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SSC MTS 2025 Full Test 6

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1. A certain amount is divided into 2 parts in the ratio of 6 ∶ 5. If the first part is 456 rupees, then find the total amount. (In rupees)

A. 836

B. 839

C. 837

D. 838

Solution

Given:

First part = 456 rupees

Ratio = 6 ∶ 5

Formula Used:

Total amount = First part × (Sum of ratios) / Ratio of first part

Calculation:

⇒ Total amount = 456 × (6 + 5) / 6

⇒ Total amount = 456 × 11 / 6

⇒ Total amount = 836 rupees

Therefore, the correct option is 1) 836.

2. What is the average of all prime numbers between 30 and 50?

A. 38.5

B. 39.8

C. 34.2

D. 36.5

Solution

Given:

There are five prime numbers between 30 and 50

Concept Used:

Average = (Sum of the observation)/Number of observation

Calculation:

Prime numbers between 30 and 50 are 31, 37, 41, 43, and 47

⇒ Average = (Sum of the observation)/Number of observation

⇒ Average = (31 + 37 + 41 + 43 + 47)/5

⇒ 199/5

⇒ 39.8

∴ Average of all prime numbers b/w 30 and 50 is 39.8

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

3. The price of a certain laptop is discounted by 20% and the reduced price is then discounted by 20%. This series of successive discounts is equivalent to a single discount of:

A. 20%

B. 26%

C. 30%

D. 36%

Solution

Given:

The price of a certain laptop is discounted by 20%

The reduced price is then discounted by 20%.

Concept used:

Successive formula = (A + B) – (AB/100)

Calculations:

According to the question,

⇒ 20 + 20 – 400/100

⇒ 40 – 4 = 36%

∴ This series of successive discounts is equivalent to a single discount of 36%.

4. What is the difference between the total surface area and the curved surface area of a cone whose radius is 35 cm? (Take π = 22/7)

A. 3850 cm2

B. 3704 cm2

C. 3750 cm2

D. 3675 cm2

Solution

Given:

Radius of cone = r = 35 cm

Concept used:

Curved Surface Area of the cone (CSA) = 22/7 x r x l

Total Surface Area (TSA) – Curved Surface Area of the cone (CSA) = πr2

r = radius of the base

l = slant height of the cone

Base area = πr2 

Calculation:

TSA – CSA = Base Area

TSA – CSA = 22/7 x r x r 

TSA – CSA = 22/7 x 35 x 35

TSA – CSA = 3850 

Hence, the correct answer is option 1).

5. The average weight of 35 students in a class is 40 kgs. Five of the students of this class whose average weight is 42 kgs left the class. Find the average weight of the remaining 30 students.

A. 29 (2/3) kgs

B. 49 (2/3) kgs

C. 39 (2/3) kgs

D. 19 (2/3) kgs

Solution

Given:

The average weight of 35 students in a class = 40 kgs.

Average weight of 5 students who left = 42 kgs.

Formula Used:

Average weight = Total weight / Number of students

Calculation:

Total weight of 35 students = 35 × 40

⇒ Total weight of 35 students = 1400 kgs

Total weight of 5 students who left = 5 × 42

⇒ Total weight of 5 students who left = 210 kgs

Total weight of remaining 30 students = Total weight of 35 students – Total weight of 5 students who left

⇒ Total weight of remaining 30 students = 1400 – 210

⇒ Total weight of remaining 30 students = 1190 kgs

Average weight of remaining 30 students = Total weight of remaining 30 students / 30

⇒ Average weight of remaining 30 students = 1190 / 30

⇒ 119030=3923 kgs

The average weight of the remaining 30 students is 39 (2/3) kgs.

6. The base diameter of a closed cylinder is 20 cm and its height is 11 cm. Find the total surface area of the cylinder. (Use π = 22/7)

A. 1330 cm2

B. 1320 cm2

C. 1325 cm2

D. 1315 cm2

Solution

Given

Diameter of the base = 20 cm

Height of the cylinder = 11 cm

π = 22/7

Concept: 

The total surface area of a closed cylinder is given by the formula 2πr(h + r), where r is the radius and h is the height of the cylinder.

Calculation:

⇒ Radius of the base (r) = Diameter/2 = 20/2 = 10 cm

⇒ Total surface area = 2πr(h + r) = 2 × (22/7) × 10 × (11 + 10) = 1320 cm2

Therefore, the total surface area of the cylinder is 1320 cm2.

7. Shyam drives his car 30 km at a speed of 45 km/h and, for the next 1 h 20 m, he drives it at a speed of 51 km/h. Find his average speed (in km/h) for the entire journey.

A. 48

B. 47

C. 49

D. 48.5

Solution

Given:

Shyam drives his car 30 km at a speed of 45 km/h and, for the next 1 h 20 m, he drives it at a speed of 51 km/h.

Concept used:

Average speed = Total distance/total time

Calculation:

Shyam can go 45 km in 60 min

So, he can go 3 km in 4 min

again, he can go 30 km in 40 min

For next 1 h and 20 min he drived at a speed of 51 km/h

Now, 1 h and 20 min = 4/3 hours [∵ 1 hour = 60 min]

Now,

In 4/3 hours he will go 51 × 4/3 = 68 km

Total distance = 68 + 30 = 98 km

Total time = 40 min + 1 hour 20 min = 2 hours

Average speed = 98/2

⇒ 49 km/h

∴ His average speed (in km/h) for the entire journey was 49.

8. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions based on it.

The table below shows the number of Air coolers sold on different days by five different stores in a city.

 MondayTuesdayWednesdayThursdayFridaySaturdaySunday
P45402848202024
Q92901227162698
R36801330384762
S46606412527634
T18486958801510

What is the average of number of Air coolers sold by the store Q on Thursday, store T on Saturday and store S on Tuesday?

A. 34

B. 52

C. 24

D. 44

Solution

Given:

 MondayTuesdayWednesdayThursdayFridaySaturdaySunday
P45402848202024
Q92901227162698
R36801330384762
S46606412527634
T18486958801510

Calculation:

Number of Air coolers sold by the store Q on Thursday

= 27

Number of Air coolers sold by the store T on Saturday 

= 15

Number of Air coolers sold by store S on Tuesday

= 60

9. Find the time for which compound interest of Rs. 331 was generated on principal of Rs. 1,000 at an annual interest rate of 10%.

A. 1 year

B. 2 years

C. 2.5 years

D. 3 years

Solution

Given:

Interest = 331

Principle = 1000

ROI = 10%

Concept used:

Amount = P(1 + R100R100)n

Calculation:

Let the required time be n years,

Then,

⇒ 1000 + 331 = 1000 (1 + 10/100)n

⇒ 1331/1000 = (11/10)n

⇒ (11/10)3 = (11/10)n

⇒ n = 3 years

∴ Required time period of time is 3 years.

Note: In question 331 is the interest. 

∴ The amount will be 1000 + 331 = 1331. Taking these values we calculate the time.

Alternate MethodP : A = 103 : 113

⇒ 1000 : 1331

Here Interest = 1331 – 1000 = 331

So, in the question,

⇒331 = 331

So, 1000 = 1000

Time = 3 years

10. Study the following bar chart, which represents the income and expenditure of a company.

What is the difference of profit between the years 2001 and 2002?

A. 15 lakhs

B. 5 lakhs

C. 2 lakhs

D. 10 lakhs

Solution

Given:

Income and Expenditure for the year 2001: 60 lakhs and 40 lakhs respectively

Income and Expenditure for the year 2002: 40 lakhs and 30 lakhs respectively

Formula used:

Profit = Income – Expenditure

Difference in Profit = Profit in 2001 – Profit in 2002

Calculation:

Profit in 2001 = 60 – 40

⇒ Profit in 2001 = 20 lakhs

Profit in 2002 = 40 – 30

⇒ Profit in 2002 = 10 lakhs

Difference in Profit = 20 – 10

⇒ Difference in Profit = 10 lakhs

∴ The difference of profit between the years 2001 and 2002 is 10 lakhs.

11.

A. 2

B. 1

C. 3

D. -1

12. The printed value on the book is Rs. 3800, a book seller offers a 10% discount on it. If he still earns 20% profit, then the cost price of the book is (in rupees) –

A. 2870

B. 2880

C. 2850

D. 2860

Solution

Given:

The printed value on the book is Rs. 3800.

A book seller offers a 10% discount on it.

He still earns 20% profit.

Concept Used:

Profit percentage = (Profit / Cost price) × 100 

Calculation:

Let’s assume the purchase price of the book is P rupees.

The book seller offers a 10% discount on the printed value of Rs. 3800, which means the selling price is 90% of the printed value.

Selling price = 90% of Rs. 3800 = (90/100) ×  3800 = Rs. 3420

Since we have a profit of 20%, we can write the equation as:

20 = (Profit / P) × 100

To find the profit amount, we can rearrange the equation:

Profit = (20 × P) / 100

We know that the selling price is the Cost price plus the profit:

Selling price = Cost price + Profit

Rs. 3420 = P + ((20 × P) / 100)

Now, let’s solve this equation to find the purchase price:

Rs. 3420 = P + (0.2 × P)

Rs. 3420 = 1.2 × P

P = Rs. 3420 / 1.2

P = Rs. 2850

Therefore, the purchase price of the book is approximately Rs. 2850.

