1.Which one of the following figures represents the relationship among English Teachers, Popular English Teachers and Unpopular Teachers?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
Popular English Teachers form sub-set of English Teachers.
Also, there may be some English Teachers who are not popular.
2. A family went out for a walk.’ Daughter walked before the father. Son was walking behind the mother and ahead of father. Who walked last?
A. Son
B. Father
C. Mother
D. Daughter
Solutions
Daughter > Father > Mother > Son > Father
3. Find the missing number from the given responses.
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9
Solutions
4. Who are educated males but who do not live in urban area?
A. 4
B. 11
C. 5
D. 9
Solutions
The required number should be common to the
triangle and rectangle only. Such number is ‘11’.
5. Seema is the daughter-in-law of Sudhir and sister-in-law of Ramesh. Mohan is the son of Sudhir and only brother of Ramesh. Find the relation between Seema and Mohan.
A. Sister-in-law
B. Aunt
C. Cousin
D. Wife
Solutions
Seema is wife of Mohan.
6. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
ab – aa – aaa – a – ab – a
A. a b b a b
B. a b a a a
C. a a b b a
D. a b b a a
Solutions
7. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the given conclusions is definitely drawn from the given statements.
Statements:
All virtuous persons are happy. No unhappy person is virtuous.
Conclusions:
I. Happiness is related to virtue X,
II. Unhappy person is not virtuous.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Neither I nor II follows
D. Both I and II follow
Solutions
Both the conclusions are valid.
8. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct.
Statement:
If more encouragement is given to Sports, Indians will win more gold medals at the Olympic Games.
Assumptions:
I. Indians do not win gold medals
II. More encouragement in sports leads to better performance.
A. Only I is valid
B. Only II is valid
C. Both assumptions are valid
D. Both assumptions are invalid
Solutions
It is mentioned that if more encouragement is given to
sports, Indians will win more gold medals It implies that Indians
win some gold medals. Therefore, assumption I is invalid. One wins
gold medals by performing better. Therefore, assumption II is valid.
9. A man is facing East, then he turns left and goes 10 m, then turns right and goes 5 m, then goes 5 m to the South and from there 5 m to West. In which direction is he from his original place?
A. East
B. West
C. North
D. South
Solutions
10. In which answer figure is the question figure embedded?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
11. Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
DEAD : WVZW : : FGCF 😕
A. UTXU
B. TUUX
C. UXTU
D. UUTX
Solutions
12. Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
12. 45 : 36 : : 63 : ?
A. 71
B. 54
C. 61
D. 64
Solutions
13. Study the two different positions of a cube given below with dots from 1 to 6 marked on its faces. Find out how many dots are contained on the face opposite to that containing 3 dots.
A. 6
B. 2
C. 1
D. 5
Solutions
From the two views of cube it is clear that 2 dots are
contained on the face opposite to that containing 3 dots
14. Rahim travelled straight from point E to F at a distance of 5 km. From F he turned left and travelled 6 km and reached point G, there he took a left turn and travelled 5 km to reach point H. He took another left turn and travelled 2 km and reached point I. How far is he from the starting point?
A. 3 km
B. 4 km
C. 5 km
D. 7 km
Solutions
15. If in a code language PRINCIPAL is written as MBOQSOMVW and TEACHER is written as FDVSZDB, how is CAPITAL written in that code?
A. SVMOFVW
B. SVMODVW
C. BVMODVW
D. SVMIDVW
Solutions
16. Which one of the answer figures shall complete the given question figure?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
17. There are some boys and dogs at a place. If total number of heads is 7 and total number of legs is 20. how many boys and how many dogs are there ?
A. 2 boys and 5 dogs
B. 3 boys and 4 dogs
C. 4 boys and 3 dogs
D. 5 boys and 2 dogs
Solutions
Number of heads = B + D = 7 … (i)
Number of legs = 2B + 4D = 20 … (ii)
From statements (i) and (ii) ; B = 4 and D = 3
18. Giridharlal’s family consists of his wife Radha, 3 sons and 2 daughters. One daughter is yet to be married and the other daughter has a son. Two sons have 2 children each and the third son has 3 children. An old aunt and son-in-law also stay with them. How many members are there in Giridharlal’s family?
