SSC CPO Tier I 2025 Mock Test 2

Aptitude

1.The table below depicts the Number of Books sold by 5 cities during 5 months. Study the following table and answer the questions:

Months	CityA	CityB	CityC	CityD	CityE
June	213	200	195	253	229
July	156	208	216	187	175
August	177	197	185	181	215
September	220	145	235	265	231
october	253	188	278	243	249

What is the average number of books sold by City C in July, September and October together?

A.243

B. 242

C. 234

D. 224

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. 243.

From table

C in July = 216

C in September = 235

C in October = 278

Average = (216 + 235 + 278)/3 = 729/3 = 243

2. A rectangular parking space is marked out by painting three of its sides. If the length of the unpainted side is 9 ft, and the sum of the lengths of the painted sides is 37 ft, then what is the area of the parking space in square feet?

A. 126 ft²

B. 81 ft²

C. 252 ft²

D. 46 ft²

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 126 ft².

Let the length of the parking space be l and the width be w.

Given that,

The unpainted side is one of the lengths, so l = 9 ft.

The lengths of the three painted sides are 37 ft, which consists of two widths and one length.

Therefore, the equation for the painted sides = l + 2w = 37

Put l = 9

⇒ 9 + 2w = 37

⇒ 2w = 28

⇒ w = 14

Now, the area of the parking space

⇒ Area = l × w

⇒ 9 × 14 = 126 ft²

Thus, the area of the parking space is 126 square feet.

3. If tan x = 3/4, then what is the value of (sin 2x)/(cos 3x)?

A. 14/11

B. -15/11

C. 24/11

D. -30/11

Solutions

Answer: -30/11

4. A watch is sold at a profit of 20%. If both the cost price and selling price are reduced by Rs.100, then the profit would be 5% more. Find the original cost price of the watch.

A. Rs.550

B. Rs.450

C. Rs.600

D. Rs.500

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Rs.500.

Let the original cost price of the watch be Rs.x

The watch is sold at a profit of 20%,

So, the original selling price(S₁) = x + 20% of x

⇒ x + 0.2x = 1.2x

When both the cost price and selling price are reduced by Rs. 100

⇒ New cost price(C₂) = x – 100

⇒ New selling price(S₂) = 1.2x – 100

We are told that the new profit percentage is 5% more than the original profit, = 20% + 5% = 25%

Thus, the new selling price(S₂) gives a profit of 25%,

⇒ S₂ = C₂ + 25% of C₂

⇒ C₂ + 0.25 C₂

⇒ 1.25 C₂

Now, put C₂ = x – 100 into eq S₂

⇒ 1.2x – 100 = 1.25(x – 100)

⇒ 1.2x – 100 = 1.25x -125

⇒ -0.05x = -25

⇒ x = -25/-0.05

⇒ x = 500

Thus, the original cost price of the watch is Rs. 500.

5. Simplify: 0.3 + 24.3 ÷ 0.81 of 0.3 – 0.09

A. 10.21

B. 100.21

C. 1.21

D. 1000.21

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 100.21.

Using BODMAS

⇒ 0.3 + 24.3 ÷ 0.81 of 0.3 – 0.09

⇒ 0.3 + 24.3 ÷ 0.243 – 0.09

⇒ (0.3 + 100) – 0.09

⇒ (100.3 – 0.09) = 100.21

6. Find the greatest number that will divide 115, 149 and 183 leaving remainders 3, 5, 7 respectively.

A. 18

B. 20

C. 14

D. 16

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 16.

We need to adjust the numbers by subtracting the respective remainders

⇒ 115 – 3 = 112

⇒ 149 – 5 = 144

⇒ 183 – 7 = 176

The greatest number that will divide, 112, 144, and 176 will be its H.C.F

⇒ H.C.F(112, 144, and 176) = 16

7. Two men can do the same amount of work as three women. Also, a woman can do equal work as 2 boys. If 15 men can complete a work in 10 days, in how many days will 5 women and 6 boys do the same work?

A. 25.125

B. 32.675

C. 30.675

D. 28.125

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 28.125.

Let the number of men, women, and boys be m, w, and b.

According to the question,

⇒ 2m = 3w and w = 2b

Ratio of efficiency (m : w : b) = 3 : 2 : 1

Work done by 15 men in 10 days = (15 × 10 × 3) = 450

Work done by 5 women and 6 boys in 1 day = (5 × 2 + 6 × 1) = 16

Required number of days = 450/16 = 28.125

8. Pipes A and C can fill an empty cistern in 32 and 48 hours, respectively while Pipe B can drain the filled cistern in 24 hours. If the three pipes are turned on together when the cistern is empty, how many hours will it take for the cistern to be 2/3 full?

A. 96

B. 64

C. 48

D. 72

Solutions

Answer: Option 2 — 64 hours

9. In a 1 km race, P completes the race in 120 seconds and Q in 125 seconds. The distance by which P beats Q is:

A. 40 metres

B. 80 metres

C. 20 metres

D. 60 metres

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e 40 metres

Given that

The length of the racing track = 1000 m

P completes the race in 120 seconds and Q in 125 seconds

Speed = Distance/time

⇒Time difference = 125 – 120 = 5 sec

⇒Q covers 1000 m in 125 sec = 1000/125 = 8 m/s

Hence,The distance by which P beats Q is = 8 × 5 = 40 m.

10. A train of length 180 m takes 40 seconds to cross a tunnel of length 500 m. What is the speed of the train (in km/h)?

A. 71.2

B. 61.2

C. 80.5

D. 52.5

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 61.2.

The length of the train = 180 m

The length of the tunnel = 500 m

Time taken to cross the tunnel = 40 seconds

Speed of train = (Length of train + Length of tunnel)/Time

Total distance = Length of train + Length of tunnel = 180 + 500 = 680 m

Hence the speed of train is 61.2 km/hr.

11. The average weight of 40 students of a school is 52 kg. If the weight of the teacher is included, the average weight rises by 500 grams. Find the weight (in kg) of the teacher.

A. 71.5

B. 73.5

C. 74.5

D. 72.5

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4. i.e. 72.5.

Given that

The average weight of 40 students of a school is 52 kg

After including the teacher the average weight of 41 members increased by 500 grams

We know that,

New average weight = Old average weight + Net members × increased weight

New average weight = 52 + 41 × 0.5 = 72.5 kg

12. What is the value of x, if 3 : 8 :: x : 12?

A. 9

B. 5/2

C. 5

D. 9/2

Solutions

Calculations:

When the numbers are in proportion;

a : b :: c : d

Then, a/b = c/d

According to the question;

⇒ 3/8 = x/12

⇒ 3/2 = x/3

⇒ x = 9/2

13. What is the maturity value of Rs.25000 at the end of 2 years at 9.25% Simple Interest?

A. Rs.29625

B. Rs.30225

C. Rs.29250

D. Rs.28000

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Rs.29625.

To find the maturity value using Simple Interest,

Maturity Value = Principal + Interest

And,

Interest = Principal × Rate × Time

Now,

Interest = 25000 × 9.25/100 × 2

⇒ 25000 × 0.0925 × 2

⇒ 25000 × 0.185

⇒ 4625

Now, add the interest to the principal to find the maturity value

Maturity Value = 25000 + 4625 = 29625

The maturity value of Rs. 25,000 at the end of 2 years at 9.25% Simple Interest is Rs. 29,625

14. In an election between three candidates, Arjun, Bhaskar and Saral contested for a post. Arjun got 50% votes more than Saral, and Saral got 2% votes less than Bhaskar. The difference between the votes of Bhaskar and Saral is 1296. What is the half of the difference between the votes of Arjun and Bhaskar?

A. 3888

B. 13988

C. 7766

D. 15228

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 15228.

Given:

Arjun got 50% more votes than Saral, and Saral got 2% fewer votes than Bhaskar

The difference between the votes of Bhaskar and Saral is 1296

Calculations:

Let the number of votes of Bhaskar be 100x

So, the number of votes of Saral is 98x

Votes of Arjun = 98x + 98x/2 = 147x

According to the question;

⇒ 100x – 98x = 1296

⇒ 2x = 1296

⇒ x = 648

Now, the difference between Arjun’s votes and Bhaskar’s votes = 147x – 100x

⇒ 47x = 47 × 648 = 30456

Hence, the required value = 30456/2 = 15228

15. Two circles touch each other externally at P. AB is a direct common tangent to the two circles. If A and B are points of contact and PAB = 65°, then ABP is:

A. 35°

B. 15°

C. 5°

D. 25°

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 25°.

Given:

Two circles touch each other externally at P.

AB is a direct common tangent to the two circles, A and B are points of contact, and ∠PAB = 65°

Concept used:

If two circles touch each other externally at some point and a direct common tangent is drawn to both circles, the angle subtended by the direct common tangent at the point where two circles touch each other is 90°.

According to the concept, ∠APB = 90°

Considering ΔΑΡΒ,

⇒ ∠ABP = 90°- ∠PAB

⇒ 90°- 65° = 25°

So, ∠ABP = 25°

16. Expand (x/3 + y/5)³ :

A. x³/25 + x²y/15 + xy²/25 + y³/125

B. x³/27 + x²y/25 + xy²/25 + y³/125

C. x³/27 + x²y/15 + xy²/25 + y³/125

D. x³/27 + xy/15 + xy²/25 + y³/125

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. x³/27 + x²y/15 + xy²/25 + y³/125

(x/3 + y/5)³

By using the identity,

(a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b)

⇒ (x/3 + y/5)³ = (x/3)³ + (y/5)³ + 3(x/3)(y/5)(x/3 + y/5)

⇒ x³/27 + y³/125 + (xy/5)((5x + 3y)/15)

⇒ x³/27 + y³/125 + x²y/15 + xy²/25

17. In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix two types of rice worth ₹55 per kg and ₹70 per kg, so that the average cost of the mixture is ₹65 per kg?

A. 1 : 2

B. 2 : 3

C. 3 : 2

D. 1 : 3

Solutions

Given:

Two types of rice worth ₹55 per kg and ₹70 per kg are mixed to get the mixture worth ₹65 per kg.

Calculations:

Let the quantity of first type of rice be x and second type of rice be y.

According to the question;

⇒ 55x + 70y = 65(x + y)

⇒ 55x + 70y = 65x + 65y

⇒ 10x = 5y

⇒ x/y = 1/2

Hence, the required ratio = 1 : 2

18.The table below depicts the Number of Books sold by 5 cities during 5 months. Study the following table and answer the questions:

Months	CityA	CityB	CityC	CityD	CityE
June	213	200	195	253	229
July	156	208	216	187	175
August	177	197	185	181	215
September	220	145	235	265	231
october	253	188	278	243	249

What is the respective ratio between the total number of books sold by City A in July and September together and the total number of books sold by City E in August and October together?

A. 57 : 49

B. 49 : 57

C. 58 : 47

D. 47 : 58

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 47 : 58.

We pick data from the table,

A in (July + sept) = 156 + 220 = 376

E in (Aug + oct) = 215 + 249 = 464

Ratio = 376 : 464 = 47 : 58

19. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 440 cm². The base circumference is 44 cm. What is its volume?

A. 1240 cm³

B. 3050 cm³

C. 1540 cm³

D. 710 cm³

Solutions

Correct Answer: 3) 1540 cm³

20. Two ships C and D move towards a lighthouse from the opposite sides. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse from ships C and D are 60° and 30°. If C and D are 200 m away, then what is the height of the lighthouse? (in m)

A. 75/√3

B. 50√3

C. 100√3

D. 150

Solutions

Correct Answer: Option (2) 50√3 meters

21. By how much above cost price should an article be marked so as to gain 17% even after allowing a 22% discount?

A. 45%

B. 28%

C. 35%

D. 50%

Solutions

Let the C.P. be Rs.100

The article is sold at a 22% discount on the marked price, so the Selling Price (SP) becomes:

S.P. = M.P. – (22% × M.P.)

⇒ S.P. = 78% × M.P……(1)

To gain a profit of 17%

⇒ S.P. = C.P. + 17% × C.P.

⇒ S.P. = 100 + 17

⇒ S.P. = 117

From equation 1

⇒ 78% × M.P. = 117

⇒ M.P. = 117 × 100/78

⇒ M.P. = Rs.150

It is Rs. 50 greater than C.P.

So,

Require percentage = 50/100 × 100 = 50%

22. Arrange the following fraction in ascending order:

5/6, 4/9, 3/2 and 4/3

A. 4/3 < 4/9 < 5/6 < 3/2

B. 4/9 < 5/6 < 4/3 < 3/2

C. 4/9 < 4/3 < 3/2 < 5/6

D. 3/2 < 4/9 < 4/3 < 5/6

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 4/9 < 5/6 < 4/3 < 3/2.

5/6, 4/9, 3/2 and 4/3

Take the LCM of the denominator

LCM of 6, 9, 2, and 3 = 18

Divide by each and multiply the result in numerators of fractions

18/6 = 3 (i) 5/6 = 5(N) × 3(R) = 15

18/9 = 2 (ii) 4/9 = 4(N) × 2(R) = 8

18/2 = 9 (iii) 3/2 = 3(N) × 9(R) = 27

18/3 = 6 (iv) 4/3 = 4(N) × 6(R) = 24

Now, arrange 8 < 15 < 24 < 27 = 4/9 < 5/6 < 4/3 < 3/2

23. A speedboat, whose speed in 20 km/h in still water, goes 35 km downstream and comes back in a total of 8 hours. What is the speed of the stream?

A. 20 km/h

B. 10 km/h

C. 15 km/h

D. 5 km/h

Solutions

Correct Answer: Option (3) 15 km/h

24. In a factory, 48% of the number of male workers is equal to two-thirds of the number of female workers. What is the ratio of the number of males to that of the females in the factory?