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

13. Amar buys an old washing machine for Rs. 4,500 and spends Rs. 500 on its repair. If he sells the washing machine for Rs. 4,500, then what is his loss percent ?

A. 6%

B. 8%

C. 10%

D. 12%

Solution

Calculation:

Total cost = Buying price + Repair cost

Rs. 4,500 + Rs. 500

Rs. 5,000

Loss = Total cost – Selling price

Rs. 5,000 – Rs. 4,500

Rs. 500

Loss percentage = (Loss/Total cost) × 100

(500/5,000) × 100

10%

Therefore, Amar has a loss of 10% when selling the washing machine.

14. Find the HCF of

(a – b) (a + 2b), (a2 – b2) (a + 2b), (a + b) (a2 – b2), where a > b> 0

A. a – 2b

B. a – b

C. a + 2b

D. a + b

Solution

Given:

(a – b) (a + 2b), (a2 – b2) (a + 2b), (a + b) (a2 – b2) for HCF

Calculations:

⇒ HCF of (a – b) (a + 2b),

(a – b)(a – b) (a + 2b)
(a + 2b)(a + 2b)
 1

⇒ HCF of (a2 – b2) (a + 2b),

(a – b)(a2 – b2) (a + 2b)
(a + b)(a + b) (a + 2b)
(a + 2b)(a + 2b)
 1


⇒ HCF of (a + b) (a2 – b2)

(a + b)(a + b) (a2 – b2)
(a + b)(a2 – b2)
(a – b)(a – b)
 1


⇒ HCF of (a – b) (a + 2b) = (a – b) × (a + 2b)

⇒ HCF of (a2 – b2) (a + 2b) = (a – b) × (a + 2b) × (a + b)

⇒ HCF of (a + b) (a2 – b2) = (a + b) × (a + b) × (a – b)

⇒ HCF = (a – b)

∴ HCF of the given equations is (a – b).

15. In the mixture of 35 litres, ratio of milk and water is 5 : 2. How much water should be mixed so that this ratio becomes 5 : 3?

A. 10 litres

B. 25 litres

C. 5 litres

D. 12 litres

Solution

Given:

The quantity of mixture = 35 litres

The ratio of milk and water of mixture = 5 : 2

Calculation:

Let the water added be X litres

According to the question

16.

A.

B.

C.

D.

⇒  60/27/4

⇒  240/27

⇒  8 8/9

∴ The total days A and B take together to finish that work is  889889.

Alternate Method Let total work = 4 units  (as 3/4 is mentioned)

If  A can do 3 units in 12 days

Then, A  will do the  whole work (4 units) in = 4 × 12/3  =  16 days

B is  don’t the remaining (4 -3) = 1 unit work in 5 days

So, B  will do the whole  work in = 5 × 4 = 20 days

Now A & B are working together

So, total work  =  LCM of (16, 20)  =  80 units

Efficiency of  A  =  80/16 = 5 units/day

Efficiency of B =  80/20 =  4 units /day

They will do the whole work in = 80/(5+4) = 80/9 days

⇒ 80/9 =  889

17. Find the average.

12, 86, 47, 25, 65 & 5

A. 20

B. 10

C. 30

D. 40

Solution

Given: 12, 86, 47, 25, 65 & 5

The logic follows here is,

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of all the observations)/(The number of observations)

Calculation:

Average = (12 + 86 + 47 + 25 + 65 + 5) / 6

⇒ Average = 240/6

⇒ Average = 40

Hence, the correct answer is “40”.

18. A train covers a distance of 850 metres in 45 seconds. Travelling at the same speed, how many kilometres will the train cover in an hour?

A. 69

B. 67.2

C. 67.5

D. 68

Solution

Given:

Distance covered by the train = 850 metres

Time taken = 45 seconds

Formula Used:

Speed in km/hr = 18/5 × speed in m/sec

Distance = speed × time

Calculation:

Speed in km/hr = 18/5 × 850/45

⇒ 68 km/hr.

Distance = 68 km/hr × 1hr

⇒ 68 km

The train will cover 68 kilometres in an hour.

19. A sum of Rs. 8000 becomes Rs. 21520 when invested in a scheme of simple interest. If the annual rate of interest and the number of years for which the sum was invested are same, then what is the annual rate of interest?

A. 15 percent

B. 14 percent

C. 13 percent

D. 17 percent

Solution

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 8000

Amount (A) = Rs. 21520

Simple Interest (SI) = A – P

Annual rate of interest (R) = Number of years (T)

Formula Used:

Simple Interest formula: SI = P × R × T / 100

Since R = T, we can write SI = P × R2 / 100

Calculation:

SI = 21520 – 8000

⇒ SI = 13520

Using the formula: SI = P × R2 / 100

13520 = 8000 × R2 / 100

⇒ R2 = 13520 × 100 / 8000

⇒ R2 = 169

⇒ R = √169

⇒ R = 13

The annual rate of interest is 13 percent.

20. What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

69 – 44 × 726 ÷ 132 + 58 = ?

A. 369

B. 115

C. 19

D. 135

Solution

BODMAS Table: 

21. Three statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements:

Some Waters are Stagnant.

Some Waters are Rivers.

All Stagnant are Mosquitoes

Concussions:

(I) Some Waters are Mosquitoes.

(II) Some Rivers are Stagnant.

A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Solution

The least possible Venn diagram of given statement is:

Concussions:

(I) Some Waters are Mosquitoes. → True( as some water are stagnant and all stagnant are mosquitoes)

(II) Some Rivers are Stagnant.→ False(as there is no definite relation between rivers and stagnant)

Only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”

22. Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution

The figure which replaces the question mark (?) to complete the figure:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option (4)”.

23. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting equally spaced in a circle facing one another front to front. P is sitting in front of Q.

Q is sitting to the immediate right of T and immediate left of R, P is to the left of U and right of S. Who is sitting opposite to R?

A. P

B. Q

C. S

D. U

Solution

Person : P, Q, R, S, T and U

1) P is sitting in front of Q;

2) Q is sitting to the immediate right of T and immediate left of R;

3) P is sitting to the left of U and right of S.

Hence, the correct answe is “U”.

24. In a certain code language, ‘bottle is blue’ is coded as ‘see mo tu’ and ‘sky is blue’ is coded as ‘mo tu lo’. What is the code for ‘bottle’ in that language?

A. tu

B. mo

C. see

D. lo

Solution

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes the code ‘see’ is for the word ‘bottle’.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

25. In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is same as that on the right side of ::?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

X : 68.4 :: 22 : Y

A. X = 22, Y = 74.8

B. X = 14, Y = 68.8

C. X = 18, Y = 83.6

D. X = 16, Y = 70.4

Solution

The logic followed here is: 1st number × 3.8 = 2nd number.

X : 68.4 → X × 3.8 = 68.4 → X = 68.4 / 3.8 = 18

Similarly, 

22 : Y → 22 × 3.8  = 83.6

Hence, the correct answer is “X = 18, Y = 83.6”

26. If ‘TERMINATES’ is coded as ‘JNSFUTFUBO’ and ‘TOWERS’ is coded as ‘XPUTSF’, then how will ‘MOVEMENT be coded in the same code?

A. BNDSUOFN

B. FWPNUOFN

C. UFNBNFOP 

D. FUBNUONF

Solution

The logic follows here is:

  • ‘TERMINATES’ is coded as ‘JNSFUTFUBO’​

and

  • ‘TOWERS’ is coded as ‘XPUTSF’

​

similarly,

  •  ‘MOVEMENT’ will be coded as:

Hence, the correct answer is “FWPNUOFN“.

27. Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) and complete the following letter-cluster series?

UH, BD, IA, PY, ?

A. VX

B. WW

C. WY

D. WX

Solution

The logic followed here is:

Hence, ‘WX‘ is the correct answer.

28. Amit, Gaurav, Hatim, Varun, Yukti and Zaid are sitting in a straight line, all facing the north. Gaurav is fourth to the left of Amit. Yukti is sitting at one corner. Hatim is fourth to the left of Yukti. Zaid is third to the right of Gaurav. Who is sitting at the second place to the left of Zaid?

A. Yukti

B. Varun 

C. Hatim

D. Amit 

Solution

Total 6 persons facing north:-  Amit, Gaurav, Hatim, Varun, Yukti and Zaid.

1) Hatim is fourth to the left of Yukti.

2) Yukti is sitting at one corner.

3) Gaurav is fourth to the left of Amit.

4) Zaid is third to the right of Gaurav.

5) Only Varun is left which is sitting in a blank place.

Hence, ‘Hatim’ is sitting in the second place to the left of Zaid.

Hence, the correct answer is “Hatim”.

29. select the option that will replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

6, 18, 36. 108, 216, ? 

A. 648

B. 348

C. 432

D. 532

Solution

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

30. In a code language, ‘SPACE’ is written as ‘5-91’ and ‘ROTTEN’ is written as ‘6-70’. How will ‘MEAN’ be written in that language?

A. 4-75

B. 4-74

C. 4-73

D. 4-76

Solution

The logic followed here is:

Number of letters = 1st number

Sum of the opposite position value of the given alphabet = 2nd Number

‘SPACE’ is written as ‘5-91’ 

SPACE = 5 letters

8 + 11 + 26 + 24+ 22 = 91 

And

‘ROTTEN’ is written as ‘6-70’

ROTTEN = 6 letters

9 + 12 + 7 + 7 + 22 + 13 = 70

Similarly,

MEAN is written as 4-75

MEAN = 4 letters

14 + 22 + 26 + 13 = 75 

Hence, “Option 1” is the correct answer.