A. 20
B. 19
C. 18
D. 17
Solutions
Giridharlal and his wife = 2 members; 3 sons and 2 daughters = 5 members;
One Daughter’s husband and son = 2 members; Grandsons of Giridharlal = 7 members; Wives of Giridharlal’s sons = 3 members; Aunt = 1 member;
Total members = 20
19. Find the odd word/letters/number/figure from the given responses.
A. PRSQ
B. UWXV
C. LONM
D. CEFD
Solutions
20. Find the odd word/letters/number/figure from the given responses.
A. 21, 42
B. 24, 48
C. 37, 74
D. 35, 28
Solutions
21. Find the odd word/letters/number/figure from the given responses.
A. YXVU
B. ORQP
C. KJHG
D. MLJI
Solutions
22. In the following question you have to identify the correct response from the given premises stated according to following symbols.
If > = ÷, < = +, ∧ = ‒, × = <, ‒ = >, + = = and ∨ = ×
A. 6 >3 < 2 ∧ 4 ∨ 8 − 13
B. 6 ∧ 3 < 2 > 4 ∨ 8 + 13
C. 6 ∨ 3 ∧ 2 > 4 < 8 × 13
D. 6 ∨ 3 > 2 < 4 ∧ 8 × 13
Solutions
23. In the following question you have to identify the correct response from the given premises stated according to following symbols.
A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word.
REVOLUTIONARY
A. REVOLT
B. TRAIL
C. VOCATION
D. VOLUNTARY
Solutions
There is no ‘C’ letter in the given word
24. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is held on the line A B ?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
25. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
A. 18
B. 28
C. 20
D. 24
Solutions
26. In a row of children, A is ninth from the left and B is 5th from the right. If A and B interchange their positions, then A will be 18th from the left. Then find the position of B from right ?
A. 9th
B. 5th
C. 18th
D. 14th
Solutions
A is 9th from left and B is 5th from right position. After interchanging their positions, position of A will be 18th from the left It means there are 8 people sitting between them Now position of B from Right = (5 + 8) + 1 = 14
27. Which of the following Venn Diagram gives the relationship between Friend, Guide and Philosopher?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
Some guides may be philosophers and vice versa.
Some friends may be guides and vice versa.
Some friends may be philosophers and vice versa.
Some philosopher guides may be friends.
28. Find the mirror image for the given word.
ENDURANCE
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
29. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of letters as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘F’ can represented by 01, 13, 32 etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 57, 69, 95. etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘PEN’.
A. 66, 30, 95
B. 85, 00, 95
C. 86, 00, 95
D. 65, 00, 95
30. Among four answer figures which of the cut pieces can form the given question figure ?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
31. Arrange the following words as per their order in the dictionary.
1. Genuine 2. Genesis 3. Gender
4. Gentle 5. General
A. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1
B. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
C. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
D. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
Thought for a few seconds
C. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
Explanation: In dictionary order:
Gender (3) → General (5) → Genesis (2) → Gentle (4) → Genuine (1).
32. Ramesh walks 10 m west. Then he turns left and walks 10 m again. He turns right and walks 5 m and again after turning right he walks 15 m. In the last he turns right, then in which direction is he going now?
A. North
B. West
C. South
D. East
Solutions
33. Find the odd number/ letters/ number from the given alternatives.
A. Mahanadi
B. Cauvery
C. Narmada
D. Krishna
Solutions
Except Narmada, all three rivers fall in the Bay of Bengal.
34. If C = 4 and POLISH = 85, then find the value of POINTER.
A. 102
B. 103
C. 104
D. 105
Solutions
35. Find the odd number/ letters/ number from the given alternatives.
A. 3-5
B. 13-17
C. 19-25
D. 23-19
Solutions
36. Who Painted the master piece ‘Hamsa Damayanti’?
A. Amrita Shergill
B. Raja Ravi Verma
C. Anjolie Ela Menon
D. Abanindranath Tagore
Solutions
Raja Ravi Varma (29 April 1848–2 October 1906) was a celebrated Indian painter and artist. He is considered among the greatest painters in the history of Indian art for a number of aesthetic and broader social reasons. He painted the master piece ‘Hamsa Damayanti’ too.
37. The port city of the Harappan culture?
A. Banawali
B. Rupar
C. Kalibangan
D. Lothal
The correct answer is:
D. Lothal
Explanation:
Lothal, located in present-day Gujarat, was an important port city of the Harappan (Indus Valley) Civilization.
It had a well-constructed dockyard, bead-making workshops, and evidence of maritime trade, making it a significant trading hub of that era.
