations where the money supply grows excessively fast without corresponding economic growth, the value of the currency can plummet rapidly, leading to hyperinflation. This means prices increase uncontrollably, sometimes daily or even hourly.
- Impact on Interest Rates: An increase in the money supply usually leads to a decrease in interest rates, as the availability of money in the financial system increases. Lower interest rates can stimulate borrowing and investment, but if not managed properly, this can also fuel inflation.
- Balance of Payments and Imports: An increase in the money supply can also lead to a depreciation of the domestic currency, making imports more expensive and potentially impacting the balance of payments. However, some studies suggest that an increased money supply can also boost exports in the long run.
Therefore, among the options provided:
- A. Balance of Payment increases: This is not a direct or guaranteed effect of an increased money supply that surpasses market expectations. While the balance of payments is influenced by money supply, the exact direction of the change is complex and depends on other factors like exchange rates and relative prices.
- B. Growth in Import: While a depreciating currency (a potential effect of increased money supply) can make imports more expensive, it doesn’t automatically mean a growth in imports.
- C. Hyperinflation: This is a possible and significant effect if the increase in money supply is drastically out of sync with economic growth.
- D. Stagflation: Stagflation is characterized by high inflation and slow economic growth/high unemployment. While an increased money supply can cause inflation, stagflation requires a combination of factors, often including supply-side shocks, to occur. Simply increasing the money supply is more directly linked to inflation than stagflation.
Considering the most direct and impactful consequence of a Central Bank increasing the money supply beyond expectations, hyperinflation is the most extreme and potentially devastating result if not properly managed. While moderate increases in money supply can lead to general inflation, excessive increases risk hyperinflation.
33. How many members are nominated by the governor in the Legislative Council of the State?
A. 1/3rd of the total membership
B. 1/6th of the total membership
C. 1/12th of the total membership
D. 12 members
Based on Article 171 of the Indian Constitution, the governor nominates 1/6th of the total membership of the Legislative Council of a state. These nominated members are individuals with special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as:
- Literature
- Science
- Art
- Cooperative movement
- Social service
34. Which of the following book is centred on “Environment”?
A. The Late, Great Planet Earth
B. Silent Spring
C. Here I stand
D. And then One Day
The book centered on “Environment” is B. Silent Spring.
- Silent Spring: Rachel Carson wrote and published this book in 1962. It is considered a landmark in the modern environmental movement. The book details the destructive effects of synthetic pesticides, particularly DDT, on the environment.
- The Late, Great Planet Earth: This book by Hal Lindsey is based on biblical prophecy and is not centered on the environment in the context of environmental science.
- Here I Stand: This is a part manifesto, part autobiography, with a focus on Paul Robeson’s life and political views.
- And then One Day: This book is the autobiography of the actor Naseeruddin Shah.
35. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru drafted the resolution on Fundamental Rights an Economic Programme at which session of Indian National Congress?
A. ahore Session
B. Bombay Session
C. Calcutta Session
D. Karachi Session
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru drafted the resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme at the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931.
Context of the Karachi Session (1931):
- This session was presided over by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
- It took place after the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and the execution of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev, making it a charged event.
- The resolution was a landmark moment, outlining the future social and economic vision of an independent India, with elements that would later be incorporated into the Indian Constitution.
36. If an insect that feeds on feces sits on the food you are going to eat, you are most likely to be infected by which disease?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Cholera
C. Typhoid
D. Hepatitis B
If an insect that feeds on feces sits on food, you are most likely to be infected by typhoid or cholera. Both are diseases that spread through fecal contamination of food and water, which is a common way insects like houseflies mechanically transmit pathogens.
Here’s why the other options are incorrect:
- Tuberculosis: This is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs and is spread through the air via droplets from coughs and sneezes, not by insects contaminating food.
- Hepatitis B: This viral infection is transmitted through exposure to infected bodily fluids like blood, semen, and vaginal fluids, not via insects.
37. Which of the following is not an antibiotics?
A. Penicilin
B. Ampicilin
C. Streptomycin
D. Aspirin
The correct answer is D. Aspirin.
- Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to treat pain, reduce fever, and decrease inflammation. It does not act as an antibiotic.
- Penicillin, Ampicillin, and Streptomycin are all types of antibiotics, used to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria.