31. Select the option which has the same relation with the third term as the second term is related to the first term.

MORSEL : ELMORS :: SARDINE:?

A. ADNIERS

B. EDAINRS

C. ADENIRS

D. ADEINRS

Solution

The position of letters according to the English alphabet sereis:

MORSEL: ELMORS

Similarly,

SARDINE: ‘?’

Hence, the correct answer is “ADEINRS”

32. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting clockwise around a circular table in the same sequence at equal distances between them. All are facing the centre of the table. If E is sitting in the north-west, then in which direction is G facing?

A. South-West

B. South-East

C. North-West

D. North-East

Solution

Given : 

  • Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
  • They are sitting clockwise around a circular table in the same sequence at equal distances between them.
  • All are facing the center of the table.

Explanation :

  • E is sitting in the north-west :

​

Thus, according to the final arrangement, G is in the South-West direction.

Hence, “South-West” is the correct answer.

33. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

16 : 69 :: 24 : ? :: 31 : 144

A. 109

B. 121

C. 116

D. 105

Solution

The logic followed here is:

Logic : (First number × 5) – 11 = Second number

• 16 : 69

⇒ (16 × 5) – 11

⇒ 80 – 11 = 69

• 31 : 144

⇒ (31 × 5) – 11 

⇒ 155 – 11 = 144

Similarly, 24 : ?

⇒ (24 × 5) – 11

⇒ 120 – 11 = 109

Hence, ‘109’ is the correct answer.

34. In the question below, a statement is followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions and select the correct option as the answer.

Statement

Y = M < N < B = D; M > Z; N < J

Conclusions.

I. Z < J

II. D > J 

A. Only I follow

B. Both I and II follow

C. Either I or II follow

D. Only II follow

Solution

Given: 

Y = M < N < B = D; M > Z; N < J

Conclusion I: Z < J → True

On combining all three statements, we get;

Z < M < N < J 

Conclusion II: D > J 

On combining the first and third statements, we get;

J > N < B = D → False

So, in this arrangement, no definite relation can be found between D and J. 

Hence, the correct answer is “Only I follow”.

35. Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution

The embedded part of this image is:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option (4)”.

36. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct?

18 × 6 − 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = −43

A. − and +

B. × and ÷

C. × and +

D. × and −

Solution

Given equation: 18 × 6 − 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = −43.

BODMAS Table: 

Let’s check each option one by one.

Option 1) − and +

Given: 18 × 6 − 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = −43

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 18 × 6 + 12 ÷ 4 – 2 = −43

⇒ 18 × 6 + 3 – 2 = −43

⇒ 108 + 3 – 2 = −43

⇒ 111 – 2 = -43

⇒ 109 ≠ -43

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) × and ÷

Given: 18 × 6 − 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = −43

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 18 ÷ 6 − 12 × 4 + 2 = −43

⇒ 3 − 12 × 4 + 2 = −43

⇒ 3 − 48 + 2 = −43

⇒ 3 − 48 + 2 = −43

⇒ 5 − 48 = −43

⇒ -43 = -43

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) × and +

Given: 18 × 6 − 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = −43

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 18 + 6 − 12 ÷ 4 × 2 = −43

⇒ 18 + 6 − 3 × 2 = −43

⇒ 18 + 6 − 6 = −43

⇒ 24 – 6 = −43

⇒ 18 ≠ −43

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) × and –

Given: 18 × 6 − 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = −43

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 18 – 6 × 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = −43

⇒ 18 – 6 × 3 + 2 = −43

⇒ 18 – 18 + 2 = −43

⇒ 20 – 18 = −43

⇒ 2 ≠ −43

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

37. If the numbers 20 and 28 are interchanged then which of the following equations can be correctly balanced?

A. 24 × 3 + 28 – 20 ÷ 7 = 78

B. 45 ÷ 15 + 20 – 28 × 3 = 39

C. 20 + 40 × 28 ÷ 4 – 14 = 214

D. 36 ÷ 4 × 3 + 28 – 20 = 24

Solution

Let’s check each option:

  • Option 1: 24 × 3 + 28 – 20 ÷ 7 = 78

After interchanging:

⇒ 24 × 3 + 20 – 28 ÷ 7 = 78 (using BODMAS rule)

⇒ 24 × 3 + 20 – 4 = 78

⇒ 72 + 20 – 4 = 78

⇒ 92 – 4 = 78

⇒ 88 = 78, this is not possible.

  • Option 2: 45 ÷ 15 + 20 – 28 × 3 = 39

​After interchanging:

⇒ 45 ÷ 15 + 28 – 20 × 3 = 39

⇒ 3 + 28 – 20 × 3 = 39

⇒ 3 + 28 – 60 = 39

⇒ 31 – 60 = 39

⇒ – 29 = 39, this is not possible.

  • Option 3: 20 + 40 × 28 ÷ 4 – 14 = 214

​After interchanging:

⇒ 28 + 40 × 20 ÷ 4 – 14 = 214

⇒ 28 + 40 × 5 – 14 = 214

⇒ 28 + 200 – 14 = 214

⇒ 228 – 14 = 214

⇒ 214 = 214, this is correct.

  • Option 4: 36 ÷ 4 × 3 + 28 – 20 = 24

​After interchanging:

⇒ 36 ÷ 4 × 3 + 20 – 28 = 24

⇒ 9 × 3 + 20 – 28 = 24

⇒ 27 + 20 – 28 = 24

⇒ 47 – 28 = 24

⇒ 19 = 24, this is not possible.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

38. In a certain code language, ‘RESENT’ is written as ‘TGUCLR’ and ‘PEOPLE’ is written as ‘RGQNJC’. How is ‘PERSON’ written in the given language?

A. RGTQML

B. RGTQMP

C. RGSUQL

D. RGTUQP

Solution

The logic followed here is:

‘RESENT’ is written as ‘TGUCLR’,

‘PEOPLE’ is written as ‘RGQNJC’

Similarly, for ‘PERSON’

So, ‘PERSON’ will be coded as ‘RGTQML’.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

39. Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Solution

The logic followed here is:

When the mirror is placed vertically to the objects/ alphabets, then the image will be laterally inverted. In other words, the Left Hand Side and the Right Hand Side will interchange their positions, while top and bottom will remain same.

Therefore, only option (2) shows the correct mirror image.

Hence, the correct answer is option(2)

40. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

20 : 480 :: 25 : ?

A. 700

B. 725

C. 655

D. 625

Solution

The logic followed here is :-

First number2 + (First number × 4)

20 : 480 → 202 + (20 × 4) = 400 + 80 = 480

Similarly,

25 : ? → 252 + (25 × 4) = 625 + 100 = 725

Hence, the correct answer is “725”.

41. The idea of constitution of India’s Constituent Assembly was first presented by whom?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Manabendra Nath Roy

D. Sardar Patel

Solution

The Correct Answer is Manabendra Nath Roy.

Key Points

  • Manabendra Nath Roy
    • The idea of the Constituent Assembly of India was first proposed by Manabendra Nath Roy.
    • Roy was a pioneer of the communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democracy.
    • The proposal was made in 1934, much before the actual formation of the Constituent Assembly.
    • The Constituent Assembly was eventually formed in 1946 to draft the Constitution of India, leading to India’s independence in 1947.

Additional Information

Constituent AssemblyDescription
Formation Year1946
ObjectiveTo draft the Constitution of India
First PresidentDr. Sachchidananda Sinha (temporary)
Permanent ChairmanDr. Rajendra Prasad
Adopted Constitution26 November 1949
Enacted Constitution26 January 1950

42. A parliamentary executive means:

A. Executive where there is a parliament

B. Executive elected by the parliament

C. Where the parliament functions as the Executive

D. Executive that is dependent on support of the majority in the parliament

Solution

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

Parliamentary Executive

  • In the parliamentary system, the executive can be effectively controlled by the representatives of the people.
  • The makers of the Indian Constitution wanted to ensure that the government would be sensitive to public expectations and would be responsible and accountable.
  • The other alternative to the parliamentary executive was the presidential form of government. However, the presidential executive puts much emphasis on the president as the chief executive and as the source of all executive power.
  • There is always the danger of a personality cult in the presidential executive.
  • The makers of the Indian Constitution wanted a government that would have a strong executive branch, but at the same time, enough safeguards should be there to check against the personality cult.
  •  In the parliamentary form, there are many mechanisms that ensure that the executive will be answerable to and controlled by the legislature or people’s representatives. So the Constitution adopted the parliamentary system of the executive for the governments both at the national and state levels. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • According to this system, there is a President who is the formal Head of the state of India and the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, which run the government at the national level. At the State level, the executive comprises the Governor and the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.