38. Mohenjodaro was excavated on the bank of_____
A. Narmada
B. Brahmaputra
C. Godavari
D. Indus
Solutions
Mohenjodaro means ‘Mound of the dead’ and it was excavated in 1922 by RD Banerjee in Larkana district of Sind on the bank of Indus.
39. Who among the following introduced gunpowder in India?
A. Babur
B. Jahangir
C. Ashoka
D. Ghanananda
Solutions
Babur founded the Mughal empire in India after defeating Ibrahim Lodhi in the battle of Panipat. The most successful innovation of Babur was the introduction of gunpowder in India.
40. With reference to the Eka movement, consider the following statements:
1. The centre of the movement was the Malabar district of Kerela.
2. The main grievance was related to the extraction of high rent from the peasants.
3. The movement included many small zamindars who were disenchanted with the government.
With reference to the Eka movement, consider the following statements:
1. The centre of the movement was the Malabar district of Kerela.
2. The main grievance was related to the extraction of high rent from the peasants.
3. The movement included many small zamindars who were disenchanted with the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Solutions
• Towards the end of 1921, peasant discontent surfaced in Avadh. The centers were the districts of Hardoi, Bahraich and Sitapur in the northern part of the province. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The main grievance were related to extraction of a rent that was generally fifty per cent higher than the recorded rent, the opposition of thekedars to whom the work of rent-collection was farmed out and the practice of share-rents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Unlike the earlier Kisan Sabha movement that was based almost solely on tenants, the Eka Movement included in its ranks many small zamindars who found themselves disenchanted with the Government because of its heavy land revenue demand. Hence, statement 3 is correct
41. Which British Governor passed the Vernacular Press Act?
A. Lord Irwin
B. Lord Hastings
C. Lord Cornvallis
D. Lord Lytton
Solutions
The Viceroy Lord Lytton passed the Vernacular press Act in 1878 to control the newspapers of India languages in India.
42. Which one of the following movements relates the boycott of the British goods?
A. Quit India Movement
B. Swadeshi Movement
C. Home Rule Movement
D. Champaran Movement
Solutions
The Swadeshi movement, part of the Indian independence movement and the developing Indian nationalism, was an economic strategy aimed at removing the British Empire from power and improving economic conditions in India by following the principles of swadeshi and which had some success.
43. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined:
A. the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
B. the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
C. the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
D. None of the above
Solutions
Government of India Act-1919 is also known as ‘Montague-Chelmsford Reform’.
Lord Montagu, the Prime Minister of India, announced in the British Parliament on August 20, 1917 that the purpose of the British Government was to establish a responsible government in India.
Government of India Act, 1919 clearly defined the powers of the Secretary of State and Viceroy of India.
44. Black Buck National Park situated in which state ?
A. Haryana
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Kerala
D. Gujarat
Solutions
Black Buck National Park is located in the state of Gujarat.
45. Which one of the following rivers crosses the tropic of capricorn twice ?
A. Vaal river
B. Limpopo river
C. Nizer river
D. Zambezi river
Solutions
Limpopo river crosses tropic of capricorn twice
46. The Indian Research Station ‘Himadri’ is located at :
A. Siachen
B. Darjeeling
C. Arctic Region
D. Antarctica
Solutions
Himadri Station is India’s first Arctic research station located at Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway.
47. With reference to Heat Budget, which of the following statements is correct?
A. It refers to total energy received by the earth’s surface in the form of long waves.
B. It refers to the heat energy lost by earth in the form of terrestrial radiation.
C. It refers to the balance between amount of heat received by earth and the amount of heat radiated.
D. It refers to the proportion of solar radiation reflected from the surface of earth.
Solutions
Heat Budget of the Earth is the balance between incoming solar insolation and outgoing terrestrial radiation which maintains the average annual temperature of earth at 15 degree Celsius. The amount of insolation received is directly related to latitude. If it were not for the heat transfers within the atmosphere and the oceans, the tropical zones would get hotter and the polar zones would get colder through time.
48. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. Soil salinity is the result of over irrigation in canal irrigated areas.
B. Saline soils can be treated through leaching and sub-surface drainage techniques.
C. Gypsum is mixed with the soils to reduce salinity.
D. Chinaberry and Poplar species are salt tolerant plants
Solutions
Statement 1 is not incorrect : A common source of salts in irrigated soils is the irrigation water itself. After irrigation, the water added to the soil is used by the crop or evaporates directly from the moist soil.
