1.The first edition of Joint Table Top Exercise, CINBAX was recently conducted between the Indian Army and _________.
A. Cambodian Army
B. Nigerian Army
C. Sudanese Army
D. Indonesian Army
Solutions
Explanation:
The first edition of the Joint Table Top Exercise “CINBAX” was recently conducted between the Indian Army and the Cambodian Army.
Correct Answer: 1) Cambodian Army
2. Who among the following has recently been appointed as the new Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) by the President?
A. Girish Chandra Murmu
B. Rajeev Khandelwal
C. K Sanjay Murthy
D. Jyoti Prakash
Solutions
The President of India Shrimati Droupadi Murmu recently appointed K. Sanjay Murthy as the New Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is a 1989 batch IAS officer who is currently the Secretary of the Department of Higher Education. He will be replacing Girish Chandra Murmu who served since August 8, 2020.
3. Which clean energy initiative did NTPC launch in Leh?
A. Solar-powered buses
B. Wind-powered buses
C. Electric vehicles
D. Hydrogen-powered buses
Solutions
Answer: Hydrogen-powered buses
Explanation: NTPC launched hydrogen-powered buses in Leh under its Green Hydrogen Mobility Project. These buses run on green hydrogen produced using solar energy — making it a clean and eco-friendly transport solution. It’s India’s first such initiative in high-altitude regions.
4. Which of the parts of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Solutions
Answer: 4. Part IV
Explanation: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51). They guide the government in making laws for the welfare of the people.
5. After how many days of absence from Parliament without permission will a Member of Parliament be disqualified?
A. 30 days
B. 50 days
C. 20 days
D. 60 days
Solutions
Answer: 60 days
Explanation: As per Article 101(4) of the Constitution, if an MP is absent for 60 consecutive days from Parliament without permission, their seat can be declared vacant.
6. According to the Census of India 2011, most people had out-migrated from _____ to other states in India.`
A. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
B. Rajasthan and Gujarat
C. Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
D. Maharashtra and Gujarat
Solutions
As per the Census of India 2011, the highest out-migration (people leaving their home state for work, marriage, or other reasons) was recorded from:
- Uttar Pradesh (UP)
- Bihar
These states had the maximum number of people migrating to other states like Maharashtra, Delhi, and Gujarat due to poverty, unemployment, and better opportunities elsewhere.
Correct Answer: Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
7. Under which Five Year Plan, the steel plants of Rourkela, Bhilai and Durgapur were established?
A. Second
B. Fourth
C. Seventh
D. Third
Solutions
The steel plants of Rourkela, Bhilai, and Durgapur were established under the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61). This plan focused on industrial development and laid the foundation for heavy industries in India, including the establishment of these key steel plants to support the country’s economic growth and self-reliance in steel production.
8. The Battle of Buxar was fought between the forces under the command of the British East India Company led by Hector Munro, and the combined armies of______.
A. Mir jafar, Siraj-ud-Daulah and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II
B. Mir Qasim, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam & Shuja-ud-daulah of Awadh
C. Mir Jafar, Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II, Shuja-ud-Daulah
D. Siraj-ud-Daulah, Shuja-ud-Daulah, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II
Solutions
The Battle of Buxar was fought between the forces under the command of the British East India Company led by Hector Munro and the combined armies of the Nawab of Bengal, Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Awadh, Shuja-ud-Daula, and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
9. The main occupation during the Early Vedic Period was_____.
A. Crafting
B. Agriculture
C. Pastoralism
D. Trading
Solutions
During the Early Vedic Period (1500–1000 BCE), the main occupation of the Aryans was pastoralism — the rearing of cattle, horses, and other livestock.
- Cows were considered very valuable and a symbol of wealth.
- Society was nomadic/semi-nomadic, and agriculture was limited during this time.
Later in the Later Vedic Period, agriculture became more prominent.
Correct Answer: 3. Pastoralism
10. Which of the following mountain ranges is home to the second-highest peak in the world, K2?
A. East Karakoram Range
B. Zanskar Range
C. Ladakh Range
D. Pir Panjal Range
Solutions
K2, also called Mount Godwin Austen, is the world’s second-highest peak (28,251 feet [8,611 meters]), second only to Mount Everest.
K2 is located in the East Karakoram Range and lies partly in a Chinese-administered enclave of the Kashmir region within the Uygur Autonomous Region of Xinjiang, China, and partly in the Gilgit-Baltistan portion of Kashmir under the administration of Pakistan.
Answer: East Karakoram Range
11. Four numbers have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number that is different.
A. (25, 626)
B. (28, 785)
C. (31, 962)
D. (23, 455)
Solutions
The correct answer is option 4 i.e. (23, 455).
The logic followed here is as follows:
(First number)2 + 1 = Second number
1. (25)2 + 1 = 625 + 1 = 626
2. (28)2 + 1 = 784 + 1 = 785
3. (31)2 + 1 = 961 + 1 = 962
4. (23)2 + 1 = 529 + 1 = 530 ≠ 455
Hence, the correct answer is (23, 455).
12. Three out of the four given alternatives are alike. Choose the odd one out.
A. ELVX
B. PWGI
C. DHRW
D. MTDF
Solutions
ELVX: E + 7 = L, L + 10 = V, V + 2 = X
PWGI: P + 7 = W, W + 10 = G, G + 2 = I
DHRW: D + 4 = H, H + 10 = R, R + 5 = W
MTDF: M + 7 = T, T + 10 = D, D + 2 = F
DHRW does not follow the same logic as the above-mentioned does.