A. 25 : 12

B. 12 : 25

C. 18 : 25

D. 25 : 18

Solutions

Correct Answer: Option (4) 25 : 18

25. The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 12.5% rate is Rs.45. What is the sum?

A. Rs.2440

B. Rs.2000

C. Rs.2880

D. Rs.3000

Solutions

SI = (P× R × T) / 100 where P is the principal, R is the rate of interest, and T is the time period.

SI = (P × 12.5 × 2) / 100 = 0.25 × P

CI = P × (1 + R/100)TT – P

CI = P × (1 + 12.5/100)22 – P = 0.265625 × P

CI – SI = 45

0.265625 × P – 0.25 × P = 45

0.015625 × P = 45

P = 45 / 0.015625 = Rs. 2880

Therefore, the sum is Rs. 2880.

26. If x% of 280 is equal to the 15% of 240 + 20% of 310, then the value of x is:

A. 38

B. 35

C. 30

D. 40

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 35.

⇒ x% of 280 = 15% of 240 + 20% of 310

⇒ x/100 × 280 = 15/100 × 240 + 20/100 × 310

⇒ 14x/5 = 36 + 62

⇒ 14x = 180 + 310

⇒ x = 490/14

⇒ x = 35

27. The distance between the centres of two circles of radii 2cm and 6cm is 5 cm. Find the length of the direct common tangent.

A. 6 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 5/2 cm

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 3 cm

Given that

The radius of a small circle (r) = 2 cm

The radius of a big circle (R) = 6 cm

The distance between circles (D) = 5 cm

Formula used

Direct common tangent (DCT)² = D² – (R -r)²

Calculation

(DCT)² = 5²– (6 – 2)²

⇒ (DCT)² = 25 – 16

⇒ (DCT)² = 9

⇒ DCT = 3 cm

28. If x² + 1/x² = 23 then find the value of x⁴ + 1/x⁴.

A. 120

B. 508

C. 531

D. 527

Solutions

Correct Answer: Option (4) 527

29. The table below depicts the Number of Books sold by 5 cities during 5 months. Study the following table and answer the questions:

Months	City A	City B	City C	City D	City E
June	213	200	195	253	229
July	156	208	216	187	175
August	177	197	185	181	215
September	220	145	235	265	231
october	253	188	278	243	249

If 30% of the total number of books sold by City B, D and E together in July were academic books, how many non-academic books were sold by the cities together in the same month?

A. 379

B. 389

C. 399

D. 309

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 399.

We pick data from the table,

(B + D + E) in July = 208 + 187 + 175 = 570

Given that 30% are academic books

Non academic books = (100 – 30)% = 70%

70% of 570 = (570/100) 70 = 399

30. The volume and height of a right-angled cone are 8800 cm³and 21 cm respectively. If the radius of a sphere is 9 less than the slant height of the cone, then find the volume of the sphere.

A. 37890.81 cm³

B. 33570.5 cm³

C.33523.8 cm³

D. None of these

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 33523.8 cm³.

According to the question,

Volume of cone = 1/3 πr²h

⇒ 1/3 × 22/7 × r² × 21 = 8800

⇒ r = √400 = 20 cm

By triplet (20, 21, 29)

Slant height = 29 cm

Radius of sphere = (29 – 9) = 20 cm

Volume of sphere = 4/3πr³

4/3 × 22/7 × 20³ = 33523.8 cm³

31. If SinACosB + CosASinB = 0, find the value of B, if A = 30º.

A. 30º

B. 60º

C. 120º

D. 150º

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 150º.

If SinA = 0

A = nπ

where n is integers.

Sin(A + B) = SinACosB + CosASinB

Given, A = 30º

SinACosB + CosASinB = 0

i.e Sin(A + B) = 0

If Sin(A + B) = 0

A + B = nπ

Where n = 0, 1, 2 ….

A + B = 0, 180, 360,……..

Let we take

A + B = 180º

30º + B = 180º

B = 150º

32. A businessman took five quintals of fruit for selling in Patna Market. He bought fruits for Rs 200 per quintal and his transportation cost for bringing them out in the market is Rs 250. He marked up 20% above the total cost price and he gave a 5% discount on the marked price. Find the gain% of businessmen per quintal of fruits.

A. 16%

B. 14%

C. 20%

D. 18%

Solutions

33.

A. 42

B. -42

C. -34

D. 34

Solutions

34. Sudhin cycled at 8.5 km/h for 4 hours, then took an auto and traveled at 20 km/h for 1.5 hours, and then walked at 4 km/h for y hours. If Sudhin’s overall average speed for the entire journey was 10 km/h, what is the value of y?

A. 2

B. 1.25

C. 1.5

D. 1.75

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 1.5.

We know that,

Average speed = Total distance/Total time

Total distance covered,

⇒ 8.5 × 4 + 20 × 1.5 + 4 × y

= 64 + 4y

Total time taken,

⇒ 4 + 1.5 + y

= 5.5 + y

As per the question,

⇒ (64 + 4y)/(5.5 + y) = 10

⇒ 64 + 4y = 55 + 10y

⇒ 6y = 9

⇒ y = 1.5 hr

35. If A is 95% of B, then what per cent of A is B?

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e.

A is 95% of B

⇒ A = 95% × B

⇒ A/B = 95/100 = 19/20

⇒ A/B = 19/20

⇒ A = 19B/20

Now, Required percentage = [B/19B/20] × 100 = 20/19 × 100 =

36. In a triangle, ABC, D, and E are two points on the sides AB and AC respectively so DE || BC and AD/BD = 4/5. The ratio of the area of ΔABC to the area of trapezium DECB is?

A. 40 : 49

B. 81 : 65

C. 65 : 49

D. 49 : 23

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 81 : 65.

If all three angles of 2 triangles are equal, then these two triangles are similar triangles.

And

(Area of triangle₁/Area of triangle₂) = (Side₁²/Side₂²)

Given

DE ||BC, and AD/BD = 4/5

Since DE || BC, all three angles of triangle ADE and ABC are equal.

Hence, triangles ADE and ABC are similar triangles.

Area of ∆ADE/Area of ∆ABC = (AD/AB)²

⇒ Area of ∆ADE/Area of ∆ABC = [4/(4 + 5)]² = 16 : 81

In the figure:

Area of trapezium DECB = Area of ∆ABC – Area of ∆ADE

(Area of ∆ABC) : (Area of trapezium ACED)

⇒ 81 : (81 – 16)

⇒ 81 : 65

37. In a shop, the total price of 3 shoes and 5 shirts comes out to be Rs. 5550, and the total price of 6 shirts and 10 shoes is Rs. 12100. Find the difference in the price of 1 shoe and 1 shirt.

A. Rs. 200

B. Rs. 150

C. Rs. 300

D. Rs. 250

Solutions

Correct Answer: (4) ₹250

38. Study the following Bar-chart and the data provided to answer the questions that follow: Sales of 3-different companies selling T-Shirts for the years from 2006 to 2009 are given.

How much percentage of sales decreased for Brand X T-shirt in 2009 compared with 2007?

A. 25.71%

B. 24%

C. 11.11%

D. 25%

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. 25.71%. ✅

Given that

The sales of Brand X in 2009 = 780

The sales of Brand X in 2007 = 1050

According to the question

The percentage decrease in sales of Brand X from 2007 to 2009 = [(1050 – 780)/1050] × 100

= 25.71%

39. The total surface area of a cube is 8712 cm². What is the length of its biggest diagonal (in cm)?

A. 58

B. 66

C. 63

D. 69

Solutions

Answer: 66 cm

40. If for some acute angle A ≠ 0, tan 3A = 4tan A, then what is the value of tan A?

A. 1/√3

B. 1/√5

C. 1/√7

D. 1/√11

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 1/√11.

tan 3A = (3tan A – tan³A)/(1 – 3tan²A)

tan 3A = 4 tan A

⇒ (3tan A – tan³A)/(1 – 3tan²A) = 4 tan A

⇒ tan A (3 – tan²A)/(1 – 3tan²A) = 4 tan A

⇒ (3 – tan²A)/(1 – 3 tan²A) = 4

⇒ 3 – tan²A = 4 – 12 tan²A

⇒ 11 tan²A = 1

⇒ tan A = 1/√11

41. The marked price of a flower is Rs.185 and the selling price of the flower is Rs.150. Find discount percentage.

A. 18.91%

B. 19.81%

C. 14.65%

D. 13.21%

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 18.91%.

M.P. = Rs.185

S.P. = Rs.150

We know that,

Discount = Marked Price – Selling Price

Discount = 185 – 150 = Rs.35

Discount Percentage = (Discount/Marked price) × 100

Discount % = (35/185) × 100 = 18.91%

42. Which of the following is not the correct representation of 455% in fraction form?

D. All of them

Solutions

So certainly option 2 is our answer.

43. In the figure given below, O is the center of the circle of radius 9 cm. From a point P (OP = 15 cm), two tangents PA and PB are drawn to the circle. What is the value of (PA + PB)²?

A. 225

B. 441

C. 576

D. 625

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 576.

OA ⊥ PA [∵ Tangent ⊥ Radius]

PO² = PA² + OA²[∵ Pythagoras theorem]

15² = PA² + 9²

225 = PA² + 81

∴ PA = 12 cm

PB = PA = 12 cm [∵ Lengths of pair of tangents drawn from same external points are equal]

∴ (PA + PB)² = 24²

⇒ 576

44. Study the following line graph and answer the questions based on it. The line graph represents ratio of Imports and Exports of two companies A and B over the years.

In how many years, the import is more than the export of Company B?

A. 3

B. 1

C. 4

D. 2

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 2.

Given that

The ratio of Imports and Exports company B in 2011 = 1 : 1

The ratio of Imports and Exports company B in 2012 = 3 : 3

The ratio of Imports and Exports company B in 2013 = 5 : 4

The ratio of Imports and Exports company B in 2014 = 1 : 1

The ratio of Imports and Exports company B in 2015 = 7 : 3

Hence, the import is more than the export of Company B in 2013 and 2015 i.e 2

45. The inner radius of an inner hemi-spherical vat is 21 cm. This vat is filled with the help of small cylindrical bottles. If the radius of the base of the bottle is 7/2 cm and the height by 12 cm, then how many bottles are required to fill it?

A. 42

B. 36

C. 44

D. 48

Solutions

Answer: 42

46. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

345 ÷ 15 + 450 ÷ 45 = ? – 110% of 30

A. 66

B. 0

C. 33

D. 11

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. 66.

345 ÷ 15 + 450 ÷ 45 = ? – 110% of 30

⇒ 23 + 10 = ? – 33

⇒ ? = 66

47. Study the following line graph and answer the questions based on it. The line graph represents ratio of Imports and Exports of two companies A and B over the years.

In how many years, the export is more than the import of Company A?

A. 2

B. 0

C. 1

D. 3

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 0.

Given that

The ratio of Imports and Exports company A in 2011 = 3 : 2

The ratio of Imports and Exports company A in 2012 = 5 : 4

The ratio of Imports and Exports company A in 2013 = 5 : 1

The ratio of Imports and Exports company A in 2014 = 3 : 2

The ratio of Imports and Exports company A in 2015 = 7 : 1

Hence, the export is more than the import of company A in none of the year i.e. 0

48. Solve the following:

A. -3

B. -4

C. 3

D. 6

Solutions

49. Study the following Bar-chart and the data provided to answer the questions that follow: Sales of 3-different companies selling T-Shirts for the years from 2006 to 2009 are given.

What percent of the total T-shirts sold by brand Y were T-shirts of brand Z in 2009? (correct to two decimal places)

A. 29.27%

B. 52.54%

C. 27.56%

D. 36.34%

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 27.56%.

Given that

The total sale of Brand Y T-shirt = 1020+ 890 + 1180 + 980 = 4070

The sale of Brand Z T-shirt in 2009 = 1120

According to the question

The required percentage = (1120/4070) × 100 = 27.56%

50. 23 − [24 − {25 − (26 − 27 − 28)}] =?

A. -54

B. -53

C. 53

D. 54

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 53.

23 − [24 − {25 − (26 − 27 − 28)}] = ?

⇒ 23 − [24 − {25 − (26 − 55)}] = ?

⇒ 23 − [24 − {25 − (− 29)}] = ?

⇒ 23 − [24 − {25 + (29)}] = ?

⇒ 23 − [24 − {54}] = ?

⇒ 23 − [− 30] = ?

⇒ ? = 23 + 30

⇒ ? = 53

Reasoning

51. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Solutions

The mirror image of the given letter/ number as shown below.

Thus, the correct option is: (b)

52. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some devices are electronics.

II. All electronics are mobiles.

III. No mobile is a phone.

Conclusions:

(I) : No phone is a device.

(II) : At least some electronics are phones.

A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Solutions

Statements:

I. Some devices are electronics.

II. All electronics are mobiles.

III. No mobile is a phone.

From the given statements Venn diagram will be:

Conclusions:

(I) : No phone is a device. (Not follows, because there could be devices that are phones, as the statement does not say that no device is a phone.)

(II) : At least some electronics are phones. (Not follows, because according to the given statements, electronics cannot be phones.)

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Thus, correct option is (c).

53. Select the missing characters from the given responses.

BADC : FHEG :: NPMO : ?

A. RQTS

B. NTRC

C. TRQS

D. RTQS

Solutions

Given: BADC : FHEG :: NPMO : ?

Logic: Each letter increased by + 4 places in English alphabet.