38. In which north east state of India Rongbang dare waterfall is situated?
A. Assam
B. Meghalaya
C. Manipur
D. Mizoram
The Rongbang dare waterfall is situated in Meghalaya. Specifically, it is located in the Garo Hills district.
39. The purpose of ‘selective credit control’ in hands of Reserve Bank of India is to –
A. Diversify credit to sensitive commodities.
B. Diversify credit to selected sectors.
C. Regulate credit in sensitive commodities.
D. Regulate credit in priority sectors.
The correct answer is C. Regulate credit in sensitive commodities. Selective credit control is a qualitative monetary policy tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Here is a breakdown of why this is the correct choice:
- Regulating specific sectors: Unlike general credit controls that affect the overall credit supply, selective credit controls focus on influencing the flow of credit to specific sectors or activities.
- Controlling inflation: This is primarily done to prevent excessive credit from fueling speculation and hoarding, particularly in commodities that are essential for mass consumption, such as food grains, sugar, and edible oils. By restricting credit for these activities, the RBI aims to stabilize their prices.
- Methods used: The RBI has historically achieved this by:
- Prescribing a minimum margin for lending against specified commodities.
- Fixing a ceiling on the amount of credit that banks can lend against such goods.
- Contrast with other options:
- Diversifying credit to sensitive commodities is not the purpose; rather, the intent is to limit or control it.
- Diversifying credit to selected sectors is more aligned with priority sector lending policies, which encourage credit to specific deserving sectors, rather than restricting it.
- Regulating credit in priority sectors is the objective of tools like priority sector lending, not selective credit control, which is typically restrictive.
40. Mitosis is a type of cell division in which –
A. The chromosomes maintain their original number.
B. The chromosome number is reduced to half.
C. The Chromosome number is doubled.
D. The chromosome number is reduced to one fourth.
The Correct Ans is A. The chromosomes maintain their original number.
Explanation:
- Mitosis is a type of cell division where a parent cell divides to form two identical daughter cells.
- The chromosome number remains the same in daughter cells as in the parent cell (diploid to diploid).
- In contrast, meiosis reduces the chromosome number to half (haploid).
Hence, the correct option is A.
41. WiMax stands for – Wimax
A. Worldwide interoperability for Microwave Access
B. Wireless Maximum
C. Wireless international Microwave Access
D. Worldwide Microwave Access
WiMax stands for A. Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access.
WiMax is a wireless communication standard that is based on the IEEE 802.16 standard. It provides high-speed internet access over a wide area and was developed as an alternative to wired technologies like DSL and cable.
42. Ginger is an example of –
A. Modified Node
B. Modified Root
C. Modified Stem
D. Tap Root
Ginger is an example of a C. Modified Stem. More specifically, it is a type of underground stem called a rhizome.
Why ginger is a stem, not a root
Although ginger grows underground and is commonly called “ginger root,” it is scientifically classified as a stem based on its distinct characteristics:
- Nodes and internodes: A ginger rhizome has nodes and internodes, which are the parts of a stem where buds and leaves grow. Roots do not have these structures.
- Scale leaves and buds: At the nodes of the ginger rhizome, you can find small, scaly leaves and buds that can grow into new shoots.
- Horizontal growth: A rhizome grows horizontally under the ground, whereas a taproot (like a carrot) grows vertically.
- Vegetative propagation: Each piece of a ginger rhizome can grow into a new, separate plant, a form of asexual reproduction.
43. Which of the following is not the mission of ISRO?
A. SURYA
B. Mars Orbiter Mission
C. YOUTHSAT
D. ADITYA-1
The correct answer is A. SURYA. This is not a mission of ISRO. The name of ISRO’s solar mission is Aditya-L1.
Here is a breakdown of the missions:
- A. SURYA: There is no recorded ISRO mission named “SURYA”. However, the Aditya-L1 mission, which studies the sun, is named after the Hindu deity Surya, which is another name for Aditya.
- B. Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM): This was ISRO’s maiden interplanetary mission, also known as Mangalyaan.
- C. YOUTHSAT: This was a joint Indo-Russian student satellite mission to investigate solar and atmospheric phenomena.
- D. ADITYA-1: This was the original name of ISRO’s first solar mission, which was later renamed Aditya-L1.