Answer: DHRW
13. Select the figure that does NOT belong to the following group.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Solutions
The logic used here is:
In each figure, there are 2 lines inside the figure and they intersect each other.
In Figure D, there are two parallel lines inside the figure.
Hence, figure D is the odd one out.
14. Seven Friends Pooja, Subha, Amruta, Khusboo, Priyanka, Arohi, Kinjal were sitting in a row. Pooja was sitting to the immediate right of Kinjal. Kinjal was fourth to the right of Amruta. Khusboo was between Subha and Arohi. Amruta, who was third to left of Subha was at one of the end. Who is on the immediate either sides of Pooja?
A. Subha and Khusboo
B. Arohi and Amruta
C. Amruta and Priyanka
D. None of these
Solutions
Answer: None of these
Explanation: Pooja is at position 6, with Kinjal on the left and Priyanka on the right — which is not among the given options.
15. In the following question statements are given and they are followed by conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
I. All Lakshmi is Vishnu
II. No Vishnu is Kali
III. Some Kali is Shiva
Conclusion:
I. Some Lakshmi is Shiva
II. All Kali is Shiva
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
C. Either conclusion I or II follows
D. Only conclusion II follows
Solutions
The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
The least possible Venn Diagram for the given statements is shown below:
Conclusion:
I. Some Lakshmi is Shiva → False (This is possible but not definite as their is no direct relationship between the two elements)
II. All Kali is Shiva → False (This is possible but not definite as some Kali is shiva is given)
Hence, the correct answer is Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
16. Read the given information carefully and answer the following question.
A postman starts his journey from the post office, he walks 10 m towards west and reaches at A’s house. After that he turns his left and walks 10 m to reach B’s house. From B’s house, he walks 20 m toward east and reaches at C’s house. Again, he turns right and walks 10 m to reach at D’s house. Then he takes right and walks 10 m and reaches at E’s house.
What is the direction of Post office with respect to the E’s house?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
Solutions
The correct answer is option 1 i.e. North.
From the post office, he walks 10 m towards west and reaches at A’s house.
After that he turns his left and walks 10 m to reach B’s house.
From B’s house, he walks 20 m toward east and reaches at C’s house.
Again, he turns right and walks 10 m to reach at D’s house.
Then he takes right and walks 10 m and reaches at E’s house.
Hence, the correct answer is North.
17. Anita, Bina, Champa, Diana and Elsa are seated around a circular table facing the centre.Who is the immediate right of Bina?
Statements:
I. Diana is in between Anita and Elsa.
II. Champa is in between Bina and Elsa.
A. If the data in statement I is sufficient to answer the question
B. If the data in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C. If the data either in statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question
D. If the data neither in statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
Solutions
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. If the data neither in statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the question
18. Select the option figure in which given figure X is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Solutions
The correct answer is Option 4
Hence, the correct answer is 4.
19. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Solutions
The correct answer is option 4
The mirror image of the given figure along the mirror is shown below:
Note: Since the mirror is placed vertically beside the question figure, the image will be formed by inverting the question figure vertically about the mirror.
That means the left side of the figure will become the right side and vice versa.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
20. Count the squares in the given figure.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Solutions
We can count the squares in the given figure by naming all the points and counting all squares one by one initially the smaller ones then combining small squares.
21. Complete the following series.
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Solutions
The pattern is as follows: The diagonal is made from left to right and right to left in alternate steps and a colored square is rotated in a clockwise direction.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
22. Complete the series.
DFS, BLO, YRK, UXG, PDC, ?
A. JPY
B. JJY
C. JRS
D. MNQ
Solutions
The correct answer is option 2 i.e. JJY
DFS, BLO, YRK, UXG, PDC, ?
D – 2 = B, B – 3 = Y, Y – 4 = U, U – 5 = P, P – 6 = J
F + 6 = L, L + 6 = R, R + 6 = X, X + 6 = D, D + 6 = J
S – 4 = O, O – 4 = K, K – 4 = G, G – 4 = C, C – 4 = Y
23. Select the term that will come next in the following series.
2, 7, 17, 32, 52, ?
A. 134
B. 77
C. 126
D. 102
Solutions
Let’s find the differences between the terms:
- 7 − 2 = 5
- 17 − 7 = 10
- 32 − 17 = 15
- 52 − 32 = 20
We notice that the difference between consecutive terms increases by 5:
- 5 → 10 → 15 → 20 → next should be 25
So, next term = 52 + 25 = 77
24. Complete the following series.
13, 31, 57, 91, ?
A. 101
B. 151
C. 143
D. 133
Solutions
Find the difference between consecutive terms:
- 31 − 13 = 18
- 57 − 31 = 26
- 91 − 57 = 34
Now look at how the differences are changing:
- 18 → 26 → 34
These differences increase by 8 each time.
So, next difference = 34 + 8 = 42
Next number = 91 + 42 = 133
25. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(48, 5, 20)
(26, 6, 13)
A. (95, 5, 19)
B. (84, 2, 14)
C. (14, 9, 9)
D. (21, 3, 9)
Solutions
Logic: (First number × Second number) ÷ 12
(48, 5, 20)
= (48 × 5) ÷ 12
= 240 ÷ 12 = 20
(26, 6, 13)
= (26 × 6) ÷ 12
= 156 ÷ 12 = 13
Similalrly, (84, 2, 14)
= (84 × 2) ÷ 12
= 168 ÷ 12 = 14
Correct Answer: (84, 2, 14)
26. Find the related letter/word from the given alternatives.
Kathakali : Kerala :: Kathak : ?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Tamilnadu
D. Assam
Solutions
- Kathakali is a classical dance form from Kerala
- Kathak is another classical dance form — we need to find the state it is traditionally associated with.