In BADC → FHEG

B +4 = F
A +4 = E
D +4 = H
C +4 = G

Applying the same logic to NPMO : ?
N +4 = R
P +4 = T
M +4 = Q
O +4 = S

Therefore, NPMO → RTQS

Thus, the correct option is (d) RTQS

54. In a code language, ‘KIRAT’ is coded as 50-40-85-0-95 and ‘WASIM’ is coded as 110-0-90-40-60. How will ‘MRINAL’ be coded in the same language?

A. 85-40-50-75-0-65

B. 55-60-45-65-0-85

C. 75-50-60-55-0-65

D. 60-85-40-65-0-55

Solutions

Given:

KIRAT → 50-40-85-0-95, WASIM → 110-0-90-40-60

MRINAL → ?

Logic: (Alphabet Position × 5) – 5

KIRAT → 50-40-85-0-95

K (11): 11 × 5 – 5 = 55 – 5 = 50

I (9): 9 × 5 – 5 = 45 – 5 = 40

R (18): 18 × 5 – 5 = 90 – 5 = 85

T (20): 20 × 5 – 5 = 100 – 5 = 95

WASIM → 110-0-90-40-60

W (23): 23 × 5 – 5 = 115 – 5 = 110

A (1): 1 × 5 – 5 = 5 – 5 = 0

S (19): 19 × 5 – 5 = 95 – 5 = 90

I (9): 9 × 5 – 5 = 45 – 5 = 40

M (13): 13 × 5 – 5 = 65 – 5 = 60

Similarly,

MRINAL → ?

M (13): 13 × 5 – 5 = 65 – 5 = 60

R (18): 18 × 5 – 5 = 90 – 5 = 85

I (9): 9 × 5 – 5 = 45 – 5 = 40

N (14): 14 × 5 – 5 = 70 – 5 = 65

A (1): 1 × 5 – 5 = 5 – 5 = 0

L (12): 12 × 5 – 5 = 60 – 5 = 55

So, MRINAL → 60 – 85 – 40 – 65 – 0 – 55

Thus, the correct option is: (d)

55. A transparent sheet with a pattern is given below. Select the option that depicts the pattern that would appear when the given transparent sheet is folded at the middle vertical line.

Solutions

The given transparent sheet is folded at the middle vertical line picture will be:

Thus, the correct option is: (c)

56. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on theEnglish alphabetical order?

CEA, GIE, KMI, OQM, ?

A. SUQ

B. RUQ

C. USQ

D. SVQ

Solutions

Given: CEA, GIE, KMI, OQM, ?

Logic: Letters are increasing + 4 place.

C + 4 → G, G + 4 → K, K + 4 → O, O + 4 → S

E + 4 → I, I + 4 → M, M + 4 → Q, Q + 4 → U

A + 4 → E, E + 4 → I, I + 4 → M, M + 4 → Q

So, the missing term is SUQ.

Thus, correct option is (a).

57. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

228 B 5 C 89 D 328 A 4 = ?

A. 1774

B. 1174

C. 1147

D. 1474

Solutions

Given: 228 B 5 C 89 D 328 A 4

Alphabets	A	B	C	D
Sign	÷	×	+	–

After putting the sign in the given equation will be:
? = 228 × 5 + 89 – 328 ÷ 4

? =228 × 5 + 89 – 82

? = 1140 + 89 – 82

? = 1229 – 82

? = 1147

Thus, the correct option is (c) 1147.

58. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different.

Pick the odd one out.

(NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)

A. GHDV

B. LMIQ

C. STPJ

D. NOPQ

Solutions

Now, let’s check each option:

a) GHDV:

G + 1 = H

D + V = 4 + 22 = 26

b) LMIQ:

L + 1 = M

I + Q = 9 + 17 = 26

c) STPJ:

S + 1 = T

P + J = 16 + 10 = 26

d) NOPQ:

N + 1 = O

P + Q = 16 + 17 = 33 ≠ 26

So, odd one out is option (d).

59. In a code language, ‘SERIES’ is coded as 87 and ‘DISMAY’ is coded as 91. How will ‘SPRINT’ be coded in the same language?

A. 66

B. 52

C. 57

D. 71

Solutions

Logic: Sum of reverse alphabetical values of the letters.
SERIES → 87

8 + 22 + 9 + 18 + 22 + 8 = 87
DISMAY → 91
23 + 18 + 8 + 14 + 26 + 2 = 91
Similarly,
SPRINT → ?

8 + 11 + 9 + 18 + 13 + 7 = 66

So, SPRINT → 66

Thus, the correct option is: (a)

60. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only C sits between G and E. E sits third to the left of F. D sits to the immediate left of F. B is not an immediate neighbour of E. Who sits second to the right of A?

A. D

B. C

C. F

D. B

Solutions

Given:

A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
Only C sits between G and E.
E sits third to the left of F.
D sits to the immediate left of F.
B is not an immediate neighbour of E.

According to the given information, Seating arrangements will be:

F sits second to the right of A.

Thus, the correct option is (c) F

61. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(112, 56, 8)
(196, 98, 14)

A. (294, 147, 21)

B. (294, 147, 19)

C. (294, 149, 21)

D. (292, 147, 21)

Solutions

Given:

(112, 56, 8)
(196, 98, 14)
Logic: First number ÷ 2 =Second number and Second number ÷ 7 = third number
(112, 56, 8)

112÷ 2 =56 ; 56÷ 7 =8
(196, 98, 14)

196÷ 2 = 98 ; 98÷ 7 = 14

Option A: (294, 147, 21)

294 ÷ 2 = 147

147 ÷ 7 = 21
Follows the same pattern

Option B: (294, 147, 19)

294 ÷ 2 = 147

147 ÷ 7 = 21 ≠ 19

Option C: (294, 149, 21)

294 ÷ 2 = 147

149 is not half of 294

Option D: (292, 147, 21)

292 ÷ 2 = 146 ≠ 147

147 is not half of 292

Thus, the correct option is: (a) (294, 147, 21)

62. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

9, 45, 225, 1125, 5625, ?

A. 4679

B. 2799

C. 7689

D. 28125

Solutions

Given: 9, 45, 225, 1125, 5625, ?

Logic: Each number is multiply by 5 = next number.

9 × 5 = 45

45 × 5 = 225

225 × 5 = 1125

1125 × 5 = 5625

So, the next number will be:

5625 × 5 = 28125

Answer: Thus, the correct option is (d) 28125.

63. Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given triad of numbers.
(4,16,60)
(2, 4, 6)

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

A. 5, 25, 125

B. 3, 9, 24

C. 8, 56, 448

D. 7, 49, 42

Solutions

Given: (5, 25, 120)

5 × 5 = 25

5 × 5 × 5 = 125 → 125 – 5 = 120

(2, 4, 6)

2 × 2 = 4

2 × 2 × 2 = 8 → 8 – 2 = 6

Logic:

2nd = 1st × 1st

3rd = 1st × 1st × 1st – 1st

Now check the options:

a) 5, 25, 125

5 × 5 = 25

5 × 5 × 5 =125→ 125 – 3 = 120

Incorrect

b) 6, 36, 210

6 × 6 = 36

6 × 6 × 6 = 216 → 216 – 6 = 210
Correct

c) 4, 8, 64

4 × 4 = 16 (they gave 8)
Incorrect

d) 3, 6, 24

3 × 3 = 9 (they gave 6)
Incorrect

Thus, correct option is (b).

64. In a certain code language,
‘A+ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘B is the sister of A’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’
Based on the above, how is L related to K if ‘N x M − K ÷ L + P’?

A. Mother

B. Father

C. Brother

D. Son

Solutions

Given:
‘A+ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’

‘A – B’ means ‘B is the sister of A’

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’

N × M − K ÷ L + P

From the given information Family tree will be

65. Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series?

324, 289, 256, 225, ?

A. 180

B. 200

C. 169

D. 196

Solutions

Given: 324, 289, 256, 225, ?

Logic: Each number is the square of a decreasing number.

324 = 18²

289 = 17²

256 = 16²

225 = 15²

Similarly;

14² = 196

Thus, correct option is (d).

66. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Solutions

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below:

Thus, the correct option is (b)

67. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(38, 31, 47)

(42, 35, 51)

A. (33, 24, 30)

B. (29, 21, 39)

C. (54, 47, 63)

D. (46, 40, 49)

Solutions

Step 1: Analyze the first set

(38, 31, 47)

Let’s look at how the numbers may relate:

Is the third number related to the first two?

Try:
→ 38 – 7 = 31
→ 38 + 9 = 47
→ So, 38 – 7 = 31 and 38 + 9 = 47

So, possibly:
Middle = First – 7
Third = First + 9

Let’s confirm this with the second set.

Step 2: Analyze the second set

(42, 35, 51)
→ 42 – 7 = 35
→ 42 + 9 = 51

Same pattern!

Step 3: Apply same logic to options

We are looking for a set where:
Second = First – 7
Third = First + 9

Option A: (33, 24, 30)

→ 33 – 7 = 26 not 24
→ 33 + 9 = 42 not 30
Incorrect

Option B: (29, 21, 39)

→ 29 – 7 = 22 not 21
→ 29 + 9 = 38 not 39
Incorrect

Option C: (54, 47, 63)

→ 54 – 7 = 47
→ 54 + 9 = 63
Correct

Option D: (46, 40, 49)

→ 46 – 7 = 39 not 40
→ 46 + 9 = 55 not 49
Incorrect

Answer: Option C — (54, 47, 63)

68. Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ? # : VXB :: ACG : %

A. # – GIM, % – KMQ

B. # – UVN, % – KMQ

C. # – UWA, % – BDH

D. # – HDN, % – BDH

Solutions

We are given:
# : VXB :: ACG : %
We need to identify the same pattern on both sides of the analogy.

Step 1: Determine the pattern from ACG → %
Let’s convert letters to their positions in the alphabet:
A = 1, C = 3, G = 7
Try adding +1 to each:
A + 1 = B
C + 1 = D
G + 1 = H
So, ACG → BDH by adding 1 to each letter
Thus, % = BDH

Now check which options have % = BDH:
Option C: % = BDH
Option D: % = BDH
(A & B have KMQ )

Step 2: Determine the pattern from # → VXB
We know V = 22, X = 24, B = 2
Now reverse by subtracting 1 (if assuming pattern is -1 per letter):
V (22) – 1 = U (21)
X (24) – 1 = W (23)
B (2) – 1 = A (1)
So, # = UWA
This fits the same pattern of shifting each letter by +1 or -1

Step 3: Match with options
Option C:
= UWA, % = BDH

69. Five players (A, B, C, D, and E) are fielding on a cricket ground in such a way that all are equidistant from each other. B is to the East of A, while C is to the South of A. If D is to the East of C and to the West of E, then what is the position of B with respect to E?

A. East

B. North-West

C. South-East

D. South

Solutions

1. Given:

B is to the East of A
C is to the South of A

So, place A at the center.

Then:

B is directly to the East of A
C is directly to the South of A

That puts A, B, and C in a sort of T-formation.

2. D is:

to the East of C → Move right from C
and to the West of E → E is to the right of D

So final order from left to right:
C → D → E

3. Find position of B with respect to E.

We have:

B is East of A
E is East of D, which is East of C, which is South of A

So E is southeast of A
B is directly east of A

Now from E’s point of view, B is:

North (because E is south of A)
West (because E is east of A)

So B is in the North-West direction from E.

Correct Answer: B) North-West

70. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the classes given here?

Dog, Cat, Pet

Solutions

Given: Dog, Cat, Pet

From the given words Venn diagram will be:

All Dogs are Pets

All Cats are Pets

But not all Pets are Dogs or Cats (could be fish, rabbit, etc.)

So, Dog and Cat are subsets of Pet in the Venn diagram.

Thus, the correct option is (c).

71. In a code language, ‘BROWN’ is coded as DTMYP and ‘PLACE’ is coded as RNYEG. How will ‘RIGHT’ be coded in the same language?

A. TKEJV

B. TKFJV

C. TKEJU

D. TKIJV

Solutions

1. Analyze BROWN → DTMYP

| B → D | +2
| R → T | +2
| O → M | -2
| W → Y | +2
| N → P | +2

Pattern:
+2, +2, -2, +2, +2

2. Analyze PLACE → RNYEG

| P → R | +2
| L → N | +2
| A → Y | -2
| C → E | +2
| E → G | +2

Pattern:
+2, +2, -2, +2, +2 (Same pattern)

Now apply the same pattern to: RIGHT

R → T (+2)
I → K (+2)
G → E (−2)
H → J (+2)
T → V (+2)

So, RIGHT → TKEJV

Correct answer: A) TKEJV

72.Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Solutions

The mirror image of the given figure as shown below.

Thus, correct option is (c).

73. 42 is related to 36 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 57 is related to 144. Which of the following numbers is related to 81 related using the same logic?

A. 46

B. 44

C. 56

D. 45

Solutions

Given:

42 → 36, 57 →144 , ?→ 81

Logic : square the sum of the digits.

For 42: 4 + 2 = 6, then 6² = 36.

For 57: 5 + 7 = 12, then 12² = 144.

For ?→ 81

(4 + 5)² = 9, then 9²= 81.

Thus, correct option is (d).

74. In a code language, ‘JSCQ’ is coded as ‘MNJH’ and ‘BYTE’ is coded as ‘ETAV’. How will ‘SEWX’ be coded in that language?

A. VZDO

B. VXDM

C. WXEM

D. WZEO

Solutions

We are given:

“JSCQ” → “MNJH”
“BYTE” → “ETAV”

We’ll compare letter by letter to find the pattern.