44. The first death anniversary day of Sri Rajiv Gandhi was observed as the —
A. National Integration Day
B. Peace and love Day
C. Secularism Day
D. Anti-terrorism Day
The first death anniversary of Sri Rajiv Gandhi on May 21, 1992, was observed as D. Anti-terrorism Day.
Context
- Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated by a suicide bomber on May 21, 1991, during an election campaign in Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu.
- The Indian government officially declared May 21 as Anti-Terrorism Day to raise awareness about the dangers of terrorism and violence.
- On this day, a pledge is taken in government offices and other public institutions to oppose all forms of terrorism and violence.
45. What is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they held in deposit?
A. The currency deposit ratio
B. The reserve deposit ratio
C. Cash reserve ratio
D. Cash deposit ratio
The ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they held in deposit is called the Currency Deposit Ratio.
Why other options are incorrect
- B. The reserve deposit ratio (RDR): This refers to the proportion of the total deposits that commercial banks keep as reserves (either as cash held by the banks or deposits with the central bank). It is a banking system ratio, not a public holding ratio.
- C. Cash reserve ratio (CRR): This is a specific percentage of a bank’s total deposits that they are required to hold as reserves with the central bank. It’s a component of the reserve deposit ratio.
- D. Cash deposit ratio: This term is less formal but essentially interchangeable with the currency deposit ratio, especially in contexts discussing the money multiplier. However, “Currency Deposit Ratio” is the standard term used in economics.
46. Before X-ray examination (coloured X-ray) of the stomach, patients are given suitable salt of barium because.
A. barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps stomach to appear clearly
B. barium salts are white in colour and this helps stomach to appear clearly
C. barium allows X-rays to pass through the stomach
D. barium salts are easily available
The correct option is A. barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps the stomach to appear clearly.
Explanation
- Standard X-ray images are not effective for visualizing soft tissues like the stomach, as X-rays pass through them.
- Barium sulfate is used as a contrast agent because it has a high atomic number, which means it is very effective at absorbing X-rays.
- When a patient swallows a barium sulfate suspension, it coats the lining of the stomach and other parts of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.
- This coating creates a sharp contrast, making the stomach’s shape, size, and any abnormalities (such as ulcers or tumors) clearly visible on the X-ray image.
- The term “coloured X-ray” in the question refers to this process, where the contrast medium effectively “colors” or highlights the organ being studied.
47. If the length of a simple pendulum is halved then its period of oscillation is –
A. doubled
B. halved
C. increased by a factor 2
D. decreased by a factor 2
The correct option is D. decreased by a factor 2
If the length of a simple pendulum is halved, its period of oscillation is decreased by a factor of
√2, which is approximately 0.707 of the original period.
48. Kalinga Prize is given in which of the following fields?
A. Arts
B. Medicine
C. Creative writing
D. Science
The correct option is D. Science
It is specifically awarded by UNESCO for the popularization of science, recognizing individuals for their exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to the general public.
49. Lake formed in a cut off river, meander is called:
A. Playa Lake
B. Meteoric Lake
C. Ox-Bow Lake
D. Crater Lake
The correct option is C. Ox-Bow Lake.
Explanation
- An oxbow lake is a U-shaped lake formed when a wide meander from the main course of a river is cut off to create a freestanding body of water.
- Over time, erosion and deposition cause the meander to become more curved. During a flood, the river may cut across the narrow neck of the meander, taking a straighter path.
- Sediment is then deposited, sealing off the meander from the main river channel and forming the oxbow lake.
Why other options are incorrect
- A. Playa Lake: A playa is a temporary lake in an arid basin that forms after rainfall and then evaporates, leaving behind a dry, flat lakebed.
- B. Meteoric Lake: This is not a standard geological term for a type of lake. The term “crater lake” is used for lakes formed in meteorite impact craters, as seen in India’s Lonar Lake.
- D. Crater Lake: A crater lake is a lake that forms in a volcanic crater or caldera after an eruption.
50. Brass contains
A. Copper and Zinc
B. Copper and Tin
C. Copper and Silver
D. Copper and Nickel
The correct option is A. Copper and Zinc.
Explanation
- Brass is a metal alloy, which is a mixture of two or more metals.