Statement 2 is not incorrect : Improvement of a saline soil implies the reduction of the salt concentration of the soil to a level that is not harmful to the crops.To that end, more water is applied to the field than is required for crop growth. This additional water infiltrates into the soil and percolates through the rootzone. During percolation, it takes up part of the salts in the soil and takes these along to deeper soil layers. In fact, the water washes the salts out of the rootzone. This washing process is called leaching. The additional water required for leaching must be removed from the rootzone by means of a subsurface drainage system Thus, improvement of saline soils includes, essentially, leaching and sub-surface drainage.
Statement 3 is not incorrect : Chemicals (such as gypsum), Which are rich in calcium, are mixed with the soil; the calcium replaces the sodium. Then, the replaced sodium is leached from the rootzone by irrigation water.
Statement 4 is incorrect :Acacia, Live oak, Sand Pine, Red Cedar, Australian Tea Tree etc are some salt resistant species of plants.
49. The width of lacing bars in mm is kept-
A. twice the nominal rivet diameter
B. thrice the nomial rivet diameter
C. maximum of the all rounded to nearest 5 mm
D. equal to normal rivet diameter
Solutions
As per IS: 800 B=3 d
50. Which article describe freedom as the payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion?
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28
Solutions
Article 27 describes freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular region.
51. Consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Solutions
Originally in 1950, the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. The Election Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989 made the Commission a multi-member body. The concept of a 3-member Commission has been in operation since then. Home Ministry is consulted for that, schedule is not decided by them.
Splits, mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties. This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties. The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.
52. Swami Vivekananda Airport serves for which city of India?
A. Ahmedabad, Gujarat
B. Raipur, Chhattisgarh
C. Ranchi, Jharkhand
D. Bengaluru, Karnataka
Solutions
Swami Vivekananda Airport is formerly known as Raipur International Airport.It is the primary airport serving the state of Chhattisgarh, India. The airport is located at Mana between Raipur (15 km) and Naya Raipur 10 km .It is the 29th busiest airport in India by passenger traffic and 32nd busiest by aircraft movement.
53. Which state government has recently raised retirement age of state govt employees from 60 to 62 years?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Punjab
D. Uttar Pradesh
Solutions
The Madhya Pradesh government has raised the retirement age of state government employees to 62 years from the current age of retirement is 60 years. The announcement was made by Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan. The MP Chief Minister cited promotion of general category employees as a reason to raise the age limit of these employees. The state already has bigger retirement age limit in case of teachers and doctors. The retirement age is 65 years for university/ college teachers and doctors (specialists), while for the school teachers it is 62.
54. Convertibility of the rupee means-
A. Conversion of rupee notes into gold
B. Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice-versa
C. Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by market forces
D. Developing an international market for currencies in India
Solutions
Convertibility of rupee means that those who have foreign exchange (e.g. US dollars, Pound Sterlings etc.) can get them converted into rupees and vice-versa at the market determined rate of exchange. Exchange rate is determined by demand for and supply of a currency.
55. When was “Food Safety and Standards Act” enacted in India?
A. 2011
B. 2006
C. 2005
D. 2002
Solutions
The Food Safety and Standards Act was passed in 2006 but came into force in 2011. An Act to consolidate the laws relating to food and to establish the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India for laying down science based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import, to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
56. Consider the following statements:
1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Solutions
The Product Certification Scheme of BIS aims at providing Third Party Guarantee of quality, safety and reliability of products to the customer.
Presence of ISI certification mark, known as Standard Mark, on a product is an assurance of conformity to the specifications.
Under Product Certification, Mandatory certification is there for Automobile Accessories such as automotive vehicles –Tubes and pneumatic tyres
AGMARK (Agricultural Mark) is a certification issued by Directorate of Marketing and Inspection for agricultural produce.
57. Full form of DNA is_______
A. DI Nitro Acid
B. Dioxide Nucleic Acid
C. Deoxyribo Nuclear Acid
D. Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid
Solutions
DNA is known as Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid. DNA is a thread-like chain of nucleotides carrying the genetic instructions used in the growth, development, functioning and reproduction of all known living organisms and many viruses.
58. What is the main function of insulin in the human body?
A. To maintain blood pressure
B. To help in digestion of food
C. To control the level of sugar in the body
D. To check the level of iodine in the body
Solutions
Insulin is a natural hormone formed in the human body that makes the pancreas. Its main function is to deliver glucose to our cells and to balance its volume. Insulin regulates the level of glucose in the body. This glucose reaches into our cells and becomes fat and remains safe there. It is used in making fat energy. Whenever food is done, the pancreas produces insulin in the exact amount.