1. JSCQ → MNJH

Letter	J	S	C	Q
Code	M	N	J	H

Now find the shift (based on positions in alphabet):

J (10) → M (13) → +3
S (19) → N (14) → -5
C (3) → J (10) → +7
Q (17) → H (8) → -9

Pattern: +3, -5, +7, -9

2. BYTE → ETAV

Letter	B	Y	T	E
Code	E	T	A	V

Positions:

B (2) → E (5) → +3
Y (25) → T (20) → -5
T (20) → A (1) → +7 (looping back to A after Z)
E (5) → V (22) → -9

Again: +3, -5, +7, -9

3. Apply the same pattern (+3, -5, +7, -9) to SEWX

Alphabet positions:

S (19) +3 → V (22)
E (5) -5 → Z (26)
W (23) +7 → D (30 → 30-26 = 4 → D)
X (24) -9 → O (15)

Final code: VZDO

Correct answer: A) VZDO

75. If ‘I’ stands for ‘×’, ‘J’ stands for ‘+’, ‘K’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘L’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

(40 J 32 K 4) I 5 L 155 J 7 I 9 = ?

A. 126

B. 156

C. 134

D. 148

Solutions

Step-by-step calculation:

Step 1: Bracket first → (40 + 32 ÷ 4)

32 ÷ 4 = 8
So: 40 + 8 = 48

Step 2: Multiply → 48 × 5 = 240

Step 3: Subtract → 240 − 155 = 85

Step 4: Next part → 7 × 9 = 63

Step 5: Add → 85 + 63 = 148

Correct Option: D) 148

76. Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.

1. Dinnerware

2. Dingiest

3. Dinosaurs

4. Dinucleotide

5. Dinkier

6. Dingling

A. 5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4

B. 2, 6, 3, 5, 1, 4

C. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4

D. 2, 6, 5, 1, 3, 4

Solutions

Let’s arrange them alphabetically:

2. Dingiest

6. Dingling

5. Dinkier

1. Dinnerware

3. Dinosaurs

4. Dinucleotide

So, the correct order is: 2, 6, 5, 1, 3, 4

Thus, the correct option is option (d). 

77. Which two numbers (not digits) and which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation valid?

55 × 5 ÷ 1 – 3 + 14 = 0

A. 1, 5 and ‘+’, ‘–’

B. 1, 3 and ‘–’, ‘÷’

C. 5, 14 and ‘–’, ‘×’

D. 3, 5 and ‘+’, ‘÷’

Solutions

We are given the equation:

55 × 5 ÷ 1 – 3 + 14 = 0

We are to interchange two numbers and two signs to make the equation valid.

Let’s test each option one by one.

Option A:

Interchange 1 and 5, and ‘+’ and ‘–’

The equation becomes:

55 × 1 ÷ 5 + 3 – 14 = ?

Now evaluate step by step:

55 × 1 = 55
55 ÷ 5 = 11
11 + 3 = 14
14 – 14 = 0

This makes the equation valid.

Correct Answer: Option A: (1, 5 and ‘+’, ‘–’)

78. Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

BCD, FGH, JKL, NOP, ?

A. QSR

B. QRS

C. RQS

D. RST

Solutions

Let’s analyze the given letter series:

BCD, FGH, JKL, NOP, ?

Look at the first letters of each group:

B (2), F (6), J (10), N (14) → increasing by +4

So the next first letter: 14 + 4 = R

Now look at the second letters:

C (3), G (7), K (11), O (15) → again increasing by +4

Next second letter: 15 + 4 = S

Now the third letters:

D (4), H (8), L (12), P (16) → again increasing by +4

Next third letter: 16 + 4 = T

So, the next cluster is RST

Correct answer: Option D) RST

79. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the classes given here?

Moong. Pulses, Food

Solutions

Given: Moong. Pulses, Food

Explanation:

All Moong are Pulses

All Pulses are Food

So, All Moong are Food, but not all Food are Pulses, and not all Pulses are Moong

Thus, the correct option is (d).

80. In a certain code language,

‘M & N’ means ‘M is the husband of N’

‘M @ N’ means ‘M is the maternal grandfather of N’,

‘M % N’ means ‘M is the sister of N’,

‘M # N’ means ‘M is the son of N’

Based on the above, how is P related to R if ‘P @ Q # R & S % T’?

A. Wife’s father

B. Father

C. Brother

D. Father’s brother

Solutions

Given:

‘M & N’ means ‘M is the husband of N’

Symbols	@	%	#	&
Relations	Maternal grandfather	Sister	Son	Husband

81. Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary.
1. Temperament
2. Tenure
3. Tenant
4. Tender
5. Temptation
6. Temperature

A. 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3

B. 1, 6, 5, 3, 2, 4

C. 1, 6, 5, 3, 4, 2

D. 1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4

Solutions

Let’s arrange the given words in dictionary order:

1. Temperament → (Temperament)

6. Temperature → (Temperature)

5. Temptation → (Temptation)

3. Tenant → (Tenant)

4. Tender → (Tender)

2. Tenure → (Tenure)

So, the final order is: 1, 6, 5, 3, 4, 2

Thus, the correct option is: (c)

82. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?.

16 ÷ 2 + 54 – 3× 2 =50

A. + and ×

B. − and +

C. − and ×

D. ÷ and −

Solutions

Given: 16 ÷ 2 + 54 – 3× 2 =50

After interchanging the sign in the given equation will be:

Option A) + and ×

16 ÷ 2 × 54 + 3– 2

8 × 54 + 3– 2

432 + 3 -2

435 – 2

433 ≠ 50

It is incorrect.

Option B) − and +

16 ÷ 2 – 54 + 3 × 2

8 – 54 + 3 × 2

8 – 54 + 6

14 – 54

– 40 ≠ 50

It is incorrect.

Option C) − and ×

16 ÷ 2 + 54 × 3 – 2

8 + 54 × 3 – 2

8 + 162 – 2

170 – 2

168 ≠ 50

It is incorrect.

Option D) ÷ and −

16 – 2 + 54 ÷ 3 × 2

16 -2 + 18 × 2

16 – 2 + 36

52 – 2

50 = 50

It is correct.

Thus, the correct option is (d) ÷ and − .

83. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Solutions

The mirror image of the given letter/ number as shown below.

Thus, the correct option is (a).

84. Seven people A, B, L, M, N, S and T are sitting in a row facing north(but notnecessarily in the same order).No one sits to the right of N. Only three people sit between N and S. Only two people sitbetween S and T. M sits third to the left of L. A sits to the immediate right of L.How many people sit between B and T?

A. Two

B. Three

C. One

D. Four

Solutions

Given:

Seven people A, B, L, M, N, S and T are sitting in a row facing north (but notnecessarily in the same order).

No one sits to the right of N.

Only three people sit between N and S.

Only two people sitbetween S and T.

M sits third to the left of L.

A sits to the immediate right of L.

From the given information seating arrangement will be.

Three people sit between B and T.

Thus, correct option is (b).

85. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

6, 5, 18, 10, 54, 20, ?, 40

A. 162

B. 158

C. 170

D. 168

Solutions

We are given a number series: 6, 5, 18, 10, 54, 20, ?, 40

Let’s look at the pattern by grouping the numbers in pairs:

6 → 5
18 → 10
54 → 20
? → 40

Now look at what’s happening between each pair:

First, look at pattern of left-side numbers:

6, 18, 54, ?

We can see:

6 × 3 = 18
18 × 3 = 54
54 × 3 = 162

So the missing number is 162

Correct answer: Option A) 162

86. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, ÷ means +, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given equation?

1200 × 3 – 1 ÷ 100 + 499 = ?

A. 5

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Solutions

Given: 1200 × 3 – 1 ÷ 100 + 499

Sign	+	–	×	÷
Interchange sign	–	×	÷	+

After interchanging the sign equation will be:
1200 ÷ 3 × 1 + 100 – 499

? = 400 × 1 + 100 – 499
? = 400 + 100 – 499

? = 500 – 499

? = 1

Thus, the correct option is (d) 1.

87. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

673, 670, 664, 655, 643, ?

A. 632

B. 625

C. 628

D. 630

Solutions

Let’s analyze the given number series:
673, 670, 664, 655, 643, ?

Now find the differences between consecutive terms:

673 → 670: −3
670 → 664: −6
664 → 655: −9
655 → 643: −12

We can see a pattern: the differences are increasing by 3 each time:
−3, −6, −9, −12…

Next difference:
−12 − 3 = −15

So,
643 − 15 = 628

Correct answer: C) 628

88. Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Solutions

Given:

The correct embedded figure is shown below:

Thus, the correct option is (c)

89. Which figure will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series?

Solutions

The complete figure series is shown below:

Logic:

One or two shape remains constant.
The next two or one shapes rotate 180° clockwise.
This pattern repeats step by step.

In (i) to (ii) → 1 shape (rotate); 2 shapes (constant)

In (ii) to (iii) → 2 shape (rotate); 1 shapes (constant)

In (iii) to (iv) → 1 shape (rotate); 2 shapes (constant)

In (iv) to (v) → 2 shape (rotate); 1 shapes (constant)

In (v) to (vi) → 1 shape (rotate); 2 shapes (constant)
This structured rotation pattern ensures a predictable sequence

Thus, he correct option is (a)

90. DZRG is related to HDOD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LHLA is related to PLIX. To which of the following is TPFU related, following the same logic?

A. YUBQ

B. YTDS

C. XTCR

D. WSCQ

Solutions

Given: DZRG is related to HDOD and LHLA is related to PLIX.

Logic: 1st letter +4, 2nd letter -4, 3rd letter -3, 4th letter -3 in English alphabet.

For DZRG → HDOD
D + 4 → H
Z + 4 → D
R – 3 → O
G – 3 → D
For LHLA → PLIX
L + 4 → P
H + 4 → L
L – 3 → I
A – 3 → X

Now, applying the same pattern to TPFU → ?
T + 4 → X
P + 4 → T
F – 3 → C
U – 3 → R

Thus, the correct option is (c) XTCR.

91. Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

HUD, LXE, PAF, TDG, ?

A. AGH

B. AGG

C. AGI

D. XGH

Solutions

Let’s analyze the given letter-cluster series:

HUD, LXE, PAF, TDG, ?

We’ll break down the pattern letter by letter:

First letters:

H (8), L (12), P (16), T (20)
Clearly increasing by +4:
8 → 12 → 16 → 20 → 24 (X)

So, the first letter is X

Second letters:

U (21), X (24), A (1), D (4)
Check the pattern:

21 → 24 → 1 → 4
(Seems like: +3, then wrap around from Z to A, +3 again)

So next would be:
4 (D) + 3 = 7 → G

The second letter is G

Third letters:

D (4), E (5), F (6), G (7) → Clearly +1 each time

Next is H (8)

The third letter is H

Correct option: D) XGH

92. Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

I. All dogs are sheep.

II. All wolves are foxes.

III. All sheep are wolves.

Conclusions:

I. All wolves are sheep.

II. All dogs are foxes.

III. All dogs are wolves.

A. Only conclusions I and II follow.

B. None of the conclusions follow.

C. Only conclusions II and III follow.

D. Only conclusions I and III follow.

Solutions

Statements:

I. All dogs are sheep.

II. All wolves are foxes.

III. All sheep are wolves.

From the given statements Venn diagram will be:

Conclusions:

I. All wolves are sheep. (Not follows, Statement III says that all sheep are wolves, but it doesn’t mean that all wolves are sheep.)

II. All dogs are foxes. (Follows, all dogs are wolves, and all wolves are foxes, so all dogs are foxes.)

III. All dogs are wolves. (Follows, From Statement I: All dogs are sheep, and from Statement III: All sheep are wolves.)

So, Conclusions II and III logically follow from the given statements.

Thus, correct option is (c).

93. Kiara starts from Point A, which is 5 km towards the north of Z. From Point A, she turns towards the east and drives 8 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. Finally, she takes a right turn, drives for 15 km and stops at Point B. In which direction is Point B with respect to Point Z?

A. North-East

B. South-West

C. South

D. North-West

Solutions

Given:
Kiara starts from Point A, which is 5 km towards the north of Z.
From Point A, she turns towards the east and drives 8 km.

She then takes a right turn and drives 9 km.
Finally, she takes a right turn, drives for 15 km and stops at Point B.

From the given information Direction will be:

So, Point B is in south-west direction with respect to Point Z.

Thus, the correct option is: (b)

94. Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

CRHT, GQLS, KPPR, ?, SNXP

A. NOSQ

B. NQSP

C. OOTQ

D. OQTS

Solutions

We are given the letter series:

CRHT, GQLS, KPPR, ?, SNXP

Let’s analyze the pattern letter by letter:

Step 1: First letters

C → G → K → ? → S

C (3), G (7), K (11), S (19)
Pattern: +4, +4, +8
→ To maintain pattern:
C (+4) → G (+4) → K (+8) → S
→ So the missing term’s first letter should be:
K + 4 = O

First letter = O

Step 2: Second letters

R → Q → P → ? → N

R (18), Q (17), P (16), ? (15), N (14)
Pattern: −1 each time
So the missing second letter = O

Step 3: Third letters

H → L → P → ? → X

H (8), L (12), P (16), ? (20), X (24)
Pattern: +4 each time
So missing third letter = T

Step 4: Fourth letters

T → S → R → ? → P

T (20), S (19), R (18), ? (17), P (16)
Pattern: −1 each time
So missing fourth letter = Q

Correct option: C) OOTQ

95. Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

Solutions

Logic: In each figure, the number of arrows increases by 1, and the number of heads on the each arrows also increases.

The complete figure series is shown below:

Thus, the correct option is (b)

96. Two different positions of the same dice are given below. Which is the number onthe face opposite to the face containing 11?

A. 8

B. 7

C. 10

D. 9

Solutions

Logic: If two dice have the same face value in the given image then their clockwise or anticlockwise wise number are known as opposite numbers in dice.

