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SSC CHSL 2024 Tier – I Mock Test – 3

1.In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If asentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

She picked (1)/ on the (2)/ trail soon after. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Solution

Answer: B

“Pick up the trail” is the correct phrase which means to come upon or detect something, thus “on” should be replaced with “up”


2. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If asentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Internet Service Providers (ISPs) should provide us (1)/ with open networks and should not block or discriminate for (2)/ any application or content that rides over those networks. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4 

Solution

Answer: B

“for” should be replaced with “against”.


3. In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Meera cannot ______ the exam’s results.

A. depict

B. await

C. envision

D. observe

Solution

Answer: B


4. In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Being linked with nature brings joy and peace as it is the ______ of the laws of Nature.

A. dissent

B. refusal

C. acknowledgement

D. sustenance

Solution

Answer: C


5. In the following questions, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Felicity

A. Bliss

B. Misery

C. Grief

D. Trouble

Solution

Answer: A

Felicity means intense happiness.


6. In the following questions, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Chafe

A. Chain

B. Safe

C. Irritate

D. Joy 

Solution

Answer: C

Chafe means become or make annoyed or impatient because of a restriction or inconvenience.


7. In the following questions, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Forgo

A. Forfeit

B. Neglect

C. Conquer

D. Pass 

Solution

Answer: C

Forgo means renounce.


8. In the following questions, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Banter

A. Teasing

B. Praise

C. Fun

D. Gossip

Solution

Answer: B

Banter means the playful and friendly exchange of teasing remarks.


9. Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Gender inequality has

P : it reduces economic growth

Q : development goals as

R : adverse impact on

A. RPQ

B. RQP

C. PRQ

D. QPR

Solution

Answer: B


10. A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Who did this?

A. This was done by who?

B. By who this was done?

C. By whom this was done?

D. By whom was this done?

Solution

Answer: D


11. A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech.Ram said, “I have cleared the clutter.”

A. Ram told that he cleared the clutter.

B. Ram says that he cleared the clutter.

C. Ram said that he had cleared the clutter.

D. The clutter was cleared by Ram

Solution

Answer: C


12. In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Beizarre

B. Bizaarre

C. Bizarre

D. Bigarre

Solution

Answer: C

Bizarre means very strange or unusual.


13. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of thefour alternatives.

One should always keep in mind that psychology is essentially a laboratory science, and ____ (13) _____a text-book subject. The laboratory material is to be ____(14)_____ in ourselves. While the text should be thoroughly mastered, its statements should always be verified ____ (15) ______ reference to one’s own experience, and observation of others. Prospective teachers should constantly correlate the lessons of the book ____ (16) ____ the observation of children at work in the school. The problems suggested for ____ (17) _____ and introspection will, if mastered, do much to render practical help to find the truths of psychology.

13. ?

A. nor

B. neither

C. not

D. none

Solution

Answer: C


14. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of thefour alternatives.

One should always keep in mind that psychology is essentially a laboratory science, and ____ (13) _____a text-book subject. The laboratory material is to be ____(14)_____ in ourselves. While the text should be thoroughly mastered, its statements should always be verified ____ (15) ______ reference to one’s own experience, and observation of others. Prospective teachers should constantly correlate the lessons of the book ____ (16) ____ the observation of children at work in the school. The problems suggested for ____ (17) _____ and introspection will, if mastered, do much to render practical help to find the truths of psychology.

14. ?

A. find

B. finding

C. found

D. finds

Solution

Answer: C


15. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of thefour alternatives.

One should always keep in mind that psychology is essentially a laboratory science, and ____ (13) _____a text-book subject. The laboratory material is to be ____(14)_____ in ourselves. While the text should be thoroughly mastered, its statements should always be verified ____ (15) ______ reference to one’s own experience, and observation of others. Prospective teachers should constantly correlate the lessons of the book ____ (16) ____ the observation of children at work in the school. The problems suggested for ____ (17) _____ and introspection will, if mastered, do much to render practical help to find the truths of psychology.