59. Sphygmomanometer measures the blood pressure in the-
A. Veins
B. Arteries
C. Eyes
D. Synovial
Solutions
A sphygmomanometer, also known as a blood pressure meter, blood pressure monitor, or blood pressure gauge, is a device used to measure blood pressure, composed of an inflatable cuff to collapse and then release the artery under the cuff in a controlled manner, and a mercury or mechanical manometer to measure the pressure.
60. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of human body?
A. Radius
B. Tibia
C. Femur
D. Fibula
Solutions
Radius is not the bone of the human body, but all other leg bones are there.
61. Which of the following vitamin is needed for healthy eyesight?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin D
Solutions
Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is needed for the healthy eyesight. Vitamin-A is also called as anti-infective Vitamin. The strong light can destroy this vitamin.
62. The layer present in between xylem and phloem in Dicot Stem is :-
A. stele
B. cambium
C. starch sheath
D. pith
Solutions
The vascular cambium originates between the xylem and phloem in Dicot stem and becomes a cylinder of tissue that extends the length of the stem and root. Vascular cambium is a layer of lateral meristematic tissue between the xylem and phloem in the stems of woody plants.
63. Which planet is known as the Earth’s twin?
A. Jupiter
B. Mars
C. Venus
D. Saturn
Solutions
The correct answer is:
C. Venus
Explanation:
Venus is called the Earth’s twin because it is similar to Earth in size, mass, density, and composition. However, its atmosphere is mostly carbon dioxide with extreme surface temperatures and pressure.
64. Bacteria was observed for the first time by____________?
A. W.H Stanley
B. Louis Pasture
C. A.V Leuwenhoek
D. Robert Koch
Solutions
Van Leeuwenhoek discovered “protozoa” – the single-celled organisms and he called them “animalcules”. He also improved the microscope and laid foundation for microbiology. He is often cited as the first microbiologist to study muscle fibers, bacteria, spermatozoa and blood flow in capillaries.
65. Which of the following is an endemic species?
A. Nicobar pigeon
B. Horn bill
C. Indian Rhino
D. Pink head duck
Solutions
Endemic species are plants and animals that exist only in one geographic region.
66. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because:
A. their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose.
B. they have a many – chambered stomach.
C. they have efficient grinding molars.
D. they produce an enzyme cellulose which can digest cellulose.
Solutions
Humans can not digest fiber while the cows can do this because they contain bacteria capable of digesting fiber in their stomach.
67. Immunity gets reduced in which of the following disease?
A. Jaundice
B. Diabetes
C. Smallpox
D. Tuberculosis
Solutions
The disease which reduces immunity is Smallpox. Smallpox is caused by infection with variola virus, which belongs to the genus Orthopoxvirus, the family Poxviridae and subfamily chordopoxvirinae.
68. In fireworks, the green flame is produced due to _________?
A. Sodium
B. Barium
C. Mercury
D. Potassium
Solutions
In fireworks, the green flame is produced because of Barium.
Green- Barium.
Blue- Copper.
Yellow- Sodium.
Red-Lithium.
White-Magnesium.
Bright red- Strontium.
69. Which of the following component is commonly known as ‘Sindoor’?
A. Red Sulphate
B. Lead sulphate
C. Red Lead
D. Red sulphite
Solutions
Red lead is commonly known as Sindoor. Red Lead is a bright red to orange, red powder which is used in making Lead glass and red pigments; paint made with Red Lead is commonly used to protect iron and steel from rusting. Chemically, Red Lead is Lead tetra oxide (Pb3O4),a water-insoluble compound that is prepared by the oxidation of metallic Lead or of litharge.
70. Who discovered the blood circulatory system?
A. Henary Becquerel
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Louis Pasteur
D. William Harvey
Solutions
William Harvey (1578-1657) is recognized as the man who discovered and published the first accurate description of the human circulatory system, based on his many years of experiments and observations as a scientist and physician.
71. Which sphere reflects the radio waves back to earth thus making radio communication possible?
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Ionosphere
Solutions
The ionosphere is usually defined as “the part of the atmosphere significantly influencing propagation of electromagnetic (EM) waves
72. The complete form of ‘IC’ in electronics is-
A. Internal circuit
B. Independent circuit
C. Integrated circuit
D. Inbuilt circuit
Solutions
An integrated circuit or monolithic integrated circuit is a set of electronic circuits on one small flat piece of semiconductor material, normally silicon.