10 → 12 → 11

10 → 12 → 8

So, the opposite of 11 is 8.

Thus, correct option is (a).

97. Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the given equation correct?

40 + 45 × 5 – 12 ÷ 4 = 1

A. ÷ and ×

B. − and ×

C. + and ×

D. − and +

Solutions

Given:
40 + 45 × 5 – 12 ÷ 4 = 1

Let’s check each options:
Option (a) ÷ and ×
40 + 45 ÷ 5 – 12 × 4 = 1
40+ 9 -12 × 4 = 1
40 + 9 – 48
49 – 48
1 = 1(This balances the equation.)

Option (b) − and ×
40 + 45 – 5 × 12 ÷ 4 = 1
40 + 45 – 5 × 3
40 + 45 – 15
85 -15
70 ≠ 1(This does not balance the equation)

Option (c) + and ×
40 × 45 + 5 – 12 ÷ 4 = 1
40 × 45 + 5 -3
1800+5-3
1805-3
1802 ≠ 1 (This does not balance the equation)

Option (d) − and +
40 – 45 × 5 +12 ÷ 4 = 1
40-45× 5 + 3
40- 225 +3
43-225
-182 ≠ 1(This does not balance the equation)

Thus, the correct option is: (a)

98. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

42 ÷ 23 + 870 × 3 – 5 = 541

A. + and ×

B. ÷ and –

C. × and ÷

D. + and –

Solutions

Given:

42 ÷ 23 + 870 × 3 – 5 = 541

Option A: Interchanged + and ×

42 ÷ 23 × 870 + 3 – 5 = 541

42 ÷ 23 = approximately 1.826 (Not an Integer)

Option B: Interchanged ÷ and –

42 – 23 + 870 × 3 ÷ 5 = 541

42 – 23 + 870 × 3 × 1/5 = 541

42 – 23 + 522 = 541

564 – 23 = 541

541 = 541 (Follow)

Option C: Interchanged × and ÷

42 × 23 + 870 ÷ 3 – 5 = 541

42 × 23 + 290 – 5 = 541

996 + 290 – 5 = 541

1256 – 5 = 541

1251 ≠ 541

Option D: Interchanged + and –

42 ÷ 23 – 870 × 3 + 5 = 541

42 ÷ 23 = approximately 1.826 (Not an Integer)

So, when Interchanged ÷ and – then follow the equal equation.

Thus, the correct option is: (b)

99. Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

Solutions

Logic: The movement of all shapes are shown by arrow below and the design in sides the shapes remains at same place .

Thus, the correct option is: (d)

100. 10 is related to 6 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 14 is related to 8. To which of the following is 24 related following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

A. 16

B. 15

C. 11

D. 13

Solutions

Given: 10 is related to 6 and 14 is related to 8.

Logic: (1st Number ÷ 2) + 1 = 2nd Number

For 10 → 6:
10 ÷ 2 = 5 → 5 + 1 = 6
For 14 → 8:
14 ÷ 2 = 7 → 7 + 1 = 8
Now for 24 → ?
24 ÷ 2 = 12 → 12 + 1 = 13

So, 24 → 13
Thus, the correct option is (d) 13

General Study

101.Which of the following Articles makes provisions for reservation in the appointment of posts in favour of any backward class of citizens?

A. Article 26

B. Article 15

C. Article 35

D. Article 16

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Article 16.

Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs

Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

102. Which element has the highest atomic number and highest atomic mass in the periodic table?

A. Flerovium

B. Tennessine

C. Nihonium

D. Oganesson

Solutions

Correct Answer: 4. Oganesson

Oganesson (Og) has:

The highest atomic number: 118

One of the heaviest atomic masses: ~294 u

It is located in Group 18 (noble gases) and Period 7 of the periodic table.

It is a synthetic element, discovered through nuclear reactions.

103. Which among the following elements is a major in the formation of catalyst that converts Carbon dioxide into Natural Gas?

A. Ruthenium

B. Platinum

C. Palladium

D. Osmium

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Ruthenium.

Ruthenium is a significant element in catalysts employed for the conversion of carbon dioxide into natural gas. Ruthenium-based catalysts have shown promising activity in catalyzing the Sabatier reaction, which involves the reduction of carbon dioxide with hydrogen to produce methane and water. Ruthenium’s unique properties, including its ability to efficiently activate carbon dioxide and facilitate hydrogenation reactions, make it an attractive choice for this process. Consequently, ruthenium-based catalysts play a crucial role in advancing carbon dioxide utilization technologies for sustainable natural gas production.

104. What is the study of the form and structure of cells including the behaviour of the nucleus and other organelles called?

A. Cytology

B. Cell Biology

C. Anatomy

D. Physiology

Solutions

Correct Answer: 1. Cytology

Explanation:

Cytology is the branch of biology that deals with:
- The structure, form, and function of cells.
- The observation and analysis of the nucleus, organelles, and cellular processes under the microscope.
It is also known as cell cytology and plays a crucial role in medical diagnosis, particularly in cancer screening (e.g., Pap smear test).

105. The process of synthesizing simple macromolecules and absorption of nutrients and other chemicals from food into the body is known as?

A. Transportation

B. Assimilation

C. Anabolism

D. Catabolism

Solutions

Correct Answer: 2. Assimilation

🔍 Explanation:

Assimilation is the biological process in which:
- Nutrients from digested food are absorbed into the body.
- These absorbed nutrients are used to synthesize macromolecules (like proteins, enzymes, etc.) which are necessary for growth and repair.

Difference Between the Options:

Option	Description
Transportation	Movement of substances (like nutrients, gases, hormones) within the body.
Assimilation	Conversion of absorbed food into body tissues and macromolecules for use by the body.
Anabolism	Part of metabolism involving building up complex molecules from simpler ones (e.g., building proteins from amino acids).
Catabolism	The breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy.

106. Each carbon atom is bonded to ___________ in a diamond.

A. two other carbon atoms

B. three other carbon atoms

C. four other carbon atoms

D. five other carbon atoms

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. four other carbon atoms.

In a diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms through strong covalent bonds, forming a rigid three-dimensional lattice structure known as a tetrahedral network. This network arrangement results in each carbon atom being surrounded by four other carbon atoms, creating a highly stable and densely packed structure. These strong covalent bonds between carbon atoms contribute to the remarkable hardness, high thermal conductivity, and optical properties characteristic of diamonds.

107. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?

A. Pancreas

B. Pineal

C. Liver

D. Hypothalamus

Solutions

Correct Answer: 3. Liver

Explanation:

The liver is the largest gland in the human body.

Why?

It is both a gland and an organ.
It performs endocrine and exocrine functions:
- Exocrine: Secretes bile to help digest fats.
- Endocrine: Involved in metabolism and processing of hormones.
Average adult liver weight: About 1.4 to 1.6 kg.

108. Excess of which of the following in the blood causes the “Blue Baby Syndrome” disease ?

A. Iron

B. Lead

C. Methamoglobin

D. Nitrate

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Methamoglobin.

Blue Baby Syndrome (Methemoglobinemia) occurs when there is an excess of nitrates in drinking water or food, which convert into nitrites in the body.
Nitrites react with hemoglobin to form methemoglobin, a form that cannot carry oxygen, leading to bluish skin (cyanosis) in infants.
While methemoglobin is the direct cause, nitrates (often from contaminated water or vegetables) are the primary source.
Iron, lead, and other metals do not cause this condition.

Thus, nitrate contamination is the main culprit behind Blue Baby Syndrome.

109. Which of the following can be defined as Newton’s second law?

A. Force equals mass times acceleration

B. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

C. Force is equal to the change in momentum per change in time

D. Both 1 and 3

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Both 1 and 3.

Newton’s second law states that the force exerted on an object is directly proportional to the rate at which its momentum changes over time.
Alternatively, it can be expressed as the product of the object’s mass and its acceleration.
Symbolically, this law is represented by F = ma, where F denotes the applied force, m represents the object’s mass, and a signifies the acceleration generated.
This fundamental principle elucidates how an object’s motion responds to external forces.

110. Because of ______ reaction, iron rusts.

A. oxidation

B. reduction

C. corrosion

D. redox

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. redox.

Rusting of iron refers to the formation of rust, a mixture of iron oxides, on the surface of iron objects or structures.
This rust is formed from a redox reaction between oxygen and iron in an environment containing water (such as air containing high levels of moisture).

111. In the recently conducted first ever Tri state synchronised survey in 7 protected areas, Himalayan Griffon was only reported from _______.

A. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

B. Mudumalai Tiger Reserve

C. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

D. Bandipur Tiger Reserve

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.

The Data for the first ever Tri state synchronised survey conducted by Kerala Forest and Wildlife Department was released recently, recording a total of 320 individual vultures in seven protected areas. The seven protected areas where the survey was conducted are Wayanad WS, Bandipur Tiger Reserve, Nagarhole Tiger Reserve, Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, Biligiri Ranganatha Swamy Temple Tiger Reserve, Nellai Forest Division and Mudumalai Tiger Reserve. The survey reported Himalayan Griffon only from Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.

112. Researchers from _______ have led to the world’s first discovery for effective long-term treatment of Lupus, an autoimmune disease that causes an individual’s immune system to damage its own organs and tissues.

A. USA

B. Australia

C. Germany

D. UK

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Australia.

The Australian Researchers from Monash University have led to the world’s first discovery for effective long-term treatment of Lupus. The study found a way to reprogram the defective cells of Lupus patients with protective molecules from healthy people. Lupus is an autoimmune disease that causes an individual’s immune system to damage its own organs and tissues.

113. Which among the following Institute developed India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility, S2 also nicknamed as “Jigarthanda”?

A. IIT- Bombay

B. IIT- Delhi

C. IIT- Kanpur

D. IIT-Madras

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. IIT- Kanpur.

The Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur (IIT-K) made a significant achievement by pioneering the development of India’s inaugural Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility. Named “Jigarthanda,” the facility, designated S2, spans 24 meters and is situated within the Hypersonic Experimental Aerodynamics Laboratory (HEAL) at IIT Kanpur. It has the capability to simulate hypersonic speeds, ranging from 3 to 10 km/s, marking a milestone in India’s aerospace research and technology advancement.

114. Union Minister Shri Dharmendra Pradhan launched EdCIL Vidyanjali Scholarship Programme. The Educational Consultants India Limited(EdCIL) established in ________ is the only PSU under the Ministry of Education.

A. 1991

B. 1981

C. 2001

D. 2011

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 1981.

In New Delhi, the Union Education Minister, Shri Dharmendra Pradhan, has recently inaugurated the EdCIL Vidyanjali Scholarship Program. This initiative aims to ensure a smooth transition from secondary to higher education by offering high-quality learning opportunities. The scholarship program targets economically disadvantaged students from Navodaya Vidyalayas, providing them with financial assistance. Established in 1981, Educational Consultants India Limited (EdCIL) stands as the sole Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) under the Ministry of Education.

115. Consider the following:

The absence of Shiwalik formations defines this area.
Instead, duar formations are a prominent aspect of this region.
The region is suitable for tea plantations.
Ethnic tribal communities such as Monpa, Mishmi, Nyishi etc. inhabit this region.

The above lines talk about which region?

A. Eastern Hills

B. Arunachal Himalayas

C. Sikkim Himalayas

D. Kashmir Himalayas

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Arunachal Himalayas.

Absence of Shiwalik formations and presence of duar formations: Both Arunachal and Sikkim Himalayas lack Shiwaliks, the foothills of the western and central Himalayas. Daur formations, characteristic of the eastern Himalayas, are prominent in these regions.
Suitable for tea plantations: Both Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim have suitable conditions for tea.
Specific ethnic communities: The mentioned communities like Monpa, Mishmi, and Nyishi are predominantly found in Arunachal Pradesh.
While Sikkim Himalayas share some characteristics, the specific mention of ethnic communities and the association with duar tea plantations point towards Arunachal Himalayas being the correct answer.

116. _______ is a type of metamorphic rock distinguished by its banding, resulting from the separation of various rock types, often light and dark silicates.

A. Gneiss

B. Slate

C. Marble

D. Quartzite

Solutions

The correct answer is: 1. Gneiss

Explanation:

Gneiss is a metamorphic rock that is characterized by its distinct banding.
This banding results from the segregation of different mineral types, typically light and dark silicate minerals.
The alternating bands are due to high-grade metamorphic processes involving heat and pressure.

Other Options:

Slate: Fine-grained metamorphic rock that splits into thin layers, formed from shale.
Marble: Formed from limestone; it’s non-foliated and mainly composed of calcite.
Quartzite: Formed from sandstone; very hard and mostly composed of quartz.

117. What is the term used to describe a dry land area situated on the side of a mountain that is sheltered from prevailing winds?

A. Rainshadow area

B. Windward Side

C. Leeward Side

D. Mountainous areas

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Rainshadow area.

A patch of dry land on a mountain’s leeward (or downwind) side is known as a rain shadow area.

Elevated mountains serve as barriers against both warm and cold winds.
If they are high enough and in the way of winds that carry rain, they can also produce precipitation.
A rain shadow is an area of land that has been pushed into desertity by mountain ranges that obstruct all rainy, plant-growing seasons.
Rain and snow are dumped by wet weather systems on one side of the mountain.
All of the precipitation is prevented on the other side of the mountain, known as the rain shadow side.

118. Laterite soil is rich in which of these?

A. Potassium

B. Magnesium

C. Iron

D. Calcium

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Iron.

Laterite soil exhibits a red hue due to its high iron and aluminum content, typically forming in hot and humid tropical regions. It is predominantly found in the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.
Black soil is deficient in nitrogen, potassium, phosphorus, and humus.
Alluvial soil is highly fertile, making it ideal for crop cultivation.