15. ? 

A. to

B. at

C. by

D. for

Solution

Answer: C


16. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of thefour alternatives.

One should always keep in mind that psychology is essentially a laboratory science, and ____ (13) _____a text-book subject. The laboratory material is to be ____(14)_____ in ourselves. While the text should be thoroughly mastered, its statements should always be verified ____ (15) ______ reference to one’s own experience, and observation of others. Prospective teachers should constantly correlate the lessons of the book ____ (16) ____ the observation of children at work in the school. The problems suggested for ____ (17) _____ and introspection will, if mastered, do much to render practical help to find the truths of psychology.

16. ?

A. with

B. until

C. from

D. upon

Solution

Answer: A


17. In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of thefour alternatives.

One should always keep in mind that psychology is essentially a laboratory science, and ____ (13) _____a text-book subject. The laboratory material is to be ____(14)_____ in ourselves. While the text should be thoroughly mastered, its statements should always be verified ____ (15) ______ reference to one’s own experience, and observation of others. Prospective teachers should constantly correlate the lessons of the book ____ (16) ____ the observation of children at work in the school. The problems suggested for ____ (17) _____ and introspection will, if mastered, do much to render practical help to find the truths of psychology.

17. ? 

A. observe

B. observes

C. observed

D. observation

Solution

Answer: D


18. In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

At large

A. A very  big opportunity.

B. A criminal escaped or not yet captured.

C. To have a big heart.

D. A big appetite.

Solution

Answer: B

At large means A criminal escaped or not yet captured.


19. In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Head over heels

A. To do  things exactly opposite of what is expected.

B. Madly in love.

C. To do stupid things.

D. To unknowingly dive  into an unpleasant situation.

Solution

Answer: B

Head over heels means Madly in love.


20. In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

Beyond or above the range of normal or physical human experience

A. Mundane

B. Transcendent

C. Ribald

D. Coarse

Solution

Answer: B

Transcendent means beyond or above the range of normal or physical human experience


21. In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

Capable of being imagined or grasped mentally

A. Dazzling

B. Conceivable

C. Stunning

D. Spectacular

Solution

Answer: B

Conceivable means capable of being imagined or grasped mentally


22. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

22. ?

A. is activated

B. were activated

C. were activate

D. no improvement

Solution

Answer: B

“Senses” is a plural countable noun hence “were” should be used.


23. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

My daughter (comes running) as fast as her little feet can take her while her eyes sparkle vivaciously. 

A. comes run

B. come running

C. came run

D. no improvement

Solution

Answer: D

No improvement


24. The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

Leadership and

A-team-building  skills deepened

B-for relationships

C-a sense of value

A. ACB

B. ABC

C. CBA

D. CAB

Solution

Answer: A


25. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. percoletion

B. parcolation

C. percolation

D. parcoletion

Solution

Answer: C

Percolation means percolation refers to filtration of water through soil and permeable rocks.


26. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Pascal : Pressure : : ? : ?

A. Hectare : Volume

B. Speed : Temperature

C. Joule : Work

D. Time :  Seconds

Solution

Answer: C

Pascal is the unit of pressure

Joule is the unit of work.


27. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

563 : 635 : : 894 : ?

A. 849

B. 489

C. 498

D. 948

Solution

Answer: D


28. In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.

MOK : KLG : : ?  :  ?

A. FIM : DFI

B. TMA : UNB

C. KCN : JBM

D. FSA : IVD

Solution

Answer: A

–2, –3, –4


29. In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

A. Square – Four

B. Pentagon – Five

C. Rectangle – Three

D. Triangle  – Three

Solution

Answer: C

Rectangle have 4 sides


30. In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side of (–) is related to the number of the right side of (–) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A. 7 – 49

B. 2 – 4

C. 5 – 25

D. 3 – 39

Solution

Answer: D

7 – 7²

2 – 2²

5 – 5²

3 – 3² = 9 

 39


31. In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

A. RTV

B. HJL

C. KMP

D. BDF

Solution

Answer: C

+2 series except KMP


32. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Soften

2. Sterilize

3. Stick

4. Sterile

5. Status

A. 15423

B. 25134

C. 54213

D. 32154

Solution

Answer: A

1. Soften

2. Status

3. Sterile

4. Sterilize

5. Stick


33. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

23, 28, 34, 41, 49, ?