73. Hopkinson’s test on D.C. machines is conducted at?
A. No-load
B. Part load
C. Full-load
D. Over load
Solutions
Hopkinson’s Test is another useful method of testingthe efficiency of a DC machine. It is a full load test and it requires two identical machines which are coupled to each other.
74. BCD is
A. Binary Coded Decimal
B. Bit Coded Decimal
C. Binary Coded Digit
D. Bit Coded Digit
Solutions
BCD is a binary coded notation in which each of the decimal digits is expressed as a 8-bit binary numeral. For example in binary coded decimal notation 12 is 0001 0010 as opposed to 1100 in pure binary.
75. Where is the International Court of Justice located?
A. Geneva
B. The Hague
C. New York
D. Rome
Solutions
The International Court of Justice (shortened ICJ, commonly referred to as the World Court) is the main judicial body of the United Nations (UN). This member resolves the legal dispute between the states and gives consultative opinion for the authorized UN bodies and special agencies. This includes a panel of 15 judges elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council for the nine-year rule. It is located in The Hague’s Peace Palace in the Netherlands.
76. Which among of the following organization is the oldest one?
A. ILO
B. WHO
C. IMF
D. FAO
Solutions
International Labour Organization (ILO), specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world. Established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations, the ILO became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946. In recognition of its activities, the ILO was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969.
77. Which Shatabdi train is fastest train in India?
A. Mysore – Chennai Shatabdi Express
B. Mumbai Central – Ahmedabad
C. New Delhi – Bhopal Shatabdi Express
D. New Delhi – Kalka
Solutions
Shatabdi Express trains are a series of fastest trains operated by Indian Railways to connect Metro cities with other cities important for tourism, pilgrimage or business. The New Delhi Bhopal Habibganj Shatabdi Express is a train operated by the Northern Railway which runs between New Delhi., the main railway station of India’s capital territory, New Delhi and Habibganj the sub-urban railway station of Bhopal City. This is the second fastest train in India with the top speed of 155 km/h and first fastest train among the Shatabdi category. The first fastest train is Gatiman Express.
78. National Maritime Day is observed on-
A. April 4
B. April 5
C. May 3
D. May 2
The correct answer is:
B. April 5
Explanation:
National Maritime Day in India is observed every year on April 5 to commemorate the sailing of India’s first commercial ship SS Loyalty from Mumbai to London in 1919. This day highlights the importance of maritime trade and the contribution of the shipping industry to the nation’s economy.
79. The book “The mind of the terrorist: the Psychology of terrorism from the IRA to al- Qaeda” has been authored by whom?.
A. Amitav Ghosh
B. Sanghi
C. Kunal Basu
D. Jerrold M. Post
Solutions
The book “The mind of the terrorist: the Psychology of terrorism from the IRA to al-Qaeda” has been authored by Dr. Jerrold M. Post. The book is an exceptionally well-written book that makes a significant contribution to the field of counter-terrorism.
80. Noted disability rights activist Javed Abidi passed away recently. To which state did he belong?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Punjab
Solutions
Noted disability rights activist Javed Abidi passed away on 5 March 2018 due to chest infection. He was 53 and belonged to Uttar Pradesh.
81. Scientists have discovered a new species called ‘Big Bird’, Which bird speciation is it?
A. Ostrich
B. Galapagos Finch
C. Mangrove Finch
D. Hornbill bird
Solutions
Recently a research has been published in General Science, Which stated that the bird named Gallapagos Finch is being transformed into a new species, that is, it is being speciation. This new species of Finch by the researchers has also named the Big Bird.
82. Which of the district’s teams recently have played in Rajasthan State Level Hockey Tournament?
A. Jaipur
B. Jodhpur
C. Alwar
D. Kota
From the information available, Alwar district actively participated in trials for the state-level senior hockey competition in 2024. Trials for selecting the Alwar district team were conducted on October 20, 2024, for the upcoming state-level senior men’s hockey tournament in Barmer.khas khabar
So, the correct answer is:
C. Alwar
83. Which former Indian women’s cricket captain has been recommended for the prestigious CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award?