119. Which river among the following is outside the Himalayan drainage system?

A. Ganga

B. Godavari

C. Indus

D. Brahmaputra

Solutions

Correct Answer: 2. Godavari

Explanation:

Himalayan drainage system includes rivers that originate from the Himalayas, such as:
- Ganga
- Indus
- Brahmaputra

These rivers are snow-fed, perennial, and flow through northern India.

Godavari River:

Origin: Trimbakeshwar, Maharashtra (Western Ghats)
Not part of the Himalayan system — it’s a Peninsular river.
Also known as Dakshin Ganga (Ganga of the South).
It is rain-fed and flows eastward into the Bay of Bengal.

Hence, the Godavari River is outside the Himalayan drainage system.

120. The Indian desert is situated on the western periphery of the _________.

A. Kaimur Hills

B. Himadri

C. Nilgiri Hills

D. Aravalli Hills

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Aravalli Hills.

The Indian desert is located on the western periphery of the Aravalli Hills.
These ancient and eroded mountains extend across the northwestern region of India, forming a natural boundary between the desert and the fertile plains to the east.
The Aravalli Range plays a crucial role in shaping the climate and geography of the region, influencing factors such as rainfall patterns and soil composition.
Additionally, they contribute to the unique ecosystem found in the surrounding areas.

121. In which mountain range is the Zoji La Pass situated?

A. Zanskar Range

B. Ladakh Range

C. East Karakoram Range

D. Dhauladhar Range

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Zanskar Range.

The Zoji La Pass is nestled within the Zanskar Range. Located in the western Himalayas, this strategic mountain pass serves as a vital link between the Kashmir Valley and the Ladakh region of the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Positioned at an altitude of approximately 11,575 feet (3,528 meters), Zoji La is crucial for transportation and trade, connecting Srinagar to Leh and playing a significant role in both military and economic activities in the region.

122. Which of the following Straits join the Java Sea & Indian Ocean?

A. Cook Strait

B. Malacca Strait

C. Sunda Strait

D. Mesina Strait

Solutions

Correct Answer: 3. Sunda Strait

Explanation:

The Sunda Strait is the strait that joins the Java Sea and the Indian Ocean.

About Sunda Strait:

Location: Between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra
Connects:
- Java Sea (to the northeast)
- Indian Ocean (to the southwest)
Geographical Importance: It’s a key maritime route and also the location near the Krakatoa volcano.

123. “Yally” is a traditional folk dance performed by the ………….. people in the northeastern state of India.

A. Mizo

B. Kuki

C. Khasi

D. Garo

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Khasi.

“Yally” is a traditional folk dance performed by the Khasi people in the northeastern state of Meghalaya, India. It is characterized by its energetic movements, rhythmic footwork, and vibrant costumes. The dance often accompanies cultural celebrations, social gatherings, and religious ceremonies within the Khasi community. “Yally” reflects the cultural heritage and traditional practices of the Khasi people, adding to the rich tapestry of folk arts in Meghalaya and showcasing the community’s unique identity and customs.

124. At the time of the first session of the Indian National Congress, who among the following was the Viceroy of India?

A. Lord Curzon

B. Lord Clive

C. Lord Dufferin

D. Lord Canning

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Lord Dufferin.

Lord Dufferin was the Viceroy of India at the time of the first session of the Indian National Congress.
It was held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay, from 28 to 31 December 1885.
Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee presided over the first session of the Indian National Congress.
Lord Canning was the Governor-General of India from 1856 to 1862.
Lord Curzon served as Governor-General and Viceroy of India from 6 January 1899 to 18 November 1905.

125. Which of the following newspaper or journals was published by Bipin Chandra Pal?

A. Yugantar

B. Bombay Chronicle

C. Bengal Gazette

D. Bande Mataram

Solutions

Correct Answer: 4. Bande Mataram

Explanation:

Bipin Chandra Pal, one of the prominent leaders of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio during the Indian freedom struggle, was associated with the publication of the journal “Bande Mataram”.

Bande Mataram was an English-language newspaper/journal that played a significant role in spreading nationalist ideas.
It was published in Calcutta (now Kolkata).
Bipin Chandra Pal initially started it, and later Sri Aurobindo also contributed significantly to it.

126. Who was the Governor General of India during the Civil Disobedience Movement?

A. Lord Willington

B. Lord Wellesly

C. Lord Irwin

D. Lord Reading

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Lord Irwin.

The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched on 12 March, 1930 by Gandhi. He informed Lord Irwin, who was the viceroy at that time, that on 11 March, he would proceed with his co-workers of his ashram to disregard the provisions of the salt law.
He further submitted 11 demands such as the reduction of rupee-sterling ratio, halving the agricultural tax, abolition of salt law etc.
With 78 members of the Sabarmati Ashram, Gandhi marched from Ahmedabad through the villages of Gujarat for 240 miles and upon reaching the Dandi coast, he would break the salt laws by collecting salt from the beach.

127. The primary cause for the rise of Jainism and Buddhism was the religious unrest in India in which century B.C.?

A. 5^thcentury

B. 6^thcentury

C. 4^thcentury

D. 8^thcentury

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 6^th century.

In the 6^th century B.C., religious unrest in India was the primary cause for the rise of Jainism and Buddhism.
The 6^th century B.C. considered to be a wonderful century in history. Buddha, Mahavira, Heraclitus, Zoroaster, Confucius, and Lao Tse, Great thinkers during the 6^th century B.C., lived and preached their ideas.
During the 6^th century B.C. in India, the republican institutions were strong and leads to the rise of heterodox sects against the orthodox religion dominated by rites and rituals.

128. King Harshvardhan founded a significant centre of learning known as ‘Bhadra-Vihar’ at ________.

A. Mathura

B. Kashi

C. Kannauj

D. Haridwar

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Kannauj.

King Harshvardhan founded a significant learning centre known as ‘Bhadra-Vihar’ at Kannauj. During his reign in the 7th century, Kannauj was an important cultural and intellectual hub. The centre attracted scholars, artists, and intellectuals, promoting the study of various disciplines like philosophy, literature, and science. Harshvardhan himself was a patron of learning and the arts, and his efforts helped in the flourishing of education and culture in ancient India.

129. Who was appointed as the Governor of the eastern Chalukyas in 624 A.D.?

A. Tailapa-II

B. Kubja Vishnuvardhana

C. Jayasimha

D. Pulakesin I

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Kubja Vishnuvardhana.

In 624 A.D., Pulakeshin II appointed his brother Kubja Vishnuvardhana as the Governor of the eastern Chalukyas. This strategic move aimed to strengthen the Chalukya control over their eastern territories and ensure efficient administration. Kubja Vishnuvardhana’s appointment signified the Chalukya dynasty’s efforts to extend their influence and maintain stability across their vast domain, which encompassed both western and eastern regions of the Deccan Plateau in India.

130. Who is the administrative head of a Union Territory?

A. Governor

B. President

C. Vice-President

D. Lieutenant Governor

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Lieutenant Governor.

Lieutenant Governor is the administrative head of the Union Territories of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Delhi, and Puducherry. In other union territories, administrators are appointed.
Governor is the head of the state appointed by the President.
The Lieutenant Governor is also appointed by the President for a term of five years.

131. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt Hindi Written in Devanagari as the official language of the country?

A. 1956

B. 1949

C. 1943

D. 1951

Solutions

Correct Answer: 2. 1949

Explanation:

The Constituent Assembly of India adopted Hindi written in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union of India on 14th September 1949.
This decision is mentioned in Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution.
Later, 14th September came to be celebrated every year as Hindi Diwas.

132. Which amendment act provides for a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for NCT of Delhi?

A. 72nd

B. 69th

C. 79th

D. 39th

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 69th.

The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act (1991) granted special status to Delhi as the National Capital Territory (NCT) and provided for:

A Legislative Assembly (with limited powers)
A Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister
A Lieutenant Governor as administrator

This amendment inserted Articles 239AA and 239AB, defining Delhi’s unique governance structure. While Parliament retains control over land, police, and public order, the Assembly can legislate on other state subjects.

Other Amendments:

72nd (1991): Extended President’s Rule in Punjab.
79th (1999): Extended SC/ST reservation in legislatures.
39th (1975): Related to election disputes.

The 69th Amendment shaped Delhi’s current semi-state status.

133. Who was the head of the Constitutional Provincial Committee during the making of the Constitution?

A. Pt Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Dr. B R Ambedkar

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Solutions

The correct option is option 4 i.e. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Committees of the Constitution	Chairman
Provincial Constitution Committee	Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Union Constitution Committee	Jawaharlal Nehru
Union Powers Committee	Jawaharlal Nehru
States Committee	Jawaharlal Nehru
Steering Committee	Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Rules of Procedure Committee	Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Drafting Committee	Dr. B R Ambedkar

134. Which of the following constitutional amendments was challenged in the Golaknath case 1967?

A. 12th Amendments

B. 15th Amendment

C. 17th Amendment

D. 10th Amendment

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 17th Amendment.

In the Golaknath case (1967), the 17th Constitutional Amendment Act (1964) was challenged. The amendment had placed certain state laws in the Ninth Schedule, making them immune to judicial review. The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights (Part III) under Article 368, holding them sacrosanct.

Other Amendments:

10th Amendment (1961): Incorporated Dadra & Nagar Haveli into India.
12th Amendment (1962): Added Goa, Daman, and Diu to the Union.
15th Amendment (1963): Clarified judges’ retirement age and expanded High Court powers.

The Golaknath judgment was later modified by the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), introducing the Basic Structure Doctrine.

135. Which of the following constitution amendments enables the President of India to impose National Emergency on any particular part of India?

A. 42nd

B. 44th

C. 45th

D. 48th

Solutions

Correct Answer: 42nd Amendment

Explanation:

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, added Clause (1) to Article 352, enabling the President of India to declare a National Emergency in any part of India, even if the emergency is not applicable to the entire country.
Before this amendment, National Emergency could only be proclaimed for the whole country.

136. Bank rate is the rate at which:

A. Central Bank borrows loan from Government

B. Central bank lends loan to commercial banks.

C. Commercial banks lend loan to Government

D. Commercial banks lend loan to Central bank

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Central bank lends loan to commercial banks.

The term “bank rate” refers to the interest rate at which a central bank lends money to commercial banks.
This rate is set by the central bank and is a crucial tool for implementing monetary policy.
When the central bank raises the bank rate, borrowing becomes more expensive for commercial banks, leading to higher interest rates for consumers and businesses.

137. In which Five-Year Plan was the phrase “towards faster and more inclusive growth” first introduced?

A. 10th

B. 11th

C. 8th

D. 9th

Solutions

Correct Answer: 2. 11th

Explanation: The phrase “towards faster and more inclusive growth” was first introduced in the 11th Five-Year Plan of India, which covered the period 2007–2012.

This plan emphasized not just rapid economic growth but also the inclusiveness of that growth, ensuring benefits reach the poor, marginalized, and rural populations.
It focused on health, education, employment, and reducing inequality.

138. _________are an example of public goods and services.

A. clothes

B. roads

C. cosmetic products

D. a pack of biscuits

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. roads.

Public goods are resources, items, or services that are available to all members of a society.

These services are usually provided by governments, which also collect taxes to cover their costs.

The rule of law, national security, and law enforcement are a few examples of public goods.

More fundamental things, like having access to potable water and clean air, are also considered public goods.

Education, infrastructure, lighthouses, flood control systems, knowledge, fresh air, national security, official statistics, roadways, etc. are further instances of public goods.

139. When did the first phase of Green Revolution started?

A. Mid 1980s

B. Mid 1970s

C. Mid 1960s

D. Mid 1950s

Solutions

Correct Answer: 3. Mid 1960s

Explanation:

The first phase of the Green Revolution in India started in the mid-1960s, specifically around 1966–67.

It aimed to increase food grain production, especially wheat and rice, through:

High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds

Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides

Expansion of irrigation infrastructure

Mechanization of agriculture

Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh were the main regions that benefited initially.

140. A scenario in which the government’s spending surpasses its revenue is known as _________________.

A. Default Revenue

B. Budget Deficit

C. Default Financing

D. Revenue Deficit

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Budget Deficit.

A budget deficit occurs when expenditure surpasses income. While commonly associated with governments, deficits can also occur for individuals, companies, and organizations.

This shortfall serves as an indicator of the economic financial condition.

To mitigate the deficit, the government may implement measures such as reducing certain expenses and enhancing revenue-generating initiatives.

141. Who authored a book named “From dependence to Self-Reliance”?

A. Bimal Jalan

B. Amartya Sen

C. Abhijit Benarji

D. Shashi Tharur

Solutions

Correct Answer: 1. Bimal Jalan

Explanation: The book “From Dependence to Self-Reliance: Mapping India’s Rise as a Global Superpower” was authored by Dr. Bimal Jalan, a renowned Indian economist and former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

In this book, he discusses:

India’s economic journey post-independence
Reforms and development
India’s transition from being aid-dependent to self-reliant
Policy challenges and governance

142. Which among the following authors penned the book titled ‘Fasting, Feasting’?

A. Preeti Shenoy

B. Anuja Chauhan

C. Namita Gokhale

D. Anita Desai

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Anita Desai.

Anita Desai, who penned the book Fasting, Feasting. Published in 1999, the novel explores cultural contrasts between India and America, focusing on family dynamics, gender roles, and societal expectations. It was shortlisted for the Booker Prize, cementing Desai’s reputation as a prominent Indian writer.

143. The first Indian woman to win the title of Miss Universe was _____.

A. Manushi Chhillar

B. Persis Khambatta

C. Sushmita Sen

D. Madhu Sapre

Solutions

Correct Answer: 3. Sushmita Sen

Explanation: Sushmita Sen was the first Indian woman to win the Miss Universe title, and she achieved this historic feat in 1994.