- It is primarily composed of copper (Cu) and zinc (Zn).
- The proportions of these two elements can be adjusted to create different types of brass with varying properties, such as hardness and malleability.
51. A tank can be filled by two pipes in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. When the tank was empty, the two pipes were opened. After some time, the first pipe was stopped and the tank was filled in 18 minutes. After how much time of the start was the first pipe stopped?
A. 5 minutes
B. 8 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 12 minutes
Step 1: Calculate the fraction of the tank filled by the second pipe in 18 minutes.
The second pipe fills the tank in 30 minutes, so its rate is 1/30 tank per minute.
In 18 minutes, it fills 
of the tank.
Step 2: Determine the remaining fraction of the tank to be filled.
The remaining part is 
of the tank.
Step 3: Calculate the time taken by the first pipe to fill the remaining part.
The first pipe fills the tank in 20 minutes, so its rate is 1/20 tank per minute.
Time taken = Remaining part / Rate of first pipe.
Time 
minutes.
Step 4: The time for which the first pipe was open is the time it took to fill the remaining portion.
Therefore, the first pipe was stopped after 8 minutes.
Answer: The first pipe was stopped after B. 8 minutes.
52. Compound interest of a sum of money for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum is Rs. 2, 448. Simple interest of the same sum of money at the same rate of interest for 2 years will be
A. Rs. 2,500
B. Rs. 2,400
C. Rs. 2,360
D. Rs. 2,250
Solutions
53. A candidate who scores 30 per cent fails by 5 marks, while another candidate who scores 40 per cent marks gets 10 more than minimum pass marks. The minimum marks required to pass are.
A. 50
B. 70
C. 100
D. 50
Solutions
54. In a one kilo metre race A, B and C are the three participants. A can give B a start of 50 m. and C a start of 69 m. The start, which B can allow C is
A. 17 m
B. 20 m
C. 19 m
D. 18 m
Solutions
55. The ratio of the ages of a father and his son 10 years hence will be 5 : 3, while 10 years ago, it was 3 : 1. The ratio of the age of the son to that of the father to-day, is.
A. 1: 2
B. 1 : 3
C. 2 : 3
D. 2 : 5
Solutions
56. A and B together can complete a work in 8 days and B and C together in 12 days. All of the three together can complete the work in 6 days. In how much time will A and C together complete the work?
A. 8 days
B. 10 days
C. 12 days
D. 20 days
Solutions
57. Two trains are moving on two parallel tracks but in opposite directions. A person sitting in the train moving at the speed of 80 km/hr passes the second train in 18 seconds. If the length of the second train is 1000 m, its speed is
A. 100 km/hr
B. 120 km/hr
C. 140 km/hr
D. 150 km/hr
Solutions
58. A person can row 
km an hour in still water and he finds that it takes him twice as long to row up as to row down the river. The speed of the stream is:
A. 2 km/hr
B. 3 km/hr
C. 
D. 
Solutions
59. A man has in all Rs. 640 in the denominations of one-rupee, five-rupee and ten-rupee notes. The numbers of each type of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes he has?
A. 150
B. 120
C. 100
D. 90
60. An interval of 3 hours 40 minutes is wrongly estimated as 3 hours 45.5 minutes. The error percentage is
A. 5.5
B. 5.2
C. 5
D. 2.5
Solutions
61. The greatest number, by which 1657 and 2037 are divided to give remainders 6 and 5 respectively, is
A. 127
B. 133
C. 235
D. 305
Solutions
62. The total cost price of two watches is Rs. 840. One is sold at a profit of 16 per cent and the other at a loss of 12 per cent. There is no loss or gain in the whole transaction. The cost price of the watch on which the shop-keeper gains, is
A. Rs. 360
B. Rs. 370
C. Rs. 380
D. Rs. 390
Solutions
63. A shopkeeper gives 12 per cent additional discount after giving an initial discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a radio. If the sale price of the radio is Rs. 704, the marked price is
A. Rs. 844.80
B. Rs. 929.28
C. Rs. 1,044.80
D. Rs. 1,000
Solutions
64. 72 men together can build a wall 140 m long in 21 days; the number of men working at the same rate required to build the same wall in 28 days is-
A. 54
B. 48
C. 36
D. 18
Solutions
65. The perimeters of square and a rectangle are equal.If their area be ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively, then correct statement is-
A. A<B
B. A ≤ B
C. A > B
D. A ≥ B
Solutions
66. A man bought a watch for 10% discount. If he had bought for 20% discount he would have got the watch for Rs 125 less. The marked price of the watch is-
A. 2500 Rs.
B. 1250 Rs.
C. 3750 Rs.
D. 1000 Rs.
Solutions
67. The average marks secured by 18 students were 26. But it was discovered that an item 32 was misread as 23. What is the correct mean of mark?