Fact:
- Kathak originated from North India, especially from Uttar Pradesh.
- It was traditionally performed in temples and later in Mughal courts.
Correct Answer: 1) Uttar Pradesh
27. If in a certain code language, ‘COWARD’ is written as ‘OCAWDR’, ‘PROPER’ is written as ‘RPPORE’. Then, how is the word ‘MEMBER’ written in the same code language?
A. BMBREM
B. EMBMRE
C. EMBREM
D. EMBERM
Solutions
The correct answer is option 2 i.e. EMBMRE
| Understanding | Application |
| Each pair of letters in the word is reversed.CO/WA/RD → CO – OC, WA – AW, RD – DR ⇒ OCAWDR,PR/OP/ER → PR – RP, OP – PO, ER – RE ⇒ RPPORE | Code for the word ‘MEMBER’ will be:ME/MB/ER → ME – EM, MB – BM, ER – RE ⇒ EMBMRE |
28. In a certain code language, GOOGLE is coded as 81718111711 and WATCH is coded as 24323713. Then, how is ROUTER coded in the same code language?
A. 191724241024
B. 192418181112
C. 201724201524
D. 191634241124
Solutions
Logic: Each letter is coded as:
(Alphabet position) + (Letter position in word)
ROUTER = R O U T E R
Positions = 18 15 21 20 5 18
Add position in word:
- R (1st) → 18 + 1 = 19
- O (2nd) → 15 + 2 = 17
- U (3rd) → 21 + 3 = 24
- T (4th) → 20 + 4 = 24
- E (5th) → 5 + 5 = 10
- R (6th) → 18 + 6 = 24
→ Code = 191724241024
29. Pointing to a photograph, Neha says “She is the daughter of the only son of my maternal grandmother”. Whom she is pointing at?
A. Brother
B. Maternal uncle
C. Friend
D. Cousin
Solutions
🗣 Neha says:
“She is the daughter of the only son of my maternal grandmother.”
Step-by-step analysis:
- Maternal grandmother → Neha’s mother’s mother
- Only son of maternal grandmother → Neha’s maternal uncle (her mother’s only brother)
- Daughter of maternal uncle → Neha’s cousin (female)
Final Answer: 4) Cousin
30. Given below is a statement followed by some conclusions. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statement.
Statement: Adversity makes a man wise.
Conclusion:
I. The poor are wise.
II. Man learns from better experiences.
A. Only conclusion II follows.
B. Only conclusion I follows.
C. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
D. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Solutions
The statement talks about adversity which means a difficult situation.
So from I, we cannot conclude anything about poor.
From II, it explains if you know something from a bitter experience, you know about its unpleasant aspects because you have experienced it before.
Thus, Only conclusion II follows.
31. In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statement: Widening income inequality results in decline in human contentment, happiness and several instabilities in an economy. In advanced economies, the gap between the rich and poor is at its highest level in decades. Inequality trends have been more mixed in emerging markets and developing countries (EMDCs), with some countries experiencing declining inequality, but pervasive inequities in access to education, health care, and finance remain.
Conclusion:
I. Societies where inequality is lower, population-wide satisfaction and happiness tend to be higher.
II. Economic inequality leads to greater political instability, including an increased risk of democratic breakdown.
A. if only (I) follows
B. if only (II) follows
C. Both (I) and (II) follows
D. If neither (I) nor (II) follows
Solutions
Conclusion:
I. Societies where inequality is lower, population-wide satisfaction and happiness tend to be higher. True (as mentioned that as inequlity increases, the peace and happiness of people decreases.)
II. Economic inequality leads to greater political instability, including an increased risk of democratic breakdown. True (as inequality leads to various instabilities and problems.)
Hence, the correct answer is Both (I) and (II) follows.
32. If + is interchanged with -, then what will be the value of the following equation?
72 – 91 ÷ 13 × 12 + 6 = ?
A. 154
B. 156
C. 144
D. N140
Solutions
Given equation: 72 – 91 ÷ 13 × 12 + 6 = ?
If + is interchanged with -, then the equation becomes;
= 72 + (91 ÷ 13) × 12 – 6
= 72 + (7 × 12) – 6
= 72 + 84 – 6 = 154
Hence, the correct answer is 154.
33. Arrange the following words in the reverse order according to an English dictionary.
1. Hesitate
2. Hematite
3. Hunter
4. Hijack
5. Highlight
A. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
B. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
C. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
D. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
Solutions
Step-by-step Dictionary Order (Normal):
- Hematite
- Hesitate
- Hijack
- Highlight
- Hunter
Reverse Dictionary Order:
Reverse of above:
Hunter, Highlight, Hijack, Hesitate, Hematite
So, correct order is:
3, 5, 4, 1, 2
Final Answer: Option 4) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
34. Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following classes.
Males, Fathers, Accountants
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Solutions
The correct answer is Option 2 i.e.
35. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
| 12 | 14 | 26 |
| 7 | 6 | ? |
| 15 | 18 | 13 |
| 210 | 252 | 507 |
A. 12
B. 9
C. 7
D. 3
Solutions
The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 9
The logic used here is:
1st column: (12 × 15) × 7 = 1260 ÷ 6 = 210
2nd column: (14 × 18) × 6 = 1512 ÷ 6 = 252
Similarly, 3rd column: (26 × 13) × ? = (338 × ?) ÷ 6 = 507
= (338 × ?) = 3042
= ? = 3042 ÷ 338
= 9
36. Table given below contains information about percentage marks obtained by a student in 5 subjects. Maximum marks in each subject are 120. It also contains the passing marks in each subject. Some of the data is missing in the table. Read the questions carefully and answer them with the help of information given in the table.
Marks obtained in Physical Education is what percentage of marks scored in maths and science?
A. 125%
B. 45.45%
C. 30%
D. 150%
Solutions
The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 45.45%.
Maximum marks in each subject = 120
Marks scored in Physical Education = 50% of 120 = 60
Marks scored in Maths = 45% of 120 = 54
Marks scored in Science = 65% of 120 = 78
Hence,
Required percentage = 60/(54 + 78) × 100 = 45.45%
37. In an isosceles triangle ABC, the bisector of equal angles ∠B and ∠C meets at O inside the triangle. If ∠BOC = 164°, then find the sum of (∠A + ∠OBC)
A. 140
B. 142
C. 122
D. None of these
Solutions
Step-by-step:
In triangle ABC, since it’s isosceles,
→ ∠B = ∠C
Let’s say each of these equal angles is x
Then:
Now consider triangle BOC, where O is the intersection of bisectors of ∠B and ∠C.
So:
- ∠OBC = ½ ∠B = ½x
- ∠OCB = ½ ∠C = ½x
- ∠BOC is given = 164°
Now in triangle BOC:
38. If the ratio of the radius of the cone to the cylinder is 7 : 3 and the volume of the cylinder is 2376 cm3 and the radius of the cone is equal to the radius of the circle whose circumference is 88 cm. What is the height of the cylinder?
A. 21 cm
B. 28 cm
C. 24 cm
D. 29 cm
Solutions
Final Answer: 1) 21 cm
39. A, B and C are angles of a triangle, then what is the value of 1/(tan A tan B) + 1/(tan B tan C) + 1/(tan C tan A)?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. -1
Solutions
40. If α and β are the roots of equation x2 + 11x + 3 = 0, then what is the value of (α3 + β3) / (α + β)?
A. 98
B. -104
C. 112
D. -126
Solutions
41. The cost price of a bat is 75% of the marked price. Calculate the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 15%.
A. 25.6%
B. 13.33%
C. 18.16%
D. 21.33%
Solutions
42. The salary of a worker is first increased by 25%, then it is decreased by 12%. The percentage change in his salary is:
A. 10% increase
B. 13% increase
C. 10% decrease
D. 13% decrease
Solutions
We are given:
- A 25% increase, followed by a 12% decrease in a worker’s salary.
- We have to find the net percentage change.
Final Answer: 1) 10% increase
43.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 5
Solutions
44. Find the average of the prime numbers lying between 50 and 76.
A. 66
B. 60
C. 62
D. 64
Solutions
45. Pipe A usually fills a tank in 6 hours. But due to a leak at the bottom of the tank, it takes extra 2 hours to fill the tank. If the tank is full, then how much time will it take to get emptied due to the leak?
A. 16 hours
B. 20 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
Solutions
46. A policeman notices a thief from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at 10 km/h and 11 km/h, respectively. What is the distance (in meters) between them after 9 minutes?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 30
D. 60
Solutions
We are given:
- Initial distance between policeman and thief = 200 meters
- Thief’s speed = 10 km/h
- Policeman’s speed = 11 km/h
- Time = 9 minutes = 9/60 = 0.15 hours
Final Answer: 2) 50 meters
47. The average age of 30 students in a class is 20 years. If each student’s age is increased by 5 years, then determine the number by which the average age is increased.
A. 8
B. 7
C. 5
D. 3
Solutions
We are given:
- Average age of 30 students = 20 years
- Each student’s age is increased by 5 years
Step-by-step:
When each value in a data set is increased by the same amount, the average also increases by the same amount.
So, if each student’s age increases by 5 years, the average also increases by:
5 years
Final Answer: 5
48. If M : N : P = 3 : 7 : 5 and P : Q = 1 : 2, then what is the value of M : Q?
A. 2 : 1
B. 2 : 3
C. 1 : 3
D. 3 : 10
Solutions
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 3 : 10.
M : N : P = 3 : 7 : 5 and P : Q = 1 : 2
Equalize the ratio of P
⇒ P : Q = 1 : 2 …(×5)
So,
⇒ M : N : P = 3 : 7 : 5 and P : Q = 5 : 10
Now,
⇒ M : N : P : Q = 3 : 7 : 5 : 10
Hence,
⇒ M : Q = 3 : 10
49. How many years will it take for ₹8,400 to amount to ₹11,928 at a simple interest rate of 7% per annum?
A. 8
B. 5
C. 2
D. 6
Solutions
We are given:
- Principal (P) = ₹8,400
- Amount (A) = ₹11,928
- Rate (R) = 7% per annum
- Time (T) = ? (in years)
50. If the volume of the circular cylinder is 2310 cm3 with a radius of 7 cm, then find the curved surface area of the circular cylinder.
A. 450 cm2
B. 650 cm2
C. 652 cm2
D. 652 cm2
Solutions
The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 660 cm2.