Let’s briefly understand the other options:

Manushi Chhillar – Won Miss World in 2017, not Miss Universe.
Persis Khambatta – Was an actress and model, known for her role in Star Trek, but not a Miss Universe winner.
Sushmita Sen – ✅ Correct, won Miss Universe 1994.
Madhu Sapre – Was Miss India 1992, and a runner-up at Miss Universe 1992, but didn’t win.

144. Which individual among the following became the first female Finance Minister of Independent India?

A. Indira Gandhi

B. Nirmala Sitharaman

C. Sarojini Naidu

D. Vijay Lakshmi Pandit

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Indira Gandhi.

Indira Gandhi made history as the inaugural female Finance Minister of Independent India in 1970, concurrently serving as the first woman Prime Minister of the nation.
Nirmala Sitharaman currently holds the position of Finance Minister and previously served as the first woman Defence Minister of India. Sarojini Naidu was notable for her presidency of the Indian National Congress and being the inaugural Indian woman appointed as a state Governor.
Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit made history by becoming the inaugural female President of the United Nations General Assembly.

145. Which festival, observed between August and September, commemorates the harvest season?

A. Onam

B. Makar Sankranti

C. Lohri

D. Baisakhi

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Onam.

Onam is a harvest festival celebrated in Kerala, observed between August and September (the Chingam month in the Malayalam calendar). It marks the homecoming of King Mahabali and is celebrated with grand feasts (Onasadya), traditional boat races, flower rangolis (Pookalam), and cultural performances.

146. The Gangaur Festival is predominantly celebrated by the women of Rajasthan in reverence to the Goddess _________.

A. Sita

B. Lakshmi

C. Parvati

D. Durga

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Parvati.

The Gangaur festival pays homage to Goddess Gauri, an incarnation of Parvati, symbolizing love and marriage. During this celebration, both married and unmarried women participate enthusiastically, crafting clay images of Shiva and Parvati, adorning them elaborately, offering prayers, fasting for marital bliss, and preparing delicious meals for their families. In Rajasthan, the local community perceives Goddess Parvati as a symbol of marital perfection and love, imbuing the Gangaur festival with profound significance for them.

147. Konark Sun Temple situated in _______.

A. Odisha

B. Kerala

C. Bihar

D. Tamil Nadu

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Odisha.

The Konark Sun Temple, located in Odisha, is credited to King Narasimhadeva-I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty and exemplifies the distinctive Great Kalinga architectural style.
Recognized for its architectural brilliance, the temple was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.

148. First Nobel prize was awarded in the year-

A. 1899

B. 1901

C. 1759

D. 1921

Solutions

Correct Answer: 1901 (Option 2)

Explanation: The first Nobel Prize was awarded in the year 1901, in accordance with the will of Alfred Nobel, the inventor of dynamite, who established the prizes in his will signed in 1895.

🏆 The first Nobel Prizes were awarded in the following fields:

Physics – Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
Chemistry – Jacobus Henricus van ‘t Hoff
Medicine – Emil von Behring
Literature – Sully Prudhomme
Peace – Jean Henry Dunant and Frédéric Passy

149. What type of wood is utilized in the crafting of a cricket bat?

A. Teak

B. Willow

C. Bamboo

D. Rosewood

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Willow.

Willow wood is used to make a cricket bat.
There are three types of Willow wood that are used to make cricket bats: Selected willow, Kashmir willow and English willow
Among the three, English Willow is the strongest, smoothest, and produces a perfect sound when it releases a shot from its touch.
The most costly bats are made with the English willow and this bat is used all over the world by cricketers who officially play for their country, state, city.
The length of the bat may be no more than 38 inches and the width no more than 4.25 inches.

150. Which of the following options represents a traditional painting style originating from Odisha?

A. Warli

B. Pattachitra

C. Sanjhi

D. Madhubani

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Pattachitra.

The traditional painting style originating from Odisha is called Pattachitra. This art form is characterized by intricate patterns, mythological narratives, and vibrant colors, often depicting stories from Hindu scriptures. Artists typically use natural dyes and paints on cloth or dried palm leaves, showcasing elaborate designs and detailed borders. Pattachitra paintings are not only significant in religious contexts but also serve as a means of cultural expression, reflecting the rich heritage and artistic traditions of Odisha.

English

151. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Its always a / beautiful day / in my neighbourhood.

A. beautiful day

B. Its always a

C. in my neighbourhood

D. No error

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Its always a.

The part that contains the error is: “Its always a”.

The error is in the use of “Its” instead of “It’s.” “Its” is a possessive pronoun, whereas “It’s” is a contraction of “it is.”

The correct sentence should be: “It’s always a beautiful day in my neighbourhood.”

152. Each of the following sentences is divided into four parts. Any of the parts may contain an error. Select the part that has an error. Select option (d), if you find no error in the sentence. Ignore punctuation errors if any.

The boy who will score (a)/ the maximum points, (b)/ will carry the trophy (c). /No error (d)/

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. a.

Explanation: In relative clauses, the use of “will” after who is redundant when referring to a general condition or habit in the present tense.

The verb “will score” is in the future tense, but it should be in the present tense “scores”.

The correct form would be:

“The boy who scores the maximum points will carry the trophy.”

153. Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error.

Yesterday I searched in every my cupboard for the shirt I couldn’t find.

A. in every my cupboard

B. for the shirt

C. I couldn’t find

D. Yesterday I searched

Solutions

Error: “in every my cupboard”
You can’t use “every” with “my” like that.

Correct: “in every cupboard” or “in all my cupboards”

Answer: Option 1

154. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement required’.

Both of mine child passed the examination successfully.

A. my children passed

B. our children passes

C. No improvement required

D. my child pass

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. my children passed

Statement: Both of mine child passed the examination successfully.

‘Both’ indicates more than one child so the verb used should be in the plural form, so, ‘child’ should be replaced by ‘children.’

Correct statement: Both of my children passed the examination successfully.

155. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement required’.

Drink a mixture of wormwood oil and olive oil to got rid of worms.

A. No improvement required

B. to rid off

C. to getting rid by

D. to get rid of

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. to get rid of.

Statement: Drink a mixture of wormwood oil and olive oil to got rid of worms.

As the sentence is in the present tense, so, ‘got’ should be replaced by ‘get.’

Correct statement: Drink a mixture of wormwood oil and olive oil to get rid of worms.

156. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement required’.

I gives him some orange juice from the refrigerator.

A. gave him some

B. gives him any

C. given him some

D. No improvement required

Solutions

The correct answer is Option: 1 i.e gave him some.

The given sentence is in the present tense and contains an error in subject-verb agreement.
The word “gives” is incorrect because it is a present tense verb that agrees with third-person singular subjects (he, she, it).
In this sentence, the subject is “I,” which is a first-person singular pronoun, and the verb should be “give” to match the subject.

The correct sentence is:

“I give him some orange juice from the refrigerator,” and no further improvement is required.

157. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement required’.

In the nineteenth century, many new ideas about education and learning were being emerged.

A. was emerging

B. have emerging

C. No improvement required

D. emerged

Solutions

The corrrect answer is Option: 4 i.e emerged.

The given sentence is in the past tense and contains an error in verb tense.
The verb “emerge” is in the present participle form, which describes ongoing actions that are happening at the same time as the main verb.
In this sentence, the main verb is in the past tense (“were”), indicating that the action has already happened. Therefore, the correct verb form to use is the past participle form “emerged.”

Therefore, the correct sentence is:

“In the nineteenth century, many new ideas about education and learning were emerged,” and no further improvement is required.

158. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement required’.

The truck picked up more then the usual amount of garbage from our neighbourhood.

A. greater then

B. more than

C. much than

D. No improvement required

Solutions

Sentence: “The truck picked up more then the usual amount of garbage from our neighbourhood.”

Error:

“then” is incorrect here.
We need a comparison, so the correct word is “than” (not “then”, which relates to time).

Correct version: “The truck picked up more than the usual amount of garbage…”

Answer: Option 2 — more than

159. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement required’.

The plants readily respond to these stimulus.

A. readily respond to these stimuli

B. ready respond to these stimuli

C. readily responds to this stimulus

D. No improvement required

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. readily respond to these stimuli.

The underlined part of the sentence is “these stimulus.”

The correct form of the word “stimulus” depends on whether it is singular or plural. In this case, “stimulus” is plural, and the correct form is “stimuli.”

Therefore, the correct improved sentence is “The plants readily respond to these stimuli.”

160. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement required’.

The toast will being ready in about 15 minutes.

A. are being ready

B. No improvement required

C. will been readily

D. will be ready

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. will be ready.

The underlined sentence contains a grammatical error. The word “being” is incorrect as it is a present participle verb and is not appropriate for describing the future tense action of the toast being ready.

To correct the sentence, we need to use the future tense form of “be,” which is “will be.”

Therefore, the correct sentence should be “The toast will be ready in about 15 minutes.”

161. Select the SYNONYM of the given word.

ACKNOWLEDGE

A. Elimination

B. Compensation

C. Confusion

D. Confirmation

Solutions

Word: ACKNOWLEDGE

Meaning: To accept, admit, or recognize something as true, valid, or real.

Closest synonym: Confirmation

➡ “Acknowledge” and “Confirmation” both involve recognizing or accepting the truth or existence of something.

Incorrect options:

Elimination – means removal
Compensation – means payment for loss
Confusion – means lack of clarity

Answer: Option 4 — Confirmation

162. Select the SYNONYM of the given word.

REVERE

A. Condemn

B. Repeat

C. Enjoy

D. Respect

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Respect.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options-

Revere– to feel great respect or admiration for somebody/something.
Condemn– to say strongly that you think somebody/something is very bad or wrong.
Repeat– to say, write or do something again or more than once.
Enjoy– to get pleasure from something.
Respect– the feeling that you have when you admire or have a high opinion of somebody/something.

As the chosen option expresses the best meaning of the given word it will be correct.

163. Select the SYNONYM of the given word.

PREVENT

A. Allow

B. Construct

C. Avert

D. Provoke

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Avert.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options-

Prevent– to stop something happening or to stop somebody from doing something.
Allow– to give permission for somebody/something to do something or for something to happen.
Construct– to build or make something.
Avert– to prevent something unpleasant.
Provoke– to cause a particular feeling or reaction.

164. Select the most appropriate synonym of the bold word in the sentence.

He gave me some very frank criticism.

A. Cruel

B. Arrogant

C. Candid

D. Sweet

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Candid.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given words-

Frank– showing your thoughts and feelings clearly; saying what you mean; open, honest, and direct in speech or writing, especially when dealing with unpalatable matters.
Candid– saying exactly what you think; truthful and straightforward; frank.
Cruel– causing physical or mental pain or suffering to somebody/something.
Arrogant– thinking that you are better and more important than other people.
Sweet– (of a person or action) pleasant and kind or thoughtful.

165. Select the most appropriate synonym of the bold word in the sentence.

The timely arrival of my remuneration took away the need to borrow money.

A. Rarely

B. Opportune

C. Likely

D. Barely

Solutions

Sentence: “The timely arrival of my remuneration took away the need to borrow money.”

Word in focus: Timely

Meaning: Happening at the right or appropriate time.

Most appropriate synonym: Opportune

Opportune also means well-timed or occurring at a suitable moment.

Incorrect options:

Rarely – means not often
Likely – means probable
Barely – means hardly or scarcely

Answer: Option 2 — Opportune

166. Select the most appropriate synonym of the bold word in the sentence.

This 1998 fiction is about a janitor who is actually a mastermind.

A. Custodian

B. Resentful

C. Jubilant

D. Exultant

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Custodian.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options:-

Janitor– a caretaker or doorkeeper of a building.
Custodian– a person who looks after something, especially a museum, library, etc; a person who has responsibility for taking care of or protecting something.
Resentful– feeling or expressing bitterness or indignation at having been treated unfairly.
Jubilant– feeling or expressing great happiness and triumph.
Exultant– triumphantly happy.

167. Choose the word that is opposite in the meaning of the given word.

BAROQUE

A. Decorative

B. Bizzare

C. Plain

D. Rich

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Plain.

Decorative– serving to make something look more attractive; ornamental.
Baroque– the baroque style or period.
Bizzare– very strange or unusual.
Plain– not decorated or elaborate; simple or basic in character.

The chosen option has the opposite meaning so, this will be our correct answer.

168. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

SHALLOW

A. Narrow

B. Slight

C. Crooked

D. Deep

Solutions

Word: SHALLOW

Meaning: Not deep; lacking depth (can refer to water, emotions, thinking, etc.)

Looking for the opposite (antonym)

Among the options:

Narrow – refers to width, not depth
Slight – means small or minor
Crooked – means bent or not straight
Deep – means having great depth (Opposite of shallow)

Answer: Option 4 — Deep

169. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

RANDOM

A. Specific

B. Casual

C. Formal

D. Irregular

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Specific.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options-

Random: made, done, or happening without method or conscious decision.
Casual: relaxed and unconcerned.
Formal: done in accordance with convention or etiquette; suitable for or constituting an official or important occasion.
Irregular: not even or balanced in shape or arrangement.
Specific: detailed or exact.

As the chosen option expresses the opposite meaning of the given word it will be the correct answer.

170. Select the ANTONYM of the given word.

DIVIDE

A. Split

B. Unite

C. Break

D. Engulf

Solutions

Word: DIVIDE

Meaning: To separate into parts or groups.