A. 59

B. 57

C. 58

D. 55

Solution

Answer: C


34. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

GJT, IMR, KPP, MSN, ?

A. PUL

B. OVL

C. OUK

D. PVM

Solution

Answer: B

+2, +3, –2


35. In a row of buses, Panjab is at 19th position from the right end. Raftaar is 23 places to the left from Panjab and is at the exact centre of row. How many buses are between Raftaar bus and bus standing at the left end?

A. 44

B. 42

C. 40

D. 43

Solution

Answer: C

∴ No. of buses b/w Raftaar bus and bus standing at the left end

= 40


36. From the given alternatives, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word.

Government

A. Got

B. Over

C. Need

D. Norm

Solution

Answer: C

Need


37. In a certain code language, “FRIED” is written as “EQHDC”. How is “RUSTY” written in that code language?

A. PAXYZ

B. QTRSX

C. PARSX

D. NQVSZ

Solution

Answer: B

–1 series


38. In a certain code language, ‘-‘ represents ‘x’, ‘÷’ represents ‘+’, ‘+’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘x’ represents ‘-‘. Find out the answer to the following question.

19 ÷ 2 – 35 + 10 x 6 = ?

A. 20

B. 14

C. 32

D. 27

Solution

Answer: A

19 ÷ 2 – 35 + 10 × 6

⇒ 19 + 2 × 35 ÷ 10 – 6

⇒ 19 + 2 × 3.5 – 6

⇒ 19 + 7 – 6

⇒ 26 – 6 =20


39. The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?

15 x 18 – 6 ÷ 20 + 4 = 29

A. + and  x

B. ÷ and –

C. + and ÷

D. – and +

Solution

Answer: B

15 × 18 – 6 ÷ 20 +4 = 29

⇒ 15 × 18 ÷ 6 – 20 + 4 = 29

⇒ 15 × 3 – 20 + 4 = 29

⇒ 45 – 20 + 4 = 29

⇒ 29 = 29


40. If 40@8 = -5, 30@3 = -10 and 20@5 = -4, then find the value of 60@3 = ?

A. 45

B. -20

C. -5

D. -36

Solution

Answer: B


41. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

abABABAB, ABabABAB, ABABabAB, ABABABab, abABABAB,

A. ABABAbaB

B. abABABAB

C. ABabABAA

D. ABabABAB

Solution

Answer: D

ABabABAB


42. Two village women are returning home starting from the same point. The first woman walks 1 km South, the turns to her right and walks 6 km to reach her house. In the meanwhile, the second woman walks 5 km West, then she turns North and walks 4 km, then she turns to her left and walks 1 km to reach her house. Where is the second woman’s house with respect to the first woman’s house?

A. 5 km North

B. 3 km North

C. 5 km South

D. 3 km South

Solution

Answer: A

Second woman is at a distance of 5 km in North direction with respect to the first woman’s house.


43. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: No books are notebooks

Statement II: All diaries are books

Conclusion I: No notebooks are diaries

Conclusion II: All diaries are notebooks

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither conclusion I  nor conclusion II follows

Solution

Answer: A

Only conclusion I follows.


44. In the following figure, rectangle represents film critics, circle represents Bakers, triangle represents Divers and square represents Football players. Which set of letters represents Football players who are not Divers?

A. ED

B. FD

C. GH

D. DC

Solution

Answer: A

E D


45. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

HPA, FMZ, DJY, BGX, ?

A. ZDW

B. ZEV

C. YDW

D. YEV

Solution

Answer: A

–2, –3, –1 series


46. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

672, 666, 660, 654, ?