A. Diana Edulji
B. Anju Jain
C. Mamtha Maben
D. Sandhya Agarwal
Solutions
A three-man BCCI panel has recommended former India women’s team captain and current CoA member, Diana Edulji, for the prestigious CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award. Along with Edulji, former India opener, late Pankaj Roy, will also be awarded posthumously.
84. Which of the following organization is making green propellant?
A. Space X
B. NASA
C. ISRO
D. None of the above
Solutions
Scientists at the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have reported progress in the development of an environment-friendly propellant to power satellites and spacecraft. The effort is to replace the conventional hydrazine rocket fuel, a highly toxic and carcinogenic chemical, with a greener propellant for future missions
85. Samruddhi corridor is proposed to be formed between :-
A. Mumbai- Pune
B. Mumbai- Nagpur
C. Hyderabad-Bengaluru
D. Hyderabad-Vishakapatnam
Solutions
Samruddhi ‘zero fatality’ corridor is to be formed for faster connectivity amd safe transport. Wider median, greater minimum radius, longer sight distance l, CCTV surveillance, free telephone booths every 5kms to allow commuters contact emergency services will be provided.
86. In following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
1,2, 2, 4, 8,?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 16
D. 32
Solutions
87. In following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
40,60,47,53, 54, ?
A. 33
B. 39
C. 46
D. 61
Solutions
88. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
bbm _ amb _ m _ _a _ bb
A. mbabm
B. abmab
C. mabam
D. ambbm
Solutions
89. In which Answer Figure is the Question Figure embedded?
Question Figure:
Answer Figures:
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
90. Which diagram represents the relationship among female, mothers and doctors?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
Some females may be mothers. Some females may be doctors.
All mothers are females.
Some doctors may be mothers.
91. A statement is given followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer
Statement :
Use of cosmetics is hazardous.
Conclusions :
I. Cosmetics have side effects.
II. Cosmetics are inexpensive.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
92. A statement is given followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.
Statement:
Honesty and hard work lead to economic improvement of an individual.
Conclusions:
I. There is a direct relation between honesty and economic improvement.
II. Hard work and honesty always pay dividends.
A. I is implicit
B. II is implicit
C. I and II are implicit
D. I and II are not implicit
93. Shan is 55 years old, Sathian is 5 years junior to Shan and 6 years senior to Balan. The youngest brother of Balan is Devan and he is 7 years junior to him. So what is the age difference between Devan and Shah?
A. 18 years
B. 15 years
C. 13 years
D. 7 years
Solutions
94. If Neena says, “Anita’s father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal”, then how is Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal ?
A. Granddaughter
B. Daughter
C. Sister
D. None of three
A. Granddaughter
Explanation: Raman is the son of Mahipal and Neena is married to Raman (because Mahipal is Neena’s father-in-law). Anita and her sister Bindu are Raman’s daughters, so Bindu is Mahipal’s granddaughter.
95. In following questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
A. BFJQ
B. RUZG
C. GJOV
D. ILQX
Solutions
96. Which one of the Answer Figures shall complete the given Question Figure ?
Question Figure:
Answer Figures:
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Solutions
97. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips back 20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his climbing at 8:00 am, at what time will he first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground ?
A. 4 pm
B. 5 pm
C. 6 pm
D. none of these
Solutions
98. Idenfify the figure that completes the pattern of the question figure.
Question figure :
Answer Figure :
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
99. Find the next term in series.
bdeacdbeacbdea _ _ _ _
A. bdce
B. cdbe
C. beac
D. cdeb
Solutions
100. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of letters as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column. E.g., ‘D’ can represented by 03, 10 etc., and ‘J’ can be represented by 56, 65 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘DALDA’
Matrix-I
Matrix-II
A. 03, 21, 77, 33, 43
B. 22, 43, 86, 22, 43
C. 44, 34, 55, 03, 22
D. 10, 43, 76, 22, 34
101
A. 21
B. 23
C. 17
D. 19
Solutions
102. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the question figure ?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
103. Select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the word.
INSTANTANEOUS
A. ANNOUNCE
B. ANXIOUS
C. ANTENA
D. ANAESTHETIC
C. ANTENA
Why: INSTANTANEOUS has the letters needed: A (2), N (3), T (2), E (1), etc.
ANTENA requires A (2), N (2), T (1), E (1) — all available in the source word. The other options use letters (C, X, H) that are not present in INSTANTANEOUS.
104. 20 : 30 : : 110 : ?