The volume of the circular cylinder = πr2h
⇒ πr2h = 2310
⇒ 22/7 × 7 × 7 × h = 2310
h = 2310/154 = 15 cm
C.S.A = 2πrh = 2 × 22/7 × 7 × 15 = 660 cm2
51. Find the total amount paid by Rohan if he purchased a shirt of marked price Rs. 1200 with two successive discounts of 10% and 20%, respectively, and he bought a toy for his younger brother at a marked price of Rs. 300 with two successive discounts of 20%.
A. Rs. 1160
B. Rs. 960
C. Rs. 1240
D. Rs. 1056
Solutions
1. Shirt
- Marked Price = ₹1200
- Successive Discounts = 10% and 20%
Step-by-step discount:
- After 10% discount:
2. Toy
- Marked Price = ₹300
- Two successive discounts of 20%
Step-by-step discount:
- After first 20%:
Total Amount Paid = ₹864 (shirt) + ₹192 (toy) = ₹1056
52. Salary of Ram increases by 25%. His expenditure increases in the ratio 7 : 11. If his salary consists of expenditure and savings only, and his savings now is 10% more than the savings before increase in salary, find his expenditure as a percentage of his salary before increase in salary.
A. 33.33%
B. 31.81%
C. 32.44%
D. Cannot be determined
Solutions
53. Simplify: 1020 ÷ [4/3 of (26 + 4) – 11 2/3]
A. 28
B. 36
C. 17
D. 31
Solutions
54. Find the quotient, when the mean proportional of 7 1/5 and 245 is divided by an even prime number.
A. 49
B. 42
C. 21
D. 36
Solutions
55. A and B can do a piece of work in 14/3 days while B and C can do the same work in 12/5 days and C and A in 16/3 days. By working together what part of the same work all three can finish in 2 days?
A. 275/336
B. 225/336
C. 127/336
D. 277/336
Solutions
56. From point P, X walks at a speed of 12 km/hr and 6 hours after his start. Y also starts walking from same point P on his cycle after him at the speed of 16 km/hr. How far from the starting point P will Y catch X?
A. 224 km
B. 288 km
C. 256 km
D. 324 km
Solutions
We are given:
- Person X walks at 12 km/h
- Y starts 6 hours later from same point at 16 km/h
- We are to find the distance from point P where Y catches X
Final Answer: Option 2) 288 km
57. If 4/5th of A is equal to the 2/5 of B, then find the value of A : B.
A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : 1
C. 2 : 3
D. 3 : 4
Solutions
58. Rs 8000 invested in compound interest at a particular rate for 2 years yields an interest of Rs 1504.8. Find the interest received on Rs 10000 invested for three years.
A. Rs 2780.39
B. Rs 2850.49
C. Rs 2950.29
D. Rs 3040.59
Solutions
We are given:
- Compound interest on ₹8000 for 2 years = ₹1504.80
- We need to find compound interest on ₹10000 for 3 years at the same rate.
59. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 1100 cm2 having a height of 5 cm then, find the ratio of height and radius of the cylinder.
A. 1 : 7
B. 7 : 1
C. 2 : 5
D. 5 : 2
Solutions
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 1 : 7.
The curved surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh
⇒ 2 × 22/7 × r × 5 = 1100
⇒ (44 × 5)/7 × r = 1100
⇒ r = (1100 × 7)/(44 × 5)
⇒ r = 35 cm
Now,
Ratio = 5 : 35 = 1 : 7
60. What should be added in the both numerator and denominator of fraction 4/7 so that the fraction becomes 2/3?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Solutions
Correct answer: 2
61. Wheatstone bridge is an arrangement of _________ resistors used for accurate measurement of resistance.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Solutions
A Wheatstone bridge is an arrangement of 4 resistors forming a quadrilateral (usually labeled as R1, R2, R3, and R4), with a galvanometer connected between two opposite points and a voltage source between the other two points. It is used for accurate measurement of unknown resistance when the bridge is balanced.
So, Wheatstone bridge is an arrangement of 4 resistors.
62. The value of g on the moon is 1/6th of the value of g on the earth. If a man can jump 1.5 m high on the earth, on the moon, he can jump up to a height of?
A. 6 m
B. 7.5 m
C. 9 m
D. 4.5 m
Solutions
63. Insulators have resistivity of the order of:
A. 1012Ωm to 1017Ωm
B. 10-12Ωm to 10-17Ωm
C. 106Ωm to 108Ωm
D. 10-6Ωm to 10-8Ωm
Solutions
The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 1012Ωm to 1017Ωm.
Insulators are the materials that do not readily conduct electricity (i.e., materials with high electrical resistivity)
Insulators have electrical resistivity on the order of 108 to 1017 Ωcm.
Electrical resistance (R) is the resistance to a flow of electric current through a material.
64. A curved mirror, where the reflecting surface is curved inwards is called a:
A. plane mirror
B. concave mirror
C. plano-convex mirror
D. convex mirror
Solutions
Correct Answer: 2. Concave mirror
If the reflecting surface is curved inwards (like the inside of a spoon), it’s a Concave Mirror.
It converges light rays and can form real or virtual images based on object distance.
65. If the power of a corrective lens is +2.0D, then it is a:
A. convex mirror
B. concave mirror
C. convex lens
D. concave lens
Solutions
Correct Answer: 3. Convex lens
The power (P) of a lens is measured in diopters (D).