A. 648

B. 646

C. 650

D. 640

Solution

Answer: A

– 6 series


47. In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A. (61, 64, 71)

B. (57, 60, 69)

C. (75, 78, 85)

D. (89, 92, 99)

Solution

Answer: B

+3, +7 series except option (b)


48. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A.

 width=

B.

 width=

C.

 width=

D.

 width=
Solution

Answer: A


49. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

A.

 width=

B.

 width=

C.

 width=

D.

 width=
Solution

Answer: C

Opposite face are

Option (c) cannot be formed


50. Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 142

B. 127

C. 198

D. 158

Solution

Answer: A

(105+41) – (48+36)= 146-84 = 62

 (187+45) – (54+36)= 232-90 = 142


51. The length of a string is 8 feet and 9 inches, which is divided into 3 equal parts. What is the length of each part in inches?

A. 31

B. 33

C. 35

D. 37

Solution

Answer: C

We know that,

1 feet = 12 inch

∴ 8 feet = 12 × 8 = 96 inches

⇒ 8 feet 9inches = 96 + 9 = 105 inches.

Now, 105 inches is divided into 3 equal parts.

Each part must be of length 150/3 = 35 inches.


52. Determine the largest 4-digit number which is a perfect square.

A. 9999

B. 9702

C. 9604

D. 9801

Solution

Answer: D

9999 is largest 4 digit number. And (100)² = 10,000 which is 1 greater than the largest 4 digit number. This means that closest square root of the largest perfect square is most likely 99. So (99)² = 9801 is the largest perfect square of four digit.


53. Shaan got a total of Rs. 912 in the denomination of equal numbers of Rs. 1, Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 coins. How many coins do Shaanposses?

A. 16

B. 57

C. 171

D. 323

Solution

Answer: C

Number of 1 Rs. Coins × 1 Rs. + Number of 5 Rs. Coins × 5 Rs. + Number of 10 Rs. Coins × 10 Rs. = 912

1 ×  + 5 ×  + 10 ×  = 912

⇒ 16  = 912

⇒  = 57

Total number of coins that Shaan possess = 57 × 3 = 171


54. Two whole numbers are such that the square of first number exceeds the second by 112 and the ratio of the numbers is 4:3. What is the value of smaller number?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 12

D. 36

Solution

Answer: C

Let the numbers are 4x & 3x.

ATQ,

16x² = 9x² + 112

⇒ 7x² = 112

⇒ x2  = 16

⇒ x   = 4

∴ Number are 4x ⇒ 4.4 = 16

3x ⇒ 3.4 = 12


55. Choose the CORRECT option about the two tangents drawn to the circle from the external point?

(a) The tangents subtend equal angles at the centre of the circle.

(b) The tangents drawn from the external point to a circle are equal in length.

(c) The tangents are equally inclined to the segment which joins the centre to that point.

A. a and b only

B. b and c only

C. a, b and c

D. a and c only

Solution

Answer: C

Since, ∆AOP ≅∆BOP

∴∠AOP = ∠BOP

⇒ (a) is true

And, PA = PB

⇒ (b) is true.

Also, ∠APO = ∠BPO

⇒ (c) is true.

Hence, statements (a), (b) & (c) are correct.


56. Consider the figure shown below which consists of the triangle ABC which touches the circle with centre at O. Which of the following options is CORRECT?

A. AB – CQ = AC + BQ

B. AB + CQ = AC + BQ

C. AB + CQ = AC – BQ

D. None of the above

Solution

Answer: B

We have

Adding (i) & (ii)

AP + QC = AR + RC

AP + QC = AC

Adding BQ both sides.