A. 26.5 mark
B. 24.5 mark
C. 25.5 mark
D. 27 mark
Solutions
We know that,
Incorrect mark = 23
correct = 32
difference = 32 – 23 = 9(more)
difference’9′ effect the 18 students = 9/18 = 0.5
Old average = 26
New average = 26 + 0.5 = 26.5
68. By selling a UPS for Rs 2080 a man gains If he sells it for Rs 1900,his loss will be-
A. 5%
B. 4%
C. 4.5%
D. 9%
Solutions
69. There were two candidates in an election. 10% of the voters did not vote. 120 votes were declared invalid. The elected candidate got 616 votes more than his opponent. If the elected candidate got 47% of the total votes, how many votes did each candidate get?
A. 5828, 5212
B. 8000,6000
C. 8894,9654
D. 7000,5000
Solutions
Let the total voting list of election is 100x,
10% of the voters did not vote
vote cast=90x
120 votes were declared invalid,
valid vote=90x-120
elected candidate got votes=47x
candidate who loss got=90x-120-47x
=43x-120
Form ATQ, use the expression below
ATQ,
47x – 43x + 120 = 616
4x = 496
X= 124
Elected Candidates got votes = 47x = 5828
Votes of Candidate who lost = 43x -120 = 5212
70. A hare starts from a place at 3.30 p.m. with a speed of 6 km/hr. The hound starts chasing it at 4 p.m. at 8 km/hr. Hound will overtake the hare at?
A. 4:00 pm
B. 4:30pm
C. 5:30pm
D. 6:00 pm
Solutions
71. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on an amount of Rs.15,000 for 2 years is Rs. 96 The rate of interest per annum is?
A. 11%
B. 10%
C. 8%
D. 5%
Solutions
72. A,B and C together earn Rs.3960 in 18 days.A and B can earn Rs.1200 in 10 days. B and C in 14 days can earn Rs.1820. How much amount does C can earn per day?
A. Rs.50
B. Rs.100
C. Rs.75
D. Rs.80
Solutions
73. Three numbers are in the ratio of 6 : 4 : 10 and the sum of their squares is 7448. The smallest of these numbers is-
A. 16
B. 28
C. 18
D. 10
Solutions
74. A wholesaler sells a good to a retailer at a profit of 5% and the retailer sells it to a customer at a profit of 10%. If the customer pays Rs. 2,000, what had it cost (in Rs) the wholesaler?
A. 1731.6
B. 3210.6
C. 1931.6
D. 2310.6
Solutions
75. A trader has some pigeon and pet dogs. If the total number of heads of pigeon and pet dogs together is 100 and the number of feet of pigeon and pet dogs is 284, then the ratio of pigeon and pet dogs is-
A. 28:21
B. 29:21
C. 25:27
D. 30:17
Solutions
76. A man sold two AC for Rs. 25000 each. If he sells one at a profit of 25%, and other one at a loss of 25%, he makes a profit/loss of on the whole-
A. 55%
B. 25.25%
C. 6.25%
D. 57.6%
Solutions
77. Amit and Brijesh have monthly incomes in the ratio 5:6 and monthly expenditures in the ratio 4:5. If they save Rs 3600 and Rs 3200 respectively, find the monthly income Brijesh-
A. Rs.28000
B. Rs.31200
C. Rs. 56000
D. Rs. 30000
Solutions
78. Price of oats rises by 15%. By how much percent should the consumption of oats be reduced so that the expenditure remains same-
A. 20%
B. 12.20%
C. 15%
D. 13.04%
Solutions
79. In a circular race of 2400m, A and B start from the same point and at the same time with speeds of 18kmph and 27 kmph. Find when will they meet again for the first time on the trace when they are running in the same direction ?