43. After which war did Babur hold the title of Ghazi? 

A. Battle of Ghaghra

B. Battle of Chausa

C. Battle of Khanwa

D. Battle of Panipat

Solution

Answer: (c); Battle of Khanwa

  • After the Battle of Khanwa Babur holds the title of Ghazi.
  • The Battle of Khanwa was the second major battle fought in modern-day India, by the first Mughal Emperor Babur after the Battle of Panipat.
  • Babur attacked India 5 times. Babur’s first attack on India was against the Yusufzai caste in 1519 AD.
  •  In the first war of Panipat, Babur used the “Tulugama” war policy and artillery for the first time.
  • The first battle of Panipat -1526 (Between Ibrahim Lodi and Babur)
  • Battle of Khanwa -1527 (Between Rana Sanga and Babur)
  • Battle of Chanderi – 1528 (Between Medini Rai and Babur)
  • Battle of Ghaghra – 1529 (Between Afghan and Babur)

44. The land grants that the Brahmins received were called ______.

A. Ur

B. Brahmadeya

C. Nagaram

D. Sabha

Solution

The correct answer is Brahmadeya.

Key Points

  • The land grants that the Brahmanas received were known as brahmadeyas.
  • Each brahmadeya was looked after by an assembly called sabha.
  • These assemblies worked very efficiently and their decisions were recorded in detail in inscriptions.
  • The earliest royal land grant inscription that mentions the word “Brahmadeya” was discovered from the 3rd century CE of the reign of Brihatphala yana King Jayavarman.

 Thus, we can say that the land grants that the Brahmins received were called Brahmadeya.

Additional Information

  • Settlements of peasants were knownas Ur.
  • Nagarams were associations of traders.

45. What is the meaning of term ‘Kathak’ ? 

A. Story – tellers

B. Love and music

C. Story translator

D. Love of literature

Solution

The correct answer is Storytellers

Key Points

  • The term Kathak is derived from the Sanskrit word katha, meaning “story,” and kathakar, meaning “the storyteller.”
  • Kathak is one of the classical dance forms of India and originated in North India.
  • It involves expressive storytelling through dance, gestures, and facial expressions, often narrating tales from Hindu epics like the Mahabharata and Ramayana.
  • Traditionally, Kathak dancers were storytellers who travelled, recounting legends and stories with music, dance, and mime.

46. Where is India’s first Constitution Museum located?

A. Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

B. Sonipat, Haryana

C. Delhi, National Capital Region

D. Chandigarh, Punjab

Solution

The correct answer is Sonipat, Haryana.

Key Points

  • India’s first Constitution Museum is located in Sonipat, Haryana, at O.P. Jindal Global University (JGU).
  • The museum will commemorate the 75th anniversary of the Indian Constitution and aims to educate the public on its history and significance.
  • It features cutting-edge technology, AI-driven interactive experiences, 3-D installations, and sculptures celebrating the values of the Constitution.
  • The museum’s design incorporates multiple formats to demystify the Constitution and make it accessible to a wide audience.

Additional Information

  • The museum is dedicated to the Constitution of India and the individuals who played a pivotal role in its drafting, including Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, known as the Architect of the Constitution.
  • The museum will also host interactive exhibits about the Constituent Assembly members and their contributions to India’s foundational legal document.
  • In addition to showcasing the history of the Constitution, the museum will feature works of art and sculptures symbolizing the core principles of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity.
  • The inauguration of the museum is a part of the commemoration of Constitution Day, celebrated on November 26 each year.

47. Stress at any point in a material is defined as –

A. Load per unit time

B. Young’s modulus of elasticity per unit strain

C. Modulus of rigidity

D. Resisting force per unit area

Solution

Explanation:

StressPressure
Stress can be defined as the internal resistive force to the deformation per unit area.Pressure can be defined as the amount of force applied per unit area.
Stress may be tensile, compressive and shear in nature.The pressure is always compressive in nature.
Stress is developed internally.The pressure is exerted externally.
Due to stress, the pressure will not be developed.Due to pressure, stress will be developed.
Stress can be either a positive or negative physical quantity.The pressure is always a positive physical quantity.
Stress can act both parallel and perpendicular to the object.Pressure can act only perpendicular to the object.
Unit of stress N/m2.Unit of pressure N/m2.

Important Points

  • Stress is mostly used in the case of solid and Pressure is most commonly used for fluids i.e. liquid or gas.
  • In the viscous flow of fluids shear stress is used but there is no meaning of tensile or compressive stress in fluids.

48. With which of the following States / Union Territories is the Naropa festival associated?

A. Ladakh

B. Assam

C. Bihar

D. Puducherry

Solution

The correct answer is Ladakh

Key Points

  • Naropa Festival is also referred to as the Kumbha of Ladakh or Himalayas. 
  • Naropa Festival takes place every 12 years in the Tibetan calendar to celebrate the life of Buddhist philosopher and scholar Naropa. 
  • Naropa Festival is held at the famous Hemis Monastery, which lies at some 40 km from Leh. It is one of the biggest and most important Buddhist monasteries in the country. 

Additional Information

  • Naropa (1016 – 1100 CE) was an Indian Scholar-Saint who heralded the beginning of a rich tradition in Buddhist philosophy. 
  • His teachings of the Six Yogas of Naropa are among the fundamental pillars of Vajrayana Buddhist tradition. 
  • He embraced a spiritual life at an early age and became the Chancellor of the Nalanda University in Bihar. Because of his intellectual agility and fierce oratory skills, he became the “Northern Gatekeeper” of Nalanda – a moniker of great distinction. 
  • His Guru was Tilopa. 
  • Naropa wore the Six Bone Ornaments upon attaining enlightenment. The Crown, Earring, Necklace, Bracelets and Anklets, Seralkha, and Ogpag.
  • The major festivals celebrated in Assam are Bihu, Baishagu, Ali-Ai-Ligang, Baikho, Rongker, Rajini Gabra Harni Gabra, Bohaggiyo Bishu, Ambubashi Mela and Jonbill Mela and so on.
  • The religious festivals of Bihar are Chhath Puja, Buddha Jayanti at Bodh Gaya, Sonepur Cattle Fair, Rajgir Mahotsav, Sama – Chakeva in Mithila, Diwali in Bihar, and Makar Sankranti.
  • The festivals of Puducherry are Pongal, Masi Mangam, Villianur temple car festival, Bastille festival, and so on.

49. Which of the following is a severe form of malnutrition that commonly affects infants and toddlers, most often around the age of weaning through age 5?

A. Bacterial meningitis

B. Diarrhoea

C. Pneumonia

D. Kwashiorkor

Solution

The correct answer is Kwashiorkor.

Key Points

  • ​Kwashiorkor is a form of malnutrition distinguished by a significant lack of protein.
  • It results in abdominal swelling and fluid retention.
  • Kwashiorkor most frequently impacts children.
  • It is more prevalent in developing nations with high levels of poverty and food insecurity.
  • Kwashiorkor patients may have enough food to eat, but not enough protein.
  • Kwashiorkor can be corrected by eating more protein and more calories overall.

Additional Information

  • Bacterial meningitis:
    • Meningitis is an infection of the meninges, which surround and shield the brain and spinal cord.
  • Diarrhoea:
    • Having three or more loose or liquid faeces in a day, or more frequently than usual, is considered to be diarrhoea.
  • Pneumonia:
    • Pneumonia causes the air sacs in one or both lungs to become inflamed.
    • Pus or fluid may accumulate in the air sacs. 

50. Ustad Zakir Hussain is an exponent of which of the following musical instruments? 

A. Santoor 

B. Tabla

C. Sitar

D. Sarod

Solution

The correct answer is Tabla.

Key Points

  • Ustad Zakir Hussain, son of tabla maestro Ustad Allah Rakha, is today India’s most famous classical tabla player.
    • He is highly appreciated in the field of percussion and in the music world at large.
    • He was awarded the Padma Shri in the year 1988 and the Padma Bhushan in 2002.
    • His list of awards also includes the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, given by India’s National Academy of Music, Dance, and Drama, which he received in 1990.

Additional Information

  • Sitar is also a popular musical instrument that has a long neck.
  • Ustad Imrat Khan and Pandit Ravishankar are famous Sitar players.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi Award winner and Padma Vibhushan, Pt Shivkumar Sharma is credited with giving santoor a classical status among the ranks of sitar and sarod.
  • Amjad Ali Khan Bangash is an Indian classical sarod player, best known for his clear and fast ‘ekhara taans’.
  • Hariprasad Chaurasia is an Indian music director and classical flutist, who plays the bansuri.

51. Which one of the following States will be directly connected with Assam by the proposed bridge between Dhubri and Phulbari over river Brahmaputra?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Meghalaya

C. West Bengal

D. Mizoram

Solution

The correct answer is: Meghalaya

 Key Points

  • The proposed bridge between Dhubri and Phulbari over river Brahmaputra in India will directly connect the state of Assam with the state of Meghalaya.
  • The bridge will be located near the town of Phulbari in the West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya and will connect to the town of Dhubri in the state of Assam.
  • The bridge is expected to reduce travel time between the two states and promote economic development in the region.
  • The project is part of the government’s efforts to improve connectivity and infrastructure in the northeastern region of India.

52. Which city won the Smart Cities India Award 2020?

A. Varanasi 

B. Bengaluru  

C. Surat

D. Pune

Solution

The correct answer is Surat.

Key Points

  • Smart City Mission was launched in the year 2015.
  • Aim: To build 100 Smart Cities.
  • The Smart City Scheme is a 5-year plan, out of which West Bengal is excluded.
  • Financial assistance will be provided to the selected cities by the Central and State Government between 2017-2022.
  • The entire effect of this plan will start to be seen from 2022 onwards.
  • To make this plan a success, a full-time CEO will be appointed who will always lead the Smart City Mission.
  • At least one city from every state and union territory of India can participate in the smart city mission.