AP + QC + BQ = AC + BQ

AB + QC = AC + BQ


57. If price of oranges is increased by 30%, then a person can buy 12 oranges less for Rs 208. What is the original price (in Rs) of an orange?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 3

Solution

Answer: B

We know that,

Price/org. =

Price/org. ∝

Now,

P → 10            13

N → 13            10

    3 unit → 12

∴ 13 unit → 52

Original price of an orange = 208/52 = Rs. 4


58. Of three positive numbers, the ratio of first and second is 5 : 2, ratio of second and third is 5 : 4. The product of first and third is 1800. What is the sum of the three numbers?

A. 43

B. 133

C. 119

D. 129

Solution

Answer: D

Let the numbers are 

ATQ,

Sum of numbers =

= 43 × 3

= 129


59. The ratio of milk and water in three samples is 1 : 3, 3 : 5 and 11 : 5. A mixture containing equal quantities of all three samples is made. What will be the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture?

A. 7 : 9

B. 5 : 7

C. 15 : 13

D. 9 : 11

Solution

Answer: A

We get

i.e., 


60. Average of 31 numbers is 19. If the average of first 8 numbers is 24, then what is the average of the remaining numbers?

A. 17.26

B. 23.25

C. 26.2

D. 25.45

Solution

Answer: A

Avg. of 31 no. = 19

Sum of 31 no. = 589

and Avg. of 8 no. = 24

sum of 8 no. = 192

sum of remaining 31 – 8 = 23 no. = 589 – 192 = 397

Avg. of 23 no. =397/23  = 17.26


61. Simple interest on a sum for 5 years is equal to 20% of the principal. In how many years interest will be equal to the principal?

A. 20

B. 25

C. 15

D. 16

Solution

Answer: B

Let the principal be P.

ATQ,

Now,


62. The ratio of selling price to the cost price is 13 : 17. What is the loss percentage?

A. 23.52

B. 27.74

C. 18.62

D. 19.45

Solution

Answer: A

Loss% =

=400/17

= 23.52%


63. Puneet purchases 5 dozens of oranges at the rate of Rs 120 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the rate of Rs 11.5. What is the profit (in percentage) of Puneet?

A. 18

B. 30

C. 12

D. 15

Solution

Answer: D

Cost price of one dozen = Rs.120

CP of 1 orange =120/12 = Rs. 10

SP of 1 orange = Rs. 11.5

Profit % =

=

= 15%


64. What is the simplified value of 

A. 5/√2

B. 5√2

C. 2√5

D. 2/√5

Solution

Answer: A


65. Some carpenters promised to do a job in 15 days but 3 of them were absent and remaining did the job in 20 days. What was the originalnumber of carpenters?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 12

D. 14

Solution

Answer: C

Let original number of carpenters =

Now, apply


66. A truck moves at the speed of 90 km/hr after repairing and moves at the speed of 80 km/hr before repairing. It covers x distance in 8 hoursafter repairing. How much time (in hours) will it take to cover 4x distance before repairing?

A. 48

B. 40

C. 36

D. 28

Solution

Answer: C

Distance = speed × time

 km

km

Req. time =

 = 36 hours


67. The line graph shows the number of deaths due to road accidents in a certain state. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

In which year were the number of deaths lesser than that of the previous year?

A. 2013

B. 2012

C. 2014

D. 2016

Solution

Answer: A

In 2013, 2015 & 2017

But 2015 and 2017 not in option , therefore 2013 will be the answer.


68. The line graph shows the number of deaths due to road accidents in a certain state. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

What was the difference in the number of deaths between the years 2011 and 2013?

A. 3500

B. 2000

C. 2500

D. 3000

Solution

Answer: C

Req. difference = 5000 – 2500 = 2500


69. The line graph shows the number of deaths due to road accidents in a certain state. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

The number of deaths in 2014 were greater than that in 2017 by ________.

A. 50%

B. 40%

C. 20%

D. 14.2%

Solution

Answer: C

= 20%


70. The line graph shows the number of deaths due to road accidents in a certain state. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

If on an average Rs 50 lakhs was paid as insurance for each death due to a road accident, then how much insurance was paid (in Rs crore) in the year2016?