A. 1000 sec.
B. 1200 sec.
C. 600 sec.
D. 960 sec.
Solutions
80. If the cost price of 36 books is equal to the selling price of 45 books.find the loss percent?
A. 16
B. 20
C. 24
D. 25
Solutions
81. Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.
The Bar Graph gives the annual rates of inflation in percentages for 1975 and 1987.
From 1975 to 1987,Inflation rate increased in the third world countries approximately by
A. 10 %
B. 20 %
C. 30 %
D. 36 %
Solutions
82. Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.
The Bar Graph gives the annual rates of inflation in percentages for 1975 and 1987.
The change in rate of inflation was least in which of the following.
A. Developed Nations
B. UK
C. World
D. Third World
Solutions
83. Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.
The Bar Graph gives the annual rates of inflation in percentages for 1975 and 1987.
Comparing the figures for USA vis-à-vis the developed nations,it can be concluded that-
A. USA had better control on inflation
B. Developed nations had better control on inflation
C. The inflation rate continues to be the same for USA and developed nations
D. No conclusions can be drawn
Solutions
84. Read the following graph carefully and answer the question given below.
The Bar Graph gives the annual rates of inflation in percentages for 1975 and 1987.
In the year 1987,the inflation rate in the third world countries, the world jumped approximately by-
A. 135%
B. 126%
C. 122%
D. 200%
Solutions
85. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of rice costing Rs.27.5 and Rs.38 per kg respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs. 34 kg?
A. 4:5
B. 9:13
C. 8:13
D. 14:15
Solutions
86. The weights of 4 boxes are 20, 40, 60 and 90 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes and in a combination a box can be used only once?
A. 150
B. 170
C. 120
D. 160
Solutions
Going through options we get:-
a150 → 30 + 60 or 90 + 40 + 20
b170 → 20 + 60 + 90
c120 → 20 + 40 + 60
d160 → Not possible by any of the combinations
87. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
BB, DZ, GW, KS, ?
A. IK
B. IG
C. PN
D. PS
Solutions
88. Choose the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.
GH : 78 : : ? : 1819
A. HG
B. LM
C. RS
D. IJ
Solutions
89. In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
TOURNAMENT
A. TORMENT
B. RENT
C. TOUR
D. TRAP
Solutions
The word TRAP’ cannot be formed as there is no ‘P’ in TOURNAMENT
90. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
A. Lungs
B. Nose
C. Air pipe
D. Liver
Solutions
All the options given belongs to the category of organs involved in breathing process except option ‘d’
91. The average of the ages of Rajan and his son is 20. If Rajan’s present age is three times the age of his son, then what will be the age of Rajan 5 years from now?
A. 40 years
B. 28 years
C. 35 years
D. 25 years
Solutions
92. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 41- 22
B. 63- 93
C. 82- 44
D. 83- 64
Solutions
93. From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
SHORTING
A. THORN
B. NITRO
C. NOISE
D. STING
Solutions
‘NOISE’ cannot be formed using the letters of the word ‘SHORTING’ as letter ‘E’ is not present in the given word.
94. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
A. 24
B. 26
C. 28
D. 30
Solutions
Number of triangles having only 1 triangle = 12
Number of triangles having only 2 triangle = 8
Number of triangles having only 4 triangle = 4
Number of triangles having only 6 triangle = 2
∴ Total number of triangles = 12 + 8 + 4 + 2 = 26
95. Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.
BCD : YXW : : FGH : : ?
A. UTS
B. RQP
C. STU
D. TUS
Solutions
96. Select the odd/word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 126
B. 168
C. 224
D. 240
Solutions
All except option [d] are multiples of 14.
97. Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.
CD : PQ : : GH : ?
A. RS
B. TU
C. UV
D. WX
Solutions
98. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
A. Mobile phone
B. Laptop
C. Television
D. Cathode Rays
Solutions
In all the options given are electronics instrument except option ‘d’.
99. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
JK_MJ_LM_KL_
A. JKLL
B. LKKM
C. LKJM
D. KJLM
Solutions
100. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
BDE, HJK, NPQ, ?