If power is positive (+) ➝ it is a convex lens (also called a converging lens).
If power is negative (−) ➝ it is a concave lens (diverging lens).
66. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. It strikes the ground and rebounds up to a height of 2.5 m. During the collision, the per cent loss in the kinetic energy is:
A. 100%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 50%
Solutions
Kinetic energy just before impact comes from potential energy at 10 m.
After rebound, kinetic energy becomes potential energy at 2.5 m.
So,
67. Which of the following is a surface phenomenon?
A. Freezing
B. Melting
C. Evaporation
D. Boiling
Solutions
Correct Answer: 3. Evaporation
It occurs when surface molecules gain enough energy to escape into the air.
Evaporation happens only at the surface of a liquid — even below boiling point.
68. What does the kinetic energy of an object increase with?
A. Speed
B. Mass
C. Friction
D. Time
Solutions
Correct Answer: 1. Speed
The formula for kinetic energy (K.E.) is:
Where:
- m = mass of the object
- v = speed (or velocity) of the object
K.E. is directly proportional to the square of speed (v²)
So, even a small increase in speed leads to a large increase in kinetic energy.
69. Two identical resistors, each of 10 Ω, are connected in parallel. This combination, in turn, is connected to a third resistor of 10 Ω. The equivalent resistance of the combination is _______.
A. 10 Ω
B. 30 Ω
C. 15 Ω
D. 5 Ω
Solutions
The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 15 Ω.
The equivalent resistance in parallel combination is given by:
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2
1/R = 1/10 + 1/10
R = 5 Ω
Equivalent reisistance is given by :
R = 5 ohms + 10 ohms
R = 15 ohms
Hence, the equivalent resister of the combination is 15 ohms.
70. 1 horse power is equal to approximately ______ watts.
A. 998
B. 500
C. 746
D. 250
Solutions
1 horsepower is approximately equal to 746 watts.
This conversion is based on the definition where 1 horsepower (hp) is equivalent to 746 watts (W) in terms of power. This unit of measurement is used to quantify the rate of work or energy transfer. The conversion factor is used in various applications, such as in engines and motors, to compare their power output or to convert between different units of power measurement.
71. The upward and downward growth of shoots and roots, respectively, in response to the pull of gravity is called ______.
A. geotropism
B. chemotropism
C. hydrotropism
D. phototropism
Solutions
Correct Answer: 1. Geotropism
Geotropism (Gravitropism): Plant’s response to gravity.
Roots grow downward → positive geotropism
Shoots grow upward → negative geotropism
72. Cathode rays are a beam of:
A. positrons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. protons
Solutions
- Cathode rays are beams of electrons generated in a vaccum tube.
- The positively charged electrode is known as an anode.
- Cathode refers to the negatively charged electrode.
Correct Answer is Option 3
73. 30˚ Celcius = ______ Kelvin (approximately).
A. –30
B. -243
C. 130
D. 303
Solutions
- K= C+273 (K is Kelvin, C is Celsius).
- Celsius, commonly known as Centigrade, is based on 0º for the freezing point and 100° for the boiling point of water.
- The Fahrenheit temperature scale is based on water’s freezing point of 32ºF and boiling point of 212ºF.
Correct Answer: 4. 303
74. ‘mho’ is the unit of ______ of a substance.
A. conductivity
B. resistivity
C. resistance
D. conductance
Solutions
Correct Answer: 4. Conductance
- Conductance (G) = Ability of a material to conduct electric current
- Unit of conductance is Siemens (S)
- Earlier, it was called mho (which is ohm spelled backward)
75. What is the Chemical Name of Vitamin B7?
A. Panotothenic Acid
B. Biotin
C. Ascorbic Acid
D. Folic Acid
Solutions
The molecular name for vitamin B7 is “biotin.”
Both in humans and other animals, biotin is engaged in a broad variety of metabolic processes, most of which are connected to the use of lipids, carbs, and amino acids.
One of the eight B vitamins is biotin.
It is sometimes referred to as vitamin B-7 or vitamin H, where the H stands for “Haar und Haut,” which is German for “skin and hair.”
Biotin dissolves in water.
Water-soluble vitamins must be absorbed from food because the body cannot store them.
76. Atomic mass of Carbon is 12 and that of Helium is 4. State which of the following statements is true for 1 mole of each of the elements?
A. 1 mole of Helium will contain 3 times more atoms than 1 mole of Carbon
B. 1 mole of Carbon will contain the same number of atoms as present in 1 mole of Helium.
C. 1 mole of Carbon will contain one-third the number of atoms present in 1 mole of Helium.
D. 1 mole of Carbon will contain 3 times more atoms than 1 mole of Helium.
Solutions
Given the atomic masses:
Carbon (C) has an atomic mass of 12.
Helium (He) has an atomic mass of 4.
We can compare the mass of 1 mole of each element:
1 mole of carbon (C) atoms has a mass of 12 grams.
1 mole of helium (He) atoms has a mass of 4 grams.
Thus, the statement that is true for 1 mole of each element is:
“1 mole of Helium will contain 3 times more atoms than 1 mole of Carbon”
77. The molecular formula of Propane is:
A. C3H8.
B. C2H6
C. CH4
D. C4H10
Solutions
The molecular formula of propane is C3H8.
This means that each molecule of propane is composed of three carbon atoms and eight hydrogen atoms.