Looking for the Antonym (opposite)

Among the options:

Split – synonym of divide
Break – also similar in meaning
Engulf – means to surround or swallow up, not directly opposite
Unite – means to bring together, make whole (Opposite of divide)

Answer: Option 2 — Unite

171. Select the most appropriate antonym of the bold word in the sentence.

She talked at length about the country’s ephemeral integration being shattered by the defeat.

A. Eternal

B. Transitory

C. Mortal

D. Temporal

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Eternal.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options:-

Ephemeral– lasting or used for only a short period of time.
Eternal– without beginning or end; existing or continuing forever.
Transitory– continuing or existing only for a short time.
Mortal– that cannot live forever and must die.
Temporal– connected with the real physical, material world and not to spiritual matters.

172. Select the most appropriate antonym of the bold word in the sentence.

She just gives me a baleful look.

A. Sluggish

B. Baneful

C. Harmless

D. Exciting

Solutions

Word in context: “Baleful”

Sentence: “She just gives me a baleful look.”

Meaning of baleful: Threatening, menacing, or harmful in intent or appearance.

Looking for the opposite (antonym)

Among the options:

Sluggish – means slow or inactive
Baneful – similar in meaning to baleful (harmful)
Exciting – unrelated to threat or harm
Harmless – means not threatening or dangerous (Correct antonym)

Answer: Option 3 — Harmless

173. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Pradeep was so tired that he hit the sack as soon as possible.

A. Left work

B. Went to bed

C. Accepted defeat

D. Kicked the sack

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Went to bed.

This is correct because ‘hit the sack‘ means gone/went to bed.

174. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Their relationship has run into rough weather ever since they fell in love with the same girl.

A. experienced difficulties

B. brought cool breeze and rains

C. become stronger and firmer

D. become pleasant and cordial

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. experienced difficulties.

‘Run into rough weather‘ means to run into ‘difficulties’ or ‘experience’ problems.

175. Choose the option the expresses the meaning of the given Idiom.

Cut to the chase

A. Come to the point

B. To run after somebody

C. To cut out to the important bits of information

D. To take to short cut

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Come to the point.

Idiom: Cut to the chase
Meaning: Come to the point without wasting time.
Example: We don’t have much time, so let’s cut to the chase and discuss the main issue.

As the meaning of the given idiom is the same as the chosen option it will be correct.

176. Choose the option the expresses the meaning of the given Idiom.

At large

A. A very big opportunity

B. A criminal escaped or not yet captured

C. To have a big heart

D. A big appetite

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. A criminal escaped or not yet captured.

The meaning of the given idiom is-

At large– a criminal escaped or not yet captured.

As the meaning of the given idiom is the same as the chosen option it will be the correct answer.

177. Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.

Pull the wool over someone’s eyes

A. to protect someone

B. to keep oneself warm

C. deceive someone by telling lies

D. to pretend to be blind to the other person’s bad behaviour.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. deceive someone by telling lies.

The meaning of the given idiom is-

Pull the wool over someone’s eyes- deceive someone by telling lies

178. Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.

After ones’s own heart

A. sharing or having one’s tastes or views.

B. infatuation with a person which is not reciprocated.

C. memorise something by heart

D. Don’t have the courage to do something bad for a good person

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. sharing or having one’s tastes or views.

The meaning of the given idiom is-

After ones’s own heart- sharing or having one’s tastes or views.

179. Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.

Make a scene

A. to perform beautifully in front of an audience

B. make a public disturbance or excited emotional display

C. to narrate an elaborate false story

D. describe a scene in so much detail that it comes vivid

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. make a public disturbance or excited emotional display.

Idiom: make a scene

Meaning: To behave in a loud or emotional way in public.

Example: She made a scene at the restaurant.

Hence, the chosen option is correct.

180. Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.

Be in force

A. to enjoy a short period of fame or power

B. in great strength or numbers

C. a hateful act done in a haste

D. be the current winner

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. in great strength or numbers.

Idiom: be in force

Meaning: Present in large numbers.

Example: Supporters were in force at the event.

Hence, the chosen option is correct.

181. Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.

Cut to the chase

A. come to the point

B. to run after somebody

C. to cut out the important bites of information

D. to take a short cut

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. come to the point.

The meaning of the given idiom i.e., Cut to the chase is come to the point

182. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Ask for trouble

A. act in a way that is likely to incur problems or difficulties

B. be the self-appointed guardian of your neighborhood

C. a clumsy person who has no work is bound to create trouble for others

D. a clumsy person who keeps making mistakes

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. act in a way that is likely to incur problems or difficulties.

The correct meaning of the given idiom i.e., ask for trouble is act in a way that is likely to incur problems or difficulties.

As the meaning of the given idiom is the same as the chosen option it will be correct.

183. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A. Aversion

B. Affactionete

C. Enjoyable

D. Allay

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Affactionete

Incorrect spelling: Affactionete
Correct spelling: Affectionate
Meaning: Showing fondness or tenderness
Example: The puppy was affectionate and loved to cuddle.

Meaning of the other options:

Aversion: A strong dislike
Enjoyable: Pleasant or fun
Allay: To reduce or relieve

Hence, the chosen option is correct.

184. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A. Prograssive

B. Abominable

C. Detestable

D. Repugnant

Solutions

Let’s check the spelling of each word:

Prograssive
🔺 Incorrect spelling. The correct word is Progressive
Abominable
Correct
Detestable
Correct
Repugnant
Correct

Incorrectly spelt word: Option 1 — Prograssive

Answer: Option 1 — Prograssive

185. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A. Disteste

B. Abortive

C. Unproductive

D. Effectual

Solutions

Let’s check the spelling of each word:

Disteste
🔺 Incorrect spelling. The correct word is Detest or Distaste — “Disteste” is not a valid English word.
Abortive
Correct
Unproductive
Correct
Effectual
Correct

Answer: Option 1 — Disteste (Incorrectly spelt)

186. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

A. Tapestry

B. Icicle

C. Gossypal

D. Futhorc

Solutions

Let’s review the spelling of each word:

Tapestry
Correct spelling — a decorative fabric with designs.
Icicle
Correct spelling — a hanging piece of ice.
Gossypal
Incorrect spelling. The correct word is Gossypol (a toxic pigment from cotton plants).
Futhorc
Correct spelling — refers to the runic alphabet used in Old English.

Answer: Option 3 — Gossypal (Incorrectly spelt)

187. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

A person who betrays his organization can never be successful in the long run.

A. Renegade

B. Mercenary

C. Regalia

D. Charlatan

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Renegade.

While the rest of the options get dismissed.

Mercenary: working or acting merely for money or other reward

Regalia: are the emblems or insignia of royalty,

Charlatan: is a person falsely claiming to have a special knowledge or skill.

188. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A loud appeal or demand

A. Protest

B. Entourage

C. Clamour

D. Gambit

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Clamour.

The meaning of the given words is:

Clamour: A loud and continuous noise made by a group of people or animals, typically shouting, in order to express their strong emotions or dissatisfaction.
Protest: An expression of objection, disapproval, or dissent, often in opposition to something perceived as unfair or unjust.
Entourage: A group of people attending or surrounding an important person, typically to give them assistance or support.
Gambit: A strategy, tactic, or opening move, typically one that involves risk or sacrifice, intended to gain an advantage.

Thus, the most appropriate one word substitution for the given set of words is Clamour.

189. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

An eccentric manner of living

A. Bohemian

B. Numismatist

C. Gourmet

D. Misanthrope

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Bohemian.

The meaning of the given words is:

Intrinsic: Relating to qualities or characteristics that are inherent or essential to something or someone.
Extrinsic: Relating to external or outside influences, factors, or circumstances that are not inherent or essential to something or someone.
Knowledge: The understanding, information, skills, or awareness acquired through learning, experience, or study.
Elemental: Pertaining to the basic, fundamental, or essential aspects or components of something.
Inherent: Referring to qualities, characteristics, or features that are naturally or permanently part of something or someone.

Thus, the most appropriate one word substitution for the given word is Bohemian.

190. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A huge building with a spacious area to house aircrafts.

A. Airport

B. Hanger

C. Hangar

D. House

Solutions

Given phrase: “A huge building with a spacious area to house aircrafts.”

Meaning: The word should refer to a large enclosed space where aircraft are stored or maintained.

Options:

Airport
An airport is a facility for take-off and landing, not specifically the building where aircraft are kept.
Hanger
Incorrect spelling. “Hanger” refers to a clothes hanger.
Hangar
Correct word — A hangar is a large building for housing aircraft.
House
Too general — doesn’t fit the context of aircraft.

Final Answer: Option 3 — Hangar

191. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The emu is the second-largest living bird by height, after its ratite relative, the ostrich. It is endemic to Australia where it is the largest native bird and the only extant member of the genus Dromaius. The emu’s range covers most of mainland Australia, but the Tasmanian, Kangaroo Island, and King Island subspecies became extinct after the European settlement of Australia in 1788. The bird is sufficiently common for it to be rated as a least-concern species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature.

Emus are soft-feathered, brown, flightless birds with long necks and legs, and can reach up to 1.9 meters in height. Emus can travel great distances, and when necessary can sprint at 50 km/h; they forage for a variety of plants and insects but have been known to go for weeks without eating. They drink infrequently but take in copious amounts of water when the opportunity arises.

Breeding takes place in May and June, and fighting among females for a mate is common. Females can mate several times and lay several clutches of eggs in one season. The male does the incubation; during this process, he hardly eats or drinks and loses a significant amount of weight. The eggs hatch after around eight weeks, and the young are nurtured by their fathers. They reach full size after around six months but can remain as a family unit until the next breeding season. The emu is an important cultural icon of Australia, appearing on the coat of arms and various coins. The bird features prominently in Indigenous Australian mythology.

Which among these is not a speciality of Emu?

A. They are infrequent in drinking water.

B. They can go weeks without eating.

C. They can travel great distances.

D. Emu is the largest native bird in the world.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Emu is the largest native bird in the world.

The statement in option 4 is incorrect because Emu is the largest native bird of Australia, not the world.

Hence, option 4 is correct.

192. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

How can we say that Emu is an important cultural icon of Australia?

A. It features prominently in Indigenous Australian mythology.

B. It appears on the coat of arms and various coins.

C. It is the only extant member of the genus Dromaius.

D. They remain as a family unit until the next breeding season.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. It appears on the coat of arms and various coins.

In the last paragraph of this passage, it has been mentioned that “The emu is an important cultural icon of Australia, appearing on the coat of arms and various coins.”

Hence, option 2 is correct.

193. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

How much time does an Emu take to reach its full height after its birth?

A. 21 days

B. Eight weeks

C. Six months

D. One year

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Six months.

The passage cites a line answering this question as “. The eggs hatch after around eight weeks, and the young are nurtured by their fathers. They reach full size after around six months, but can remain as a family unit until the next breeding season.”

Hence, option 3 is correct.

194. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

What is the synonym of the word ‘Indigenous’ as mentioned in the passage?

A. Native

B. Migrant

C. Expatriate

D. Adventitious

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Native.

The meaning of the word ‘Indigenous‘ is originating or occurring naturally in a particular place; native.

The synonym of it is ‘native’ as it means associated with the place or circumstances of a person’s birth.

Hence, option 1 is correct.

195. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Which statement is incorrect as per the passage?

A. Emu is endemic to Australia where it is the largest native bird.

B. Emus are soft-feathered, brown, flightful birds with long necks and legs.

C. They drink infrequently, but take in copious amounts of water when the opportunity arises.

D. The Emu bird features prominently in Indigenous Australian mythology.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Emus are soft-feathered, brown, frightful birds with long necks and legs.

The above-mentioned point is incorrect as per the passage because Emus are soft-feathered, brown, flightless birds with long necks and legs.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

196. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

The Bermuda Triangle is a mythical _____(1)______ of the Atlantic Ocean roughly bounded by Miami, Bermuda and Puerto Rico ______(2)_______ dozens of ships and aeroplanes have _____(3)_______. Unexplained circumstances surround some of these accidents, including one in which the pilots of a squadron of U.S. Navy bombers became disoriented _____(4)_____ flying over the area; the planes were never _____(5)______. Other boats and planes have seemingly vanished from the area in good weather without even radioing distress messages.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (1).

A. division

B. section

C. fraction

D. element

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. section.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options:-

section– one of the parts into which something is divided.
division– the separation of something into different parts; the sharing of something between different people, groups, places, etc.
fraction– a small part or amount.
element– a small amount of something.

The Bermuda triangle is a part of the Atlantic Ocean hence, “section” will suit the blank as it shows the same meaning.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

197. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (2).

A. where

B. when

C. what

D. why

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. where.

“Bermuda triangle” is showing a place here.
“Where” is used to show place hence, “where” will suit the blank.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

198. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (3).

A. retire

B. withdraw

C. evaporate

D. disappeared

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. disappeared.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options:-

disappeared– to become impossible to see or to find.
withdraw– to move or order somebody to move back or away from a place.
evaporate– (used about a liquid) to change into steam or gas and disappear.
retire– to leave your job and stop working, usually because you have reached a certain age.

The paragraph is expressing that whatever went over the “Bermuda Triangle” never came back, the same meaning is shown by the chosen option “become impossible to see or to find.” hence, it will suit the blank.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

199. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (4).

A. while

B. but

C. yet

D. besides

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. while.

While– at the same time as.
The given statement is expressing the same meaning “U..S. Navy bombers became disoriented while flying over the area” hence, the chosen option will make a correct grammatical sense here.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

200. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (5).

A. found

B. find

C. finds

D. finding

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. found.

The given statement is in the passive voice and the structure for it will be-
Subject + was/were + past participle + object.
As the chosen option is a past particle it will suit the black and complete the statement.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

SSC CPO Tier I 2025 Mock Test 2

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