53. In the election held in 1937, in which two provinces was the Indian National Congress not able to emerge as the single largest party?  

A. Punjab and Sind  

B. Assam and North-West Frontier Province 

C. Punjab and Assam 

D. Assam and Madras

Solution

The correct answer is Punjab and Sind.

Key Points

  • Provincial elections were held in British India in the winter of 1936–37 as ordered by the Government of India Act 1935.
    • Elections were held in 11 provinces – Madras, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP, Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.
    • In the 1937 elections, the Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight provinces – Bengal, Punjab and Sindh being the three exceptions.
    • The final results of the elections were declared in February 1937. The Congress emerged in power in eight provinces – the exceptions being Punjab and Sindh.
    • Of the total 11 provinces, Congress formed ministries in 8 provinces – Madras, UP, Bombay, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, Assam and NWFP.
    • In 2 provinces, Punjab and Sindh, the Congress was in alliance with regional parties.
    • Muslim League was the largest party in Bengal, it did not have a majority. The Muslim League was unable to form a government in any province.

54. ‘Lavani’ is the famous dance form of which state?

A. Manipur

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Meghalaya

D. Maharashtra

Solution

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • ‘Lavani’ is the famous dance form of Maharashtra state.
  • Lavani:
    • It is a combination of traditional song and dance, which is particularly performed to the beats of the Dholki, a percussion instrument.
    • Lavani is noted for its powerful rhythm.
    • Lavani has contributed substantially to the development of Marathi folk theatre.
    • In Maharashtra and southern Madhya Pradesh, it is performed by female performers wearing nine-yard-long sarees.
    • The songs are sung in a quick tempo.
    • Lavani dance originated in Maharashtra in the 18th and 19th centuries.
    • Lavani dancers were patronized by Maratha Lords and Kings.
    • Lavani dance was generally performed by Dhangars or shepherds living in Solapur, Maharashtra.
    • Traditionally, this genre of folk dance deals with different and varied subject matters such as society, religion, and politics.
    • The songs in ‘Lavani’ are mostly erotic in sentiment and the dialogues tend to be pungent in socio-political satire.
    • Originally, it was used as a form of entertainment and morale booster for tired soldiers.

55. Who recommended the inclusion 8 fundamental duties of citizens in the Indian Constitution?

A. President

B. Drafting Committee

C. Swaran Singh Committee

D. Constituent Assembly

Solution

The correct answer is Swaran Singh Committee.

Key Points

  • Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties of the citizens.
  • The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of 8 Fundamental Duties in our constitution.
  • But the 42nd Amendment Act inducted 10 fundamental Duties.
  • The Fundamental duties in the Indin constitution are inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
  • Some of the Fundamental duties are as follows:
    • To abide by the Constitution, respects its ideals, national flag and national anthem.
    • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
    • To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of enquiry.
    • To safeguard property and abjure violence.

 Thus, we can say that the inclusion of 8 Fundamental duties was recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee.

56. In which of the following do the Tapti and Narmada rivers fall?

A. Bay of Bengal

B. Arabian Sea

C. Indian Ocean

D. Pacific Ocean

Solution

The correct answer is Arabian Sea.

Key Points

  • Tapti and Narmada rivers fall into the Arabian Sea.
  • The other rivers that flow into the Arabian Sea are Sindhu, Purna, and Sabarmati.

Additional Information

  • Narmada River – Also known as Reva.
    • It is also known as the “Life Line of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat“.
    • State – Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat
    • Basin area – 98,796 km2
    • Length – 1,312 km
    • Source –  Narmada Kund (Vindhyachal Parvat Amarkantak Plateau, Anuppur district, Madhya Pradesh)
    • Mouth – Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea), Bharuch District, Gujarat​​
  • Tapi River – ​
    • State – Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat
    • Basin area – 62,225 km2
    • Length – 724 km
    • Source – Multai, Madhyapradesh
    • Mouth –  Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea), Dumas, Surat, Gujarat​

57. Which one of the following States/Union Territories has the highest percentage of Mangrove area to the total geographical area?

A. Gujarat

B. West Bengal

C. Andaman and Nicobar

D. Tamil Nadu

Solution

The correct answer is Andaman and Nicobar.

Key Points

Mangrove (According to the State Forest report 2021):

  • These are a diverse group of salt-tolerant plant communities in tropical and subtropical intertidal regions of the world.
  • Sunderban, located in the northern Bay of Bengal is the world’s largest single patch of Mangrove Forests. Spread over approximately 10,000 sq km, in Bangladesh and India.
  • The mangrove cover in India is 4,992 sq km, which is 0.15% of the country’s total geographical area.
  • Increase in the mangrove cover as compared to the 2019 assessment: 17 sq km.
StateTotal Area (Km2)Mangrove Area (Km2)% of Mangrove to total Area
Andaman and Nicobar82496167.47
West Bengal8875221142.38
Gujarat19602411750.6
Tamil Nadu130058450.034
  • Hence, from the above table, it is clear that Andaman and Nicobar have the highest percentage of Mangrove area to the total geographical area

58. Pattadakal, a UNESCO world heritage site, is located on the banks of River ______.

A. Tungabhadra

B. Malaprabha

C. Ghataprabha

D. Bhima

Solution

The correct answer is Malaprabha.

Key Points

  • Pattadakal, a UNESCO World Heritage Site,  is situated on the banks of the Malaprabha River.
  • It provides evidence of the wealth of Chalukyan architecture from the 7th and 8th centuries.
  • It is renowned for its intricately chiselled temples.
  • It comprises a collection of 10 significant temples, each with a unique architectural style.
  • The settlement was referred to as “Perti gal” by the renowned geographer Ptolemy (about 150 AD).
  • It was even used as the ceremonial centre where kings were crowned and commemorated.
  • The temple complex at Pattadakal features Dravidian, Aryan, and a combination of the two architectural styles.
  • It is also the venue for the Pattadakal Dance Festival or Chalukya Utsava with performers from all over the world congregating here. ​

Additional Information

  • Tungabhadra:
    • The majority of the Tungabhadra River’s course is in the Indian state of Karnataka.
    • It then passes through the border states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh until coming together with the Krishna River next to Gundimalla village in the Jogulamba Gadwal district of Telangana.
    • The river’s water is renowned for being sweet and is regarded as the sweetest water in the entire world.
  • Ghataprabha:
    • The Ghataprabha River, a significant right-bank tributary of the Krishna River, travels 283 kilometres east of Chikksangam before joining the Krishna River.
  • Bhima:
    • The Bhima River often referred to as the Chandrabhaga River, is a significant river in both South and Western India.
    • It travels through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana for 861 kilometers before emptying into the Krishna River.

59. According to the Census 2011, which major Indian state is the most urbanized?  

A. Maharashtra

B. Punjab

C. Karnataka

D. Tamil Nadu

Solution

The correct answer is:Tamil Nadu
The question pertains to the level of urbanization within major Indian states as per the data from the Census 2011. Urbanization refers to the population shift from rural to urban areas, and the growth of urban areas as a result of this movement.

 Key Points

  • The Census 2011 provides comprehensive data on the demographic features of India, including levels of urbanization across different states.
  • Maharashtra, Punjab, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu were among the major contenders for the most urbanized state according to the 2011 Census data.
  • Urbanization is measured by the percentage of the population living in urban areas compared to the total population of the state.

60. Who has been appointed as the vice chancellor of Universal AI University, India’s first AI-dedicated institution?

A. Simon Mak

B. Tarundeep Singh Anand

C. Dr. R. M. Chitnis

D. Rahul Vishwanath Karad

Solution

The correct answer is Simon Mak

In News

  • Universal AI University (UAIU) is India’s pioneering institution dedicated to Artificial Intelligence.
  • Simon Mak has been appointed as the vice chancellor of UAIU.

Key Points

  • This appointment marks the first time a foreign national has been named as the founding vice chancellor of an Indian university.
  • Simon Mak brings experience from Silicon Valley startups and academia.
  • He will work closely with Tarundeep Singh Anand, the university’s chancellor.
  • Mak’s credentials include a B.Tech from MIT and an MBA and Ph.D. from the SMU Cox School of Business.
  • His previous role was as executive director of the Caruth Institute for Entrepreneurship at SMU Cox.
  • Mak aims to elevate UAIU’s global standing and maintain ethical standards in education.

61. Doctor advised a 2D lens for a person for good vision. What is its focal length in cm?

A. 100

B. 10

C. 50

D. 40

Solution

The correct option is 50.CONCEPT:
 Power of Lens:

  • The reciprocal of a lens’s focal length is known as its power.
  • The letter P is used to denote it.
  • Dioptre is the SI word for a lens’s power.
  • P=1fP=1f
  • Where P is the Power of the lens and f is the focal length in meters.

CALCULATION:
GIVEN: 

Power – 2D

Additional Information

Focal Length:

  • The focal length is the distance between the focus and the optical center.
  • It is denoted by f. 

62. India moves closer to 5th-gen fighter jet, approves Rs 15,000-crore plan. Which two countries currently operate fifth-generation stealth fighter jets, apart from the planned Indian AMCA?

A. Russia and UK

B. France and Israel

C. US and China

D. Germany and Japan

Solution

The Correct Answer is ​US and China.