A. 123
B. 321
C. 312
D. 132
Solutions
105. Reena travelled from point A to a distance of 10 yards east at point B. She then turned right and walked 3 yards. Again she turned right and walked 14 yards. How for is she from starting point.
A. 4 yards
B. 5 yards
C. 24 yards
D. 25 yards
Solutions
106. Statements :
All scientists are fools.
All fools are literates.
Conclusions :
A. All scientists are literates.
B. All literates are scientists.
C. No scientist are literates.
D. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Solutions
107. A train travels 300 km at an equal speed . If the speed of train increased by 5km/ hr then it takes 2 less in completion of the total journey then the original speed of the train is :
A. 25 km/hr
B. 20 km/hr
C. 28 km/hr
D. 30 km/hr
Solutions
108. Total price of a horse and its cart is Rs. 8000 . If the horse sold on 10% profit and cart on 10% loss, thus he earns 2.5% as profit, then the cost price of the horse is :
A. 3000
B. 3500
C. 4000
D. 5000
Solutions
109. The fare of anqutorickshaw is equals to the sum of a constant price and the fare of distance traveled. If total fare of 10 km distance is Rs. 85 and 15 km is Rs.120 then the fare of 25 km distance is :
A. 175
B. 190
C. 180
D. 225
Solutions
Costantprice +fare of distance travelled = Total fare
Costant price +fare of 10 km= 85
Costant price +fare of 15 km= 120
Fare of 5 km = 35
Costant price=87-70=15
Total fare of 25 km.=15+25 ×× 7
= 15+175=Rs.190
110. A,B and C has 40,x and y balls respectively.If B gives 20 balls to A then he has half the balls of C. If they all have 60 balls more then all have average 100 balls. The ratio of x and y is:
A. 3 : 2
B. 2 : 3
C. 2 : 1
D. 3 : 4
Solutions
111. The concentration of petrol in three different mixtures of petrol and kerosine is 1/2, 3/5 and 4/5 respectively. If 2 ltr, 3 ltr and 1 ltr liquid is with drawn from these mixtures respectively and mixed together then the ratio of petrol and kerosine in new mixture is :
A. 4 : 5
B. 3 : 2
C. 3 : 5
D. 2 : 3
Solutions
112. A, B and C together earn Rs. 1450 and spend 60%, 65% and 70% of their income. If the ratio of their savings is 14 : 21 : 15 then the income of B is :
A. 500
B. 600
C. 450
D. 750
Solutions
113. A can runs 25 km/hr faster than a bus in traveling a distance of 500 km. If bus takes 10 hr more than the car to travel this distance, then the speed of car and bus :
A. 25, 40 km/hr
B. 50, 25, km/hr
C. 25, 60 km/hr
D. 25, 60 km/hr
Solutions
114. Which one from the following is in ascending order.
A. 4√10, 3√6, √3,
B. √3, 4√10, 3√6,
C. √3, 3√6, 4√10
D. 4√10, √3, 3√6
Solutions
115. An aeroplaneflews in north from an airport at 1000 km/hr. At the same time another aeroplaneflews from the same airport in west at 1200 km/hr. The distance between both aeroplane after 1½ hr is :
A. 300 km
B. 300√71 km
C. 300√61 km
D. 600 km
Solutions
116. Two pipes P and Q fill a tank in 3 min and 6 min respectively while the other pipe R can empty the full tank in 4 hr. All the pipes are opened together and after 2 min. Pipe R is closed, then the tank will in :
A. 3 min
B. 6 min
C. 5 min
D. 8 min
Solutions
117. Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
The tennis player from Australia is how many percent of the total players from Australia.
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 
D. 
Solutions
118. Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
The Volleyball players from India is how many percent more than the Chess players from Australia.
A. 250%
B. 100%
C. 50%
D. None
Solutions
119. Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
The ratio of total cricket players from both countries to the total football players from both countries is :
A. 18 : 23
B. 23 : 18
C. 2 : 3
D. 16 : 23
Solutions
total cricket players = 50 + 65 = 115
total football players = 40 + 50 = 90
Ratio = 115:90 = 23:18
120. Read the following table carefully and Answer the Questions given below:
If the number of Cricket players from India is decreased by 20% then the difference of Cricket players from India to Tennis players from Australia is :
A. 0
B. 20
C. 10
D. 15
Solutions
Cricket players from India after decrement = 50 × 80/100 = 40
Difference = 40 – 30 = 10