78. The metal that can be cut with a Knife is:
A. Sodium
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
D. Iron
Solutions
Correct Answer: 1. Sodium
Sodium (Na) is a very soft metal, so soft that it can be easily cut with a knife.
It is an alkali metal, and other alkali metals like potassium and lithium are also soft.
79. Which of the following gases is used to prevent food material from getting oxidised?
A. Chlorine
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
Solutions
Correct Answer: 4. Nitrogen
Oxidation in food causes spoilage, rancidity, and loss of freshness.
Nitrogen gas is inert (non-reactive), so it is used to displace oxygen in food packets.
This process is called Nitrogen Flushing — it increases shelf life by preventing oxidation.
80. How many electrons are there in the outermost shell?
A. 6
B. 10
C. 8
D. 4
Solutions
Atoms tend to achieve a stable electron configuration by having 8 electrons in their outermost shell, except for the first shell, which can only hold a maximum of 2 electrons.
This is known as the octet rule.
Correct Answer is 8
81. The pH of a solution is 3. When its pH changes to 6, then H+’ion concentration:
A. increases 2 times
B. increases 3 times
C. decreases 1000 times
D. decreases 100 times
Solutions
Actually, when the pH of a solution changes by 3 units (from pH 3 to pH 6), the H+ ion concentration decreases by a factor of 1000.
This decrease in H+ ion concentration is due to the logarithmic nature of the pH scale.
82. Among chemical properties, Mendeleev concentrated on the compounds formed by the elements with:
A. Hydrogen and Oxygen
B. Hydrogen and Sodium
C. Carbon and Hydrogen
D. Carbon and Sodium
Solutions
Correct Answer: 1. Hydrogen and Oxygen
Dmitri Mendeleev, while designing the Periodic Table, paid special attention to chemical properties of elements.
He especially studied how elements formed compounds with Hydrogen (H) and Oxygen (O).
83. What happens to the atomic size as you go down the group?
A. Triples
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. No change
Solutions
As you go down a group in the periodic table, the atomic size increases. This increase occurs because each successive element has an additional electron shell, which places the outermost electrons farther from the nucleus. Although the nuclear charge also increases, the effect of the added electron shells outweighs this, leading to a larger atomic radius. The increased distance between the nucleus and the outer electrons reduces the effective nuclear pull, resulting in a larger atomic size.
Correct Answer is Increases.
84. Which sodium compound is the most popular additive to various items such as sauces, salad dressings and beverages for its preservative action?
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Sodium fluoride
C. Sodium hypochlorite
D. Sodium benzoate
Solutions
Correct Answer: 4. Sodium benzoate
The most popular sodium compound used as a preservative in sauces, salad dressings, and beverages is sodium benzoate. Sodium benzoate is widely used in the food industry due to its ability to inhibit the growth of bacteria, yeast, and fungi, thereby extending the shelf life of various products. It is particularly effective in acidic environments, making it suitable for use in items like soft drinks, pickles, and condiments, where it helps maintain freshness and safety for consumption.
85. ______________ is a naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO.
A. Methcathinone
B. Propiophenone
C. Acetophenone
D. Benzophenone
Solutions
Correct Answer: 4. Benzophenone
The given formula (C₆H₅)₂CO represents a compound with two phenyl (C₆H₅) groups attached to a central carbonyl (C=O) group.
This structure corresponds to Benzophenone, a well-known aromatic ketone.
86. Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure of O3?
A. c
B. a
C. b
D. d
Solutions
Lewis structures, also referred to as Lewis dot formulas, electron dot structures, or Lewis electron dot structures (LEDs), illustrate the bonding between atoms within a molecule and indicate any lone pairs of electrons that may be present.
Correct Answer is : d
87. Trichloromethane is better known as:
A. chloroform
B. butane
C. LPG
D. laughing gas
Solutions
Correct Answer: 1. Chloroform
- Trichloromethane has the chemical formula CHCl₃.
- It is commonly known as Chloroform.
Chloroform Facts:
- Used historically as an anesthetic.
- Now used in chemical synthesis and solvents.
- Has a sweet smell and is volatile.
88. What will be the atomic number of an element X which is placed in period 2 and group 17?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 10
D. 9
Solutions
The element with an atomic number of 9, situated in period 2 and group 17 of the periodic table, is fluorine (F).
Fluorine is a very reactive nonmetal and is the first element in Group 17, commonly referred to as the halogens.
Correct Answer : 9
89. Which of the following algae is also called kelp and found in the deep sea?
A. Chlamydomona
B. Fucus
C. Laminaria
D. Nostoc
Solutions
Correct Answer: 3. Laminaria
Laminaria is a type of brown algae.
It is commonly referred to as kelp.
Found in cold, deep sea marine environments.
Grows in dense underwater forests known as kelp forests.
90. What is the full form of PPLO with respect to bacteria?
A. Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms
B. Pleuro Platelet Like Organisms
C. Platelet Prone Like Organisms
D. Pneumonia Platelet Like Organisms
Solutions
Correct Answer: 1. Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms
- PPLO stands for Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms.
- These are the smallest known bacteria capable of self-replication.
- Belong to the genus Mycoplasma.
- Lack a cell wall, making them resistant to many antibiotics.
- Cause diseases like pleuropneumonia in cattle and atypical pneumonia in humans.
91. Identify the position of stomata in plants.
A. Tip of stem
B. Inside the roots
C. Inside the flower
D. Surface of leaves
Solutions
Correct Answer: 4. Surface of leaves
- Stomata are tiny pores found mostly on the surface of leaves, especially on the underside.