In News

  • India moves closer to 5th-gen fighter jet, approves Rs 15,000-crore plan.

Key Points

  • Defence Minister Rajnath Singh approved the execution model for the AMCA project.
  • AMCA: Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft, fifth-generation stealth fighter jet.
  • Initial cost approved: ₹15,000 crore.
  • AMCA designed for missions: Air Superiority, Ground Strikes, SEAD, and Electronic Warfare.
  • Aircraft type: Single-seat, twin-engine, medium-weight fighter jet.
  • Stealth features: All-aspect stealth, internal weapons bay, sensor fusion, and supercruise capability.
  • Operational altitude: Up to 55,000 feet; takeoff weight ~25 tonnes.
  • Engine: Mk1 uses GE F414 (US); Mk2 to feature indigenous engine (via foreign collaboration).
  • India may become 3rd country (after US & China) to field such jets.

63. In _______, a crisis in the balance of payments led to the introduction of economic reforms in India.

A. 1997

B. 1991

C. 2001

D. 1981

Solution

The correct answer is 1991.

Key Points

  • The economic crisis in the balance of payments was triggered by a sharp increase in oil prices, which led to a surge in imports and a depletion of foreign exchange reserves.
  • The government of India was forced to seek a bailout loan from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to avoid defaulting on its external debt payments.
  • As a condition for the loan, the IMF demanded a set of economic reforms that aimed to address the structural weaknesses of the Indian economy, including its high fiscal deficit, inflation, and inefficient public sector enterprises.
  • The reforms, known as the New Economic Policy (NEP) or the Liberalization-Privatization-Globalization (LPG) policy, included measures such as reducing trade barriers, deregulating industries, attracting foreign investment, and cutting subsidies.
  • The NEP was controversial and faced opposition from various quarters, including political parties, trade unions, and farmers, who argued that it favored big businesses and foreign interests at the expense of domestic industries and workers.

Additional Information

  • 1997 was not a significant year in India’s economic history. It was a year of relative stability and growth, with the economy expanding at a rate of around 7%.
  • 2001 was a year of global economic slowdown and uncertainty, following the dot-com bubble burst and the 9/11 attacks. India’s economy was affected by these events, but it did not experience a crisis in the balance of payments.
  • 1981 was a year of economic difficulties for India, marked by high inflation, low growth, and a fiscal deficit. However, it was not a year of balance of payments crisis, as India had a surplus in its current account and foreign exchange reserves.

64. Identify the person who was the first to start the individual Satyagraha and was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership in 1958.

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

C. Jawahar Lal  Nehru

D. Vinoba Bhave

Solution

The correct answer is Vinoba Bhave.

Key Points

  • Vinoba Bhave was the first person to start the individual Satyagraha.
  • The centrepiece of Individual Satyagraha was Non-violence.
  • The first Satyagrahi selected for this Satyagraha was Vinoba Bhave who was sent to jail when he spoke against the war.
  • He was followed nearly by 25,000 individual satyagraha.
  • The demand of the Satyagrahi was to use freedom of speech against the war through an anti-war declaration.
  • In December 1940, Gandhi suspended the movement and the campaign started again in January 1941.
  • Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and Brahma Dutt were the second and third selected Satyagarhi respectively
  • The campaign started again and this time thousands of people joined and around 20,000 people were arrested in January 1941.
  • Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and Brahma Dutt were also sent to jail for violating the Defence of India Act.

Additional Information

  • Some important Life Facts of Vinoba Bhave –
    • He started the Sarvodaya Movement which meant ‘Progress for all’.
    • In 1951, Bhave started the Bhoodan Movement in Pochampally, Telangana.
    • He was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership in 1958.
    • In 1983, he received the Bharat Ratna posthumously.

65. Under which initiative was the seminar, discussing strategies for rehabilitating beggars, the homeless, and the destitute, held by the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment in collaboration with the World Bank?

A. SMILE (Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise)

B. SHINE (Social Help for Inclusive Network Enterprises)

C. SMILE (Sustainable Measures for Inclusive Livelihood and Employment)

D. SMILE (Social Mobilisation for Integrated Livelihood Enterprises)

Solution

The correct answer is SMILE (Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise).

In News

  • The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE), in collaboration with the World Bank, hosted a seminar in the national capital under the SMILE initiative to discuss strategies for rehabilitating beggars, the homeless, and the destitute.

Key Points

  • The seminar was held under the theme ‘Hard to Reach Population – SMILE (Beggary)’.
  • It focused on discussing effective rehabilitation strategies for beggars, the homeless, and the destitute.
  • The initiative aims to support marginalized individuals by connecting them with sustainable livelihood opportunities.
  • The event brought together national and international experts to share success stories and on-ground realities.

Additional Information

  • About SMILE Initiative
    • SMILE stands for Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise.
    • The initiative is aimed at providing targeted support and sustainable livelihood opportunities to marginalized groups.
    • It involves collaborations with experts, industry, and international partners to build effective rehabilitation strategies.
  • Key Presentations
    • National and international experts shared insights on rehabilitation strategies.
    • Success stories and on-ground realities of transitioning out of begging were highlighted.
  • Ministry and World Bank Collaboration
    • The collaboration aims to integrate modern technologies with effective policy frameworks.
    • Emphasis is on connecting the vulnerable with formal documentation and digital resources.

66. Select the most appropriate idiom for the given meaning

Considering everything

A. All in all

B. Blow hot and cold

C. All in the same boat

D. Field day

Solution

The correct answer is “All in all.“

Key Points

  • Let us understand the meaning of the given idioms:
    • “All in All” means everything considered or we use all in all to introduce a summary or general statement.
      • Example: All in all, getting insufficient sleep is bad news. 
    • “Blow hot and cold” means to be favorable toward something and then opposed to it.
      • Example: His enthusiasm for the job blows hot and cold.
    • “All in the same boat” means to be in the same unpleasant situation as other people.
      • Example: None of us has any money, so we’re all in the same boat. 
    • “Field day” means to gain advantage or success from a situation, esp. one that is bad for someone else.
      • Example: When the press found out about the stolen money, they had a field day.
  • Thus, it can be concluded that the given expression is correctly explained by the idiom “all in all.”

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

67. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Accidental

A. Adventurous

B. Detestable

C. Adjacent

D. Intentional

Solution

The correct answer is “Accidental”.

Key Points

  • The word ‘Accidental’ (adjective) means “happening by chance; not planned.” (आकस्मिक; जिसकी कोई योजना न हो)
    • Example: It’s wise to have our vehicles insured from any accidental damage.
  • The antonyms of the given word Accidental are – ‘ Planned’, ‘Voluntary’, ‘Intentional’.
  • From the antonyms of the given word, we can say that the word ‘Intentional’ is the opposite in meaning.
  • The word ‘Intentional’ (adjective) means “done on purpose, not by chance”(सोद्देश्‍य किया गया (अकस्‍मात); साभिप्राय)
    • Example: We feel sorry for hurting someone as the deed was not intentional.
  • Hence, the correct option is option 4).

Important Points

  • Let’s look at the meanings of the other given options :
    • Detestable: deserving to be hated or criticized. (घृणित; निंदनीय; घृणास्पद) 
    • Adventurous:  liking to try new things or have adventures(ख़तरे उठाने और नए-नए साहसिक काम करने को तैयार)
    • Adjacent: situated next to or close to something(किसी के निकट या बग़ल में स्थित)

68. Select the segment of the sentence that contains the grammatical error. If there is no error mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

My observation more generally is that as the Indian (A)/ diaspora grow and is very successful in many (B)/ countries of the world you are going to see more of this. (C)/ No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Solution

The correct answer is ‘B‘.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the second part of the sentence. 
  • The verb ‘grow’ (plural form) is incorrectly used for the singular noun ‘diaspora’.
  • For the singular nouns, the verb form used must be singular. Therefore, ‘grow’ must be replaced with ‘grows’ to make the sentence correct.
  • The correct sentence is:
    • My observation more generally is that as the Indian diaspora grows and is very successful in many countries of the world you are going to see more of this.
  • ​Hence, the correct option is B.

​Additional Information

  • Subject-Verb Agreement:
    • ​Subjects and verbs must AGREE with one another in number (singular or plural).  Thus, if a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular; if a subject is plural, its verb must also be plural.

69. Answer the questions as directed choosing the correct alternatives given:

He asked _______.

(Fill in the blank choosing the correct alternative.)

A. me where I was going

B. to me where I was going

C. me where I am going

D. me where was I going

Solution

The correct answer is “me where I was going.”

Key Points

  • The sentence is in the past tense, so the verb “asked” should be followed by the past tense form of the pronoun “I” (i.e., “was going”). 
  • Additionally, the indirect object pronoun “me” is used to indicate who was being asked the question. 
  • The structure for the simple past tense: Subject + Past verb (regular verbs ending in “-ed” or irregular verbs in past form) + Object
  • Here are some examples:
    • I walked to the store.
    • She ate breakfast this morning.
    • They watched a movie last night.
    • He visited his family last weekend.
    • We studied for the test all night.
  • In each of these sentences, the verb is in the past tense form, indicating that the action happened in the past and is now completed. Regular verbs form the past tense by adding “-ed” to the base form of the verb, while irregular verbs have unique forms that don’t follow this pattern.