A. UWX
B. TVW
C. VXY
D. WYZ
Solutions
101. Pointing a man, Suraj says, “He is the son of the sister of my father’s wife”. How is that man related to Suraj?
A. Father
B. Brother
C. Cousin
D. Nephew
Solutions
Clearly, Man is cousin of Suraj.
102. Find out the odd word/letter/number/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 636
B. 749
C. 864
D. 989
Solutions
103. From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
JAUNTILY
A. NEATLY
B. AUNTY
C. JAUNT
D. UNITY
Solutions
The word ‘NEATLY’ cannot be formed as there is no ‘E’ in ‘JAUNTILY’.
104. Find out the odd word/letter/number/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 8912
B. 3469
C. 5555
D. 6734
Solutions
105. Akarsh’s birthday is on Saturday 29th July. On what day of the week will be Ojas’s Birthday in the same year if Ojas was born on 12th August?
A. Wednesday
B. Friday
C. Saturday
D. Sunday
Solutions
106. From the given answer figure, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
A
B
C
D
Solutions
In option ‘b’ the given question figure is hidden / embedded.
107. Ram travels towards east covering 5 km. He takes a left turn and travels 10 km more. Then, he takes a right turn and travels another 5km and finally takes a right turn to cover 10 km. How far is he from his original position?
A. 10 km
B. 20 km
C. 15 km
D. 25 km
Solutions
108. If ‘–’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘+’ means ‘×’, then 9 × 6 + 36 – 4 = ?
A. 58
B. 38
C. 40
D. 32
Solutions
109. In the given figure, how many water are either tap or shower?
A. 168
B. 111
C. 125
D. 108
Solutions
Water i.e either tap or shower = Intersection of water and tap + Intersection of water and shower = 43 + 68 = 111
110. In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.
A. 14
B. 16
C. 17
D. 24
Solutions
The pattern followed is as follows:-
Row I : [4+8+5]+2=19
Row II : [3+4+6]+2=15
Similarly,
∴ In Row III : [7+5+3]+2=17
111. Find out the odd word/letters/number/number pair from the given alternatives.
A. EV
B. GT
C. JQ
D. MO
Solutions
112. If 4 * 9 % 2 = 47 and 9 * 0 % 6 = 84, then 5 * 3 % 7 = ?
A. 38
B. 51
C. 42
D. 46
Solutions
4 * 9 % 2 => 49 – 2 = 47,
9 * 0 % 6 => 90 – 6 = 84
5 * 3 % 7 => 53 – 7 = 46
113. In the following figure, square represents Astronauts, triangle represents Swimmers, circle represents Women and rectangle represents Indians. Which set of letters represents Women who are either Indians or swimmers?
A. C,D,I,E
B. A,B,D,E,H,J
C. B,C,D
D. C
Solutions
Letters representing Women who are either Indians or Swimmers = Intersection of [Women and Indians + Women and Swimmers only] = B,C,D
114. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.
Mathematics, Arithmetic, Algebra
A
B
C
D
Solutions
Clearly, arithmetic and algebra are topics of mathematics.
115. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
A
B
C
D
Solutions
Correct mirror image is as shown in option [c].
116. In each of the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements :
(I) Some pins are cups.
(II) No cup is book.
Conclusion :
(I) Some pins are books.
(II) Some pins are not books.
A. Only conclusion (I) follows
B. Only conclusion (II) follows
C. Both conclusion follow
D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows
Solutions
117. Pointing towards Anil, Shipra says, “His mother’s father is the grandfather of my brother”. How is Anil related to Shipra?
A. Father-in-law
B. Father
C. Brother
D. Cousin
Solutions
Clearly, Anil is cousin of Shipra.
118. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
A
B
C
D
Solutions
Correct mirror image is as shown in option [a].
119. Three position of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘R’?
A. Y
B. G
C. W
D. C
Solutions
From 1st and 2nd cube,
Adjacent face Opposite face
R G, B, W, Y C
120. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-l are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-ll are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘A’ can be represented by 12, 23, etc and ‘G’ can be represented by 67, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘SONNET’.
A. 10,57,85,96,76,00
B. 21,68,24,85,55,22
C. 32,79,13,67,77,34
D. 43,96,02,24,99,44
Solutions
SONNET(21,68,24,85,55,22)