A. 3750

B. 4750

C. 3250

D. 4250

Solution

Answer: A

Total insurance was paid = No. of death × Amount paid for each death

= 7500 × 50

= Rs. 3750 crores


71. The side of an equilateral triangle is 14 cm. Find its area (in cm2).

A. 64√3

B. 49√2

C. 64√2

D. 49√3

Solution

Answer: D

Area of an equilateral triangle


72. If the perimeter of a semi-circle is 36 cm, then find its radius (in cm).

A. 7

B. 14

C. 13

D. 26

Solution

Answer: A

Perimeter of a semicircle = πr + 2.r

ATQ,

r(π + 2) = 36

⇒ r = 7 cm.


73. Find the curved surface area (in cm2) of a right circular cylinder of diameter 28 cm and height 12 cm.

A. 968

B. 924

C. 856

D. 1056

Solution

Answer: D

Diameter of cylinder = 28 cm

∴ Radius of cylinder = 14 cm

Height of cylinder = 12 cm

CSA of cylinder = 2πrh

= 44 × 24

= 1056 cm²

Alternatively, you can get the answer without using formula by checking, which one of the options is divisible by 11.


74. What is the value of (tan30°–√3/2) ?

A. -1/2√3

B. (2√3-√6)/2√2

C. (2-√3)/2

D. 1/6

Solution

Answer: A


75. ∆DEF is right angled at E. If cotD = 5/12, then what is the value of sinF ?

A. 5/12

B. 13/5

C. 5/13

D. 13/12

Solution

Answer: C

∴ DF = 13


76. How did the Lakshadweep islands of group originate?

A. Volcanic origin

B. Soil Deposition

C. Coral origin

D. No option is correct.

Solution

Answer: C

Lakshadweep Islands are coral islands. Andaman and Nicobar Islands were formed due to collision between Indian Plate and Burma Minor Plate.


77. Use of an attractive masquerade or mask is associated with which of the following dance style?

A. Kathakali

B. Kuchipudi

C. Odissi

D. Manipuri

Solution

Answer: A

Kathakali is one of the major forms of classical Indian dance. It is a “story play” genre of art, but one distinguished by the elaborately colorful make-up, costumes and facemasks that the traditionally male actor-dancers wear.


78. The G-77 is a coalition of developing nation, what was the venue of G-77, 2017 summit?

A. Indonesia

B. Ecuador

C. South Korea

D. Argentina

Solution

Answer: B

Venue of G-77, 2017 summit was  Ecuador. The Group of 77 (G-77) was established on 15 June 1964 by seventy-seven developing countries signatories of the “Joint Declaration of the Seventy-Seven Countries” issued at the end of the first session of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) in Geneva.


79. Where was Shaheed Bhagat Singh Smarak inaugurated by Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank recently?

A. Maharashtra

B. New Delhi

C. Punjab

D. Uttar Pradesh

Solution

Answer: B

Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank Inaugurated Shaheed Bhagat Singh Smarak In New Delhi .Delhi University now has a Shaheed Bhagat Singh Smarak,which was inaugurated on the 90 years of martyrdom of Singh, Sukhdev Thapar and Shivaram Rajguru. The minister announced that the existing collection of books and freedom fighters at the smarak will be converted into‘Shahid Smriti Pustakalaya’.


80. When was Pakistan’s capital Islamabad was built?

A. In the 1940s

B. In the 1950sc

C. in the 1960s

D. No option is correct.

Solution

Answer: C

Islamabad is the capital city of Pakistan located within the federal Islamabad Capital Territory. … Islamabad was built during the 1960s to replace Karachi as Pakistan’s capital.


81. Which statement(s) is/are CORRECT regarding Dalton’s Atomic theory?

I. All matters are made of very tiny particles.

II. Atoms of different elements have different masses and chemical properties.

III. The relative number of atoms is variable in any compound.

A. Only I and II

B. Only I and III

C. Only II and III

D. All I, II and III

Solution

Answer: A

Dalton’s atomic theory proposed that all matter was composed of atoms, indivisible and indestructible building blocks. While all atoms of an element were identical, different elements had atoms of differing size and mass.