Therefore, the correct answer is “Option no. 1″

Additional InformationLet’s check the other options:

  • “To me where I was going” is incorrect because the preposition “to” is unnecessary and does not make sense in this context.
  • “Me where I am going” is incorrect because the tense of the verb “am going” does not match the past tense of the verb, “asked.”
  • “Me where was I going” is incorrect because the word order is incorrect. 

70. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Tyagaraja was born at Tiruvarur (1) ________ Tanjavur District of Tamil Nadu on 14 May 1767. He was the third child of (2) ________ parents, Ramabrahmam and Sitamma. They (3) ________ Telugu at home. Tyagaraja (4) ________ an elder brother named Jalpesan. His father was a great scholar in Telugu and Sanskrit. He (5) ________ the languages from him

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1. 

A. in

B. of

C. at

D. into

Solution

The correct answer is “in”

Key Points

  • In the given options, the most appropriate answer is ‘in’
  • It is a preposition.
  • A preposition is a word or group of words used before a noun or pronoun or noun phrase to show direction, time, place, location, etc.
    • Example: He reads in the evening.
  • Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, the correct answer is option 1.

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71. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Tyagaraja was born at Tiruvarur (1) ________ Tanjavur District of Tamil Nadu on 14 May 1767. He was the third child of (2) ________ parents, Ramabrahmam and Sitamma. They (3) ________ Telugu at home. Tyagaraja (4) ________ an elder brother named Jalpesan. His father was a great scholar in Telugu and Sanskrit. He (5) ________ the languages from him

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2

A. there

B. his

C. her

D. their

Solution

The correct answer is “his”

Key Points

  • In the given options, the most appropriate answer is ‘his’
  • It is a pronoun.
  • His is the possessive form of he.
    • Example: My computer didn’t cost much as his. 
  • Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, the correct answer is option 2.

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72. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Tyagaraja was born at Tiruvarur (1) ________ Tanjavur District of Tamil Nadu on 14 May 1767. He was the third child of (2) ________ parents, Ramabrahmam and Sitamma. They (3) ________ Telugu at home. Tyagaraja (4) ________ an elder brother named Jalpesan. His father was a great scholar in Telugu and Sanskrit. He (5) ________ the languages from him

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3

A. speak

B. spoke

C. speaks

D. spoken

Solution

The correct answer is “spoke”

Key Points

  • In the given options, the most appropriate answer is “spoke”
  • The word ‘spoke’ is the past tense form of the verb ‘speak.’
    • Example: They spoke English.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

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73. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Tyagaraja was born at Tiruvarur (1) ________ Tanjavur District of Tamil Nadu on 14 May 1767. He was the third child of (2) ________ parents, Ramabrahmam and Sitamma. They (3) ________ Telugu at home. Tyagaraja (4) ________ an elder brother named Jalpesan. His father was a great scholar in Telugu and Sanskrit. He (5) ________ the languages from him

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4

A. have had

B. had

C. has

D. have

Solution

The correct answer is “had”

Key Points

  •  In the given options, the most appropriate answer is ‘had.’
  • The verb ‘had’ is the past simple and past participle of have, also used with the past participle of other verbs to form the past perfect.
    •  Example: When I was a child I had a dog.
  • ​ Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

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74. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Tyagaraja was born at Tiruvarur (1) ________ Tanjavur District of Tamil Nadu on 14 May 1767. He was the third child of (2) ________ parents, Ramabrahmam and Sitamma. They (3) ________ Telugu at home. Tyagaraja (4) ________ an elder brother named Jalpesan. His father was a great scholar in Telugu and Sanskrit. He (5) ________ the languages from him

Question:

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5. 

A. learn

B. learnt only

C. learnt both

D. learnt

Solution

The correct answer is “learnt both”

Key Points

  • In the given options, the most appropriate answer is ‘learnt both.’
  • The verb ‘learnt’ is the past simple and past participle of ‘learn.’
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Was the solution helpful?Yes

75. Select the segment of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. 

When you feel strong enough to tackle your workout, you might just feel enough strong to tackle the problems of daily living.

A. When you feel strong enough

B. to tackle your workout

C. you might just feel enough strong

D. to tackle the problems of daily living

Solution

The erroneous part is option 3) i.e. ‘you might just feel enough strong.‘

Key Points 

  • The error lies in the part ‘you might just feel enough strong.’
  • The word ‘enough’ can act as both an adjective and an adverb.
  • When it works as an adjective, it is used before a noun.
    • Example: Rohan has bought enough vegetables for three days.
  • When it works as an adverb, it is used after the adjective it modifies.
    • Example: Rohan is old enough to go to the market alone.
  • In the given sentence, ‘enough’ modifies the adjective ‘strong’.
  • Therefore in the given sentence, we need to use ‘strong enough’ in place of ‘enough strong’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: When you feel strong enough to tackle your workout, you might just feel strong enough to tackle the problems of daily living.

76. Select the segment of the sentence that contains the grammatical error. If there is no error mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

Amongst those who lost their (A)/ jobs to the pandemic, 61.1 percent felt that (B)/ women will be worse of than men. (C)/ No error (D)/

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Solution

The correct answer is ‘C‘.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the third part of the sentence. 
  • ‘of‘ should be replaced with ‘off‘ to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
  • The correct sentence is:
    •  Amongst those who lost their jobs to the pandemic, 61.1 percent felt that women will be worse off than men.
  • ​Hence, the correct option is C.
     

​Additional Information

  • “worse off” means in a less advantageous position; less fortunate or prosperous.
    • Example: There is always somebody worse off than yourself.

77. Select the segment of the sentence that contains the grammatical error. If there is no error mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The three-day conference, from March 4 -6, will have (A)/ the combined apex level military leadership to the country reviewing (B)/ the security situation and defence preparedness of the Armed Forces. (C)/ No error. (D)/

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Solution

The correct answer is ‘B‘.

Key Points

  • The error lies in the second part of the sentence.
  • The preposition ‘to‘ is used for expressing motion in the direction of (a particular location). In the context of the sentence ‘to’ is used inappropriately.
  • ‘to’ can be replaced with ‘of‘ (used for expressing the relationship between a part and a whole) to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
  • The correct sentence is:
    • ​The three-day conference, from March 4 -6, will have the combined apex level military leadership of the country reviewing the security situation and defence preparedness of the Armed Forces.
  • ​Hence, the correct option is B.

​Additional Information

  • Let’s look at the meanings of some difficult words given in the sentence:
    • apex: the highest point of achievement; a climax
    • preparedness: a state of readiness, especially for war

78. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The increasing concerns about climate change point to the need for enhanced efforts towards ________ sustained growth.

A. to achieve

B. achieve

C. achieved

D. achieving

Solution

The correct answer is ‘achieving‘.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate word for the given blank is ‘achieving‘.
  • In the given sentence ‘towards‘ is a preposition.
  • If we want to follow a preposition by a verb, we must use the “-ing” form which is really a gerund or verb in noun form.
    • Example: I will call you after arriving at the office.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.
     

Correct Sentence: The increasing concerns about climate change point to the need for enhanced efforts towards achieving sustained growth. 

79. Select the segment which has a grammatical error in the given sentence. If there is no error, select ‘No error’.

One of my friends have a house in Shimla.

A. One of my

B. in Shimla.

C. friends have a house

D. No error

Solution

The correct answer is “friends have a house”.

Key Points

  • In English, when we say “one of [plural noun]”, the verb should agree with “one”, which is singular.
    • So, the correct sentence should be: “One of my friends has a house in Shimla.”
  • Briefly, the subject-verb agreement rules in English state that a verb should agree in number with its subject.
    • Singular subjects require singular verbs, and plural subjects require plural verbs. The phrase “one of my friends” is a bit tricky because “friends” is plural, but the subject of the phrase is the singular “one,” not “friends.”
  • The verb “to have” should be in its has form “has” to agree with the singular “one”. 

Therefore, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

80. Direction: Choose the best expression amongst multiple choices for a given idiom/proverb.

To drive home.

A. make clearly understood

B. to return to place of rest

C. back to original position 

D. to leave

Solution

The correct answer is ‘make clearly understood​.’

Key Points

  • The idiom ‘to drive home’ means to emphasize or make clearly understood an important point about something to someone.
    • वाक्यांश ‘to drive home’ का अर्थ है किसी के बारे में किसी महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु पर जोर देना या स्पष्ट रूप से समझाना।
      • Example: The teacher repeated the point three times just to drive it home.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is ‘make clearly understood​.’​

Additional Information

  • Let us discuss the meanings of other options:
Idiom/PhraseMeaningअर्थ
The ball is in your courtIt’s up to you.यह आप पर निर्भर करता है।
Spill the beansTo give away a secret.भेद खोलना।
Break a legTo wish someone luck.किसी के भाग्य की कामना करना।

81. Identify the best way to improve the bold part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’.

Disney and Marvel’s Avengers: Endgame has stormed into a historic territory, earning $2.19 billions worldwide in less than two weeks to become the No. 2 film of all time.

A. earning $2.19 billion worldwide

B. earned $2.19 billions worldover

C. earnings $2.19 billion worldacross

D. No improvement

Solution

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. earning $2.19 billion worldwide.

We need to use present participle here as this shows present action.

Billion can not be written in plural form because here the only amount is being mentioned.

Option 1 fulfils the condition grammatically and meaningfully.