- They help in gas exchange (CO₂ in, O₂ out) and transpiration (loss of water vapor).
- Guard cells around each stoma control its opening and closing.
92. Involuntary actions in human beings such as blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are controlled by the:
A. Pons
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla
D. Spinal cord
Solutions
The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Medulla.
- Involuntary actions in human beings such as blood pressure, salivation, and vomiting are controlled by the medulla oblongata, which is a part of the brainstem.
- The medulla oblongata plays a crucial role in regulating vital functions such as heartbeat, breathing rate, blood pressure, and various reflexes.
93. The human body works within the pH range of:
A. 6.0 to 7.0
B. 6.0 to 6.8
C. 7.0 to 7.8
D. 7.0 to 8.6
Solutions
Correct Answer: 3. 7.0 to 7.8
- The normal pH of human blood is around 7.4, which is slightly alkaline.
- The human body functions best within a narrow pH range of 7.0 to 7.8.
- Enzymes, metabolic reactions, and cellular functions require this stable pH.
- Deviation from this range can be fatal (acidosis or alkalosis).
94. Which one of the following derives nutrition from plants as a parasite?
A. Malaria Parasite
B. Cuscuta
C. Broyophyllum
D. Lice
Solutions
Correct Answer: 2. Cuscuta
- Cuscuta (also called Amarbel) is a parasite that cannot photosynthesize.
- It wraps around host plants and absorbs nutrients and water from them using haustoria (special root-like structures).
- It harms the host plant by depriving it of nutrition.
95. Which of the following is present in the centre of a flower?
A. Carpel
B. Stamen
C. Petals
D. Sepals
Solutions
Correct Answer: 1. Carpel
- The Carpel is the female reproductive part of the flower.
- It is located at the center and consists of stigma, style, and ovary.
- It is responsible for receiving pollen and forming seeds.
96. In which of the flowering plants are buds produced in the notches along the leaf margin?
A. Banana
B. Bryophyta
C. Bryophyllum
D. Rose
Solutions
Correct Answer: 3. Bryophyllum
- Bryophyllum is a flowering plant known for vegetative propagation.
- It produces new buds (plantlets) from the notches (edges) of its leaves.
- These buds can fall off, root, and grow into new plants, even without seeds.
97. Identify a way to reduce the pollution caused due to burning of fossil fuels.
A. By lowering the temperature of burning
B. By increasing the efficiency of the combustion process
C. By increasing the number of carbon molecules
D. By decreasing the latent heat
Solutions
“Increasing the efficiency of the combustion process” is one strategy for reducing pollution brought on by the burning of fossil fuels.
Pollution can be reduced when fossil fuels are used more efficiently since there is less waste and toxic emissions.
A number of strategies can be used to increase combustion efficiency, such as cleaner fuels, more advanced technologies, and finer control over the combustion process to maximize energy production and reduce waste products.
Correct Answer is option 2
98. Within the human body, a continuous canal starts at the ______ and concludes at the anus, through which food traverses.
A. stomach
B. buccal cavity
C. food pipe
D. rectum
Solution
The correct answer is a buccal cavity.
Key Points
- The human digestive system consists of a continuous canal through which food passes.
- The canal begins at the buccal cavity and ends at the anus.
- Human Digestion system-
- The human digestive system consists of several organs and structures involved in the process of digestion.
- The canal begins at the buccal cavity, also known as the mouth or oral cavity, where food enters the body.
- After being chewed and mixed with saliva, the food is formed into a small, soft mass called a bolus.
- The bolus then passes through the pharynx, which is the junction between the buccal cavity and the esophagus.
- From the pharynx, the food travels down the esophagus, also known as the food pipe or the gullet.
- The esophagus is a muscular tube that propels food toward the stomach through rhythmic contractions called peristalsis.
- Once the food reaches the stomach, it undergoes further digestion through the action of stomach acids and enzymes.
- The stomach mixes the food with gastric juices and breaks it down into a semi-liquid mixture called chyme.
- The chyme is then gradually released into the small intestine, the longest part of the digestive tract.
- In the small intestine, the majority of nutrient absorption takes place, aided by specialized structures called villi.
- The small intestine consists of three sections: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
- After passing through the small intestine, the remaining waste material enters the large intestine, also known as the colon.
- In the large intestine, water and electrolytes are absorbed from the waste, forming solid feces.
- The feces are stored in the rectum until they are eliminated from the body through the anus during the process of defecation.
99. Which cell membrane is a superimposed elastic sac of ER-like thickness, which helps in processing and packaging protein and lipid molecules, especially stable proteins?
A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitocondria
D. Lavak
Solutions
Correct Answer: 2. Golgi apparatus
- The Golgi apparatus (also called Golgi body or Golgi complex) is made of stacked, membrane-bound sacs similar in structure to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
- It modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids received from the ER, especially those meant for secretion or delivery to other parts of the cell.
- It plays a vital role in forming stable proteins and cell membranes.
100. Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size, as in species of Eudorina is termed as______.
A. anisogamous
B. oogamous
C. zoogamous
D. isogamous
Solutions
Correct Answer: 1. Anisogamous
- Anisogamy refers to sexual reproduction involving fusion of two gametes of different sizes (usually both are motile, but unequal in size).
- In Eudorina, this is the mode of reproduction.
- It’s intermediate between isogamy (same size gametes) and oogamy (large non-motile egg + small motile sperm).