82. In a combination reaction there can be ______.

I. two or more than two reactants

II. two or more than two products

III.  only one product

A. Only I

B. Only I and III

C. Only I and II

D. Only II

Solution

Answer: B

A combination reaction (also known as a synthesis reaction) is a reaction where two or more elements or compounds (reactants) combine to form a single compound (product). Such reactions may be represented by equations of the following form: X + Y → XY.


83. Which among the following does NOT hold their office till the pleasure of President?

A. Governor of State

B. Attorney General of India

C. Chief Election Commissioner

D. Prime Minister of India

Solution

Answer: C

India has a three member election commission. These all are appointed by the President for a term which is fixed by the President. However, conditions of service and tenure of office of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioner are determined by an act of parliament titled The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Act, 1991


84. Who appoints Advocate General of State in India?

A. Governor of State

B. Chief Minister of State

C. Law Minister of State

D. No option is correct.

Solution

Answer: A

The Governor appoints the Advocate General of the state. The person who is appointed should be qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court. That means, he should be a citizen of India and should have held a judicial office for ten years or been an advocate of a high court for ten years.


85. Pancreatic juice require which medium for their action?

A. Acidic

B. Basic

C. Neutral

D. All option are correct.

Solution

Answer: B

Pancreatic juice required alkaline medium for their actions, the food coming from the stomach are acidic in nature bile juice help to make the acidic foods coming from the stomach alkaline so that pancreatic juice can digest food easily


86. Preserved traces of living organisms retained in the form of impressions of the body parts in the soil are called ______.

A. specimen

B. fossils

C. antique

D. phylogeny

Solution

Answer: B

Fossils are the remains or traces of ancient life that have been preserved by natural processes, from spectacular skeletons to tiny sea shells. Imprints, tracks and trails can also become fossilised, like dinosaur footprints or worm burrows. These are called trace fossils


87. Where did ISRO make its breakthrough demonstration of free-space Quantum Key Distribution over 300 m recently?

A. Sriharikota

B. Bengaluru

C. Kochi

D. Ahmedabad

Solution

Answer: D

In a first, ISRO made a breakthrough demonstration of free-space Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) over 300 m at Space Applications Centre, Ahmedabad.

Demonstration used indigenously developed ‘NAVIC’ receiver for time synchronisation between transmitter & receiver modules, & gimbal mechanism systems instead of bulky large- aperture telescopes for optical alignment. QKD technology underpins Quantum Communication technology. Demonstration is a step towards ISRO’s goal of demonstrating Satellite Based Quantum Communication.


88. What is the theme of 2021 World Tuberculosis Day?

A. Stop TB, fight poverty

B. It’s time

C. It’s time to end TB!

D. The Clock is Ticking

Solution

Answer: D

Each year,World Tuberculosis (TB) Day on March 24 is commemorated to raise public awareness about the devastating health,social and economic consequences of TB,and to step up efforts to end the global TB epidemic. The date marks the day in 1882 when Dr.Robert Koch announced that he had discovered the bacterium that causes TB.The theme of World TB Day 2021 – ‘The Clock is Ticking.


89. Who is to be conferred with the Vyas Samman – 2020?

A. Sharad Pagare

B. Nasira Sharmac

C. Mamta Kalia

D. Sunita Jain

Solution

Answer: A

Prof. Sharad Pagare will be conferred with the prestigious Vyas Samman – 2020 for his novel ‘Patliputru Ki Samragi.’ The Vyas Samman, started in 1991, is given by K K Birla Foundation for an outstanding literary work in Hindi authored by an Indian citizen published during the last 10 years.It carries an award of four lakh rupees along with a citation and plaque.