The correct sentence will be-

Disney and Marvel’s Avengers: Endgame has stormed into a historic territory, earning $2.19 billion worldwide in less than two weeks to become the No. 2 film of all time.

82. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Narrow 

A. Straight 

B. Slender 

C. Curly 

D. Thick

Solution

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word “Narrow” means having a small width, especially in comparison to height or length. (संकरी)
    • Example: The narrow alley was barely wide enough for a car to pass through.
  • “Slender” refers to something that is gracefully thin or slim, often with an implication of elegance. (पतला)
    • Example: The dancer’s slender figure moved gracefully across the stage.
  • Hence, we can infer that a synonym of ‘Narrow’ is ‘Slender’.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Straight (सीधी): Extending or moving uniformly in one direction only; without a curve or bend.
    • Example: The road ahead was long and straight.
  • Curly (घुंघराले): Having a twisted, ring, or spiral shape.
    • Example: She has naturally curly hair.
  • Thick (मोटी): Having a large distance between two opposite sides.
    • Example: The book was so thick that it took him weeks to read it.

83. Direction: Fill in the blank with the appropriate answer:

If Kamini receives proper health care from her in-laws, she ______ recover soon.

A. should

B. will

C. might

D. would

Solution

The correct answer is ‘will.’
Key Points 

  • The given sentence is the type 1 conditional.
  • The type 1 conditional is used to refer to the present or future where the situation is real. 
  • The structure of type 1 conditional is:If clauseMain clauseIf + simple presentsimple future
    • Example: If it rains today you will get wet.

Correct sentence: If Kamini receives proper health care by her in-laws, she will recover soon.

Additional Information   
 
 
 

  • The zero conditional is used for when the time being referred to is now or always and the situation is real and possible.
  • The zero conditional is often used to refer to general truths.
  • The tense in both parts of the sentence is the simple present.
  • In zero conditional sentences, the word “if” can usually be replaced by the word “when” without changing the meaning.

Hinglish

  • दिया गया वाक्य type 1 conditional है।
  • Type 1 conditional का का उपयोग वर्तमान या भविष्य को संदर्भित करने के लिए किया जाता है जहां स्थिति वास्तविक होती है।
  • Type 1 conditional की structure है:
If clauseMain clause
If + simple presentsimple future
  • Example: If it rains today you will get wet.

84. Directions: Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A herd or flock of animals being driven in a body

A. Crowd

B. Cluster

C. Throng

D. Drove

Solution

The correct answer is ‘Drove.‘

Key Points

  • Let us explore the marked option:
    • ‘Drove’ means to force people or animals to move in a particular direction (पशु, व्‍यक्ति आदि को) एक विशेष दिशा में हाँकनाह).
      • For example – Vikas was wounded in his left leg, but escaped behind a drove of cattle near the timber.
         

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the other options:
    • Crowd means a large number of people in one place. (जनसमूह)
      • For example – The police scattered the disorderly crowd.
    • Cluster means a group of people, plants or things that stand or grow close together. (व्‍यक्तियों, पौधों या वस्‍तुओं का झुंड, समूह, गुच्‍छा)
      • For example – She held a cluster of flowers in her arms.
    • Throng means a large crowd of people. (लोगों की भारी भीड़; जमावड़ा, जनसमुदाय)
      • For example – A huge throng had gathered around the speaker.

85. Which of the following is the incorrectly spelt word?

A. Upshot

B. Uproarious

C. Diletante

D. Chastises

Solution

The word ‘Dilettante’ has been incorrectly spelt here which means ‘person who takes part/ dabbles in a subject without serious study.’ The words mean as:

Upshot=> outcome

Uproarious=> hilarious

Chastises=> punishes

Thus option 3 is the correct answer.

86. Fill in the blank with suitable tense.

She _______ a popular actor.

A. resemble

B. will resemble

C. is resembling

D. resembles

Solution

The correct answer is ‘resembles‘.

Key Points 

  • The given sentence states that the girl has a similar appearance to a famous actor.
  • Hence, the blank will have a verb in the simple present tense.
  • ‘resembles’ is the verb in the simple present tense. Hence, ‘resembles’ will come in the blank. 
  • She is a singular subject, so, resemble can not be used as a verb as it is a plural verb.
  • ‘will resemble’ is in the future tense.
  • ‘is resembling’ is in the present continuous tense.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

87. Direction: Fill in the blank with the appropriate answer.

When I see Sam, I ______ give him your message.

A. would

B. will

C. could

D. might

Solution

The correct answer is ‘will.’
Key Points 

  • The given sentence is the type 1 conditional.
  • The type 1 conditional is used to refer to the present or future where the situation is real. 
  • It is possible to use other words instead of “if” in first conditional sentences.
  • We use “when” when the “condition” will definitely happen.
  • The structure of type 1 conditional is:If clauseMain clauseWhen+ simple presentsimple future
    • Example: When I reach the station, I will call you

Correct sentence: When I see Sam, I will give him your message.

Additional Information      
 
 
 

  • The zero conditional is used for when the time being referred to is now or always and the situation is real and possible.
  • The zero conditional is often used to refer to general truths.
  • The tense in both parts of the sentence is the simple present.
  • In zero conditional sentences, the word “if” can usually be replaced by the word “when” without changing the meaning.

Hinglish 

  • दिया गया वाक्य type 1 conditional है।
  • Type 1 conditional का उपयोग वर्तमान या भविष्य को संदर्भित करने के लिए किया जाता है जहां स्थिति वास्तविक होती है।
  • Type 1 conditional में if के बजाय अन्य शब्दों का उपयोग करना संभव है।
  • हम “When” का उपयोग करते हैं, जब “हालत” निश्चित रूप से होगी।
  • Type 1 conditional की structure है:
If clauseMain clause
When + simple presentsimple future
  • Example: If it rains today you will get wet.

88. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Health club membership has grown by leaps and bounds after the pandemic.

A. slowly and gradually

B. full of speed and excitement

C. hurriedly

D. very quickly

Solution

The correct answer is ‘very quickly’.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom ‘by leaps and bounds’ is ‘very quickly’.
  • By leaps and bounds: to make rapid progress or significant improvement in something, often in a very noticeable way. (किसी चीज में तेजी से प्रगति या महत्वपूर्ण सुधार करना, अक्सर बहुत ध्यान देने योग्य तरीके से)
    • Example: Since hiring the new CEO, the company has grown by leaps and bounds, expanding into new markets and increasing profits exponentially.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 4.
     

Correct Answer: very quickly.

Additional Information

  • Let’s look at the historical context of this idiom:
    • The origin of this idiom is unclear, but it has been in use for several centuries. The phrase “leaps and bounds” was used in the 16th century to describe the way that animals moved, particularly deer and rabbits. It was believed that these animals could move forward in great leaps and bounds, covering large distances in a short period of time.
    • The phrase was later used metaphorically to describe progress in various areas, such as education, sports, and business. The idiom became more widely known and used in the 20th century, and it is still in use today to describe rapid progress or growth in any field. 

89. Direction: Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

A house of cards

A. An insecure situation

B. A lavish lifestyle

C. A gambling casino

D. A dishonest livelihood

Solution

The correct answer is ‘An insecure situation.’

Key Points

  • The meaning of the idiom ‘A house of cards’ is a complicated organization, plan or situation that is very weak and can easily be destroyed or easily go wrong.
  • Idiom ‘A house of cards’ का अर्थ एक जटिल संगठन, योजना या स्थिति जो बहुत कमजोर है और आसानी से नष्ट हो सकती है या आसानी से गलत हो सकती है।
    • Example: During this speech, he constructs a house of cards; when she leaves, with her fingers crossed for a better way of life, he knocks the house down.
  • ​Therefore, the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom is “An insecure situation.”

Additional Information      

  • “House of cards” is also an expression that dates back to 1645 meaning a structure or argument built on a shaky foundation or one that will collapse if a necessary (but possibly overlooked or unappreciated) element is removed.

90. In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelled. Find the incorrectly spelled word.

A. Surgery

B. Supose

C. Surpass

D. Success

Solution

Here the correct answer is Supose.
Key Points:-

  • Let’s look at the correct spelling and meaning of the correct answer:-
    • Suppose(verb) – think or assume that something is true or probable but lack proof or certain knowledge. (सोचें या मानें कि कुछ सत्य या संभावित है लेकिन अभाव प्रमाण या निश्चित ज्ञान है)​
      • For Example – I suppose I got there about noon. 
  • Let’s find out the meaning of the given words:-
    • Surgery(noun) – the branch of medical practice that treats injuries, diseases, and deformities by the physical removal, repair, or readjustment of organs and tissues, often involving cutting into the body. (चिकित्सा पद्धति की शाखा जो शारीरिक रूप से हटाने, मरम्मत, या अंगों और ऊतकों के पुन: उत्पीड़न द्वारा चोटों, बीमारियों और विकृति का इलाज करती है, जिसमें अक्सर शरीर में कटाव होता है)
      • For Example – Alex came through the surgery fine.
    • Surpass – exceed; be greater than. (पार; से अधिक हो)
      • For Example – Pre-war levels of production were surpassed in 1929.
    • Success – the accomplishment of an aim or purpose. (किसी उद्देश्य या उद्देश्य की सिद्धि)
      • For Example – There is a thin line between success and failure.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.


Therefore, the correct answer is Supose and its correct spelling is Suppose.

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