90. A team from which college in India became the first ever to win the CoreNet Global Academic Challenge?

A. IIT Mumbai

B. IIT Chennai

C. IIT Delhi

D. IIT Kharagpur

Solution

Answer: D

IIT Kharagpur Won CoreNet Global Academic Challenge 6.0.This is the first time a squad from India has emerged as winners in the challenge.A team of 4 UG students from IIT,Kharagpur won the challenge sponsored by Cushman and Wakefield, KI and IA: Interior Architects. The team worked on a hypothetical case on developing an environmentally resilient Corporate Real Estate Portfolio while gauging the impact of the pandemic, for Blue Banc, a fictitious financial institution based in London, England.


91. What is the heat released by a heating filament rated 20 W when it is kept on for 2 seconds?

A. 40

B. 10

C. 80

D. 20

Solution

Answer: A

Heat(H)= I2 RT

 POWER(P)= I2R

 H=P X T

 =20X2

 =40 joule


92. If the Distance-Time graph is a curve then it represents _______________.

A. uniform speed

B. constant displacement

C. uniform momentum

D. non-uniform speed

Solution

Answer: B

If the Distance-Time graph is a curve then it represents non uniform speed. The slope of distance –time graph represents its velocity.


93. The centre of a cyclone is a calm area, it is called the ________ of the storm.

A. point

B. needle

C. eye

D. limit

Solution

Answer: C

A cyclone is a low-pressure area. A cyclone’s center (often known in a mature tropical cyclone as the eye), is the area of lowest atmospheric pressure in the region


94. Which of the statements given below are correct?

A) Roger Federer won the Tennis 2017 French Open Men’s Singles.

B) In 2018 IPL auctions, Rajasthan Royals retained Steve Smith.

C) Serena Williams won the Tennis 2017 French Open Women’s Singles.

A. Only B

B. B and C

C. A and B

D. A, B and C

Solution

Answer: A

Rafael Nadal won his 10th French Open title and 15th Grand Slam singles title, defeating Stan Wawrinka in the final. Jelena Ostapenko won the 2017 French Open women’s singles title, besting Simona Halep in three sets in the final on Saturday, 4-6, 6-4, 6-3. Rajasthan Royals retained only one player Steve Smith.


95. In Microsoft Word, ____________ view shows how the document would look when it is printed.

A. Web Layout

B. Normal Layout

C. Reading Layout

D. Print Layout

Solution

Answer: D

Print Layout (or Reading Layout). This provides us with a view of the document where we can see page breaks and other features, as well as the basic character.


96. Which of following sectors does NOT come under tertiary sector?

A. Electricity

B. Business Services

C. Transportc

D. Trade

Solution

Answer: A

Secondary sector is also called as manufacturing sector or industrial sector. The manufacturing, electricity, gas, water supply etc. are included in this sector. The service sector of the economy is called tertiary sector.


97. Money in India consists of ___________.

A. paper currency

B. current deposits

C. Metallic coins

D. All options are correct.

Solution

Answer: D

Money in India consist of paper currency, current deposits, Metallic coins.


98. Which of the following items was NOT exportable in the past Gupta period?

A. Iron

B. Gold

C. Tin

D. Silver

Solution

Answer: C

Tin was not exportable in the past Gupta period .Tin come from Afganistan and Central Asia.


99. In which session of the Congress was the slogan of the Simon Commission’s boycott?

A. Calcutta Convention (1928)

B. Madras Session (1927)

C. Surat Session (1907)

D. Nagpur session (1920)

Solution

Answer: B

Madras session in 1927, presided over by Dr Ansari, in which the National Congress decided to hartals and black-flags demonstrations under the slogan ‘Simon Go Back’.


100. What is the name of the second layer of the Earth’s three concentric layers?

A. SIAL

B. SIMA

C. NIFE

D. No option is correct.

Solution

Answer: B

The continents are composed of lighter silicates—silica + aluminium (also called ‘sial’) while the oceans have the heavier silicates—silica + magnesium (also called ‘sima’). It is composed of nickel and iron. Sima is name of the second layer of the Earth’s three concentric layers.


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