SSC Stenographer Grade C & D 2025 Mock Test - 3

English

1. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options.

He switched on the TV to listening to the speech of the PM on the Independence Day.

A. He switched on the TV

B. of the PM

C. to listening to the speech

D. on the Independence Day.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. to listening to the speech.

The phrase “to listening” is incorrect.
After verbs like “switched on,” the infinitive form (to + base verb) should be used.
It should be “to listen” instead of “to listening.”
Corrected Sentence: He switched on the TV to listen to the speech of the PM on Independence Day.

2. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options.

The Social Media Department is headless at the moment and many are vying to the post.

A. is headless at the moment

B. The Social Media Department

C. to the post.

D. and many are vying

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. to the post.

Vying means to compete or participate for something. The determiner ‘to‘ is wrongly used here as it indicates a different sense/meaning, that is towards the post.
Whereas the correct sense is that people have been competing ‘for‘ the post to achieve something.
Hence, the correct determiner that should have been used over here is ‘for‘.

3. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options.

Despite incessant rains, she is the only one who plan to attend the meeting at the ministry.

A. Despite incessant rains

B. who plan to attend

C. the meeting at the ministry.

D. she is the only one

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. who plan to attend.

In this sentence, the phrase “who plan to attend the meeting” is incorrect.
The subject “she” is singular, so the plural verb “plan” is incorrect. It should be in the third-person singular form to agree with the subject.
The correct form is “who plans to attend the meeting.”
The correct sentence is: Despite incessant rains, she is the only one who plans to attend the meeting at the ministry.

4. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options.

Rohit did not came to the office because he got held up due to the heavy rains.

A. to the office

B. due to the heavy rains

C. Rohit did not came

D. because he got held up

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Rohit did not came.

This option consists of a grammatical error because ‘did‘ represents past tense, but the occurrence of this auxiliary verb does not require the main verb to be in the past tense too.
The accuracy gets hampered then. In simple terms, the main verb ‘came‘ should have been ‘come‘ in order to denote complete sense and accurate meaning.

5. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error.

What is the function of the kidney in the body?

A. in the body

B. the function of the kidney

C. What is

D. No error

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. No error.

The given sentence denotes simple present tense as an interrogatory statement and contains no error.

6. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

The patient waited in dread for the trolley it would taken him to the operation theatre.

A. that would taken

B. it would take

C. that would take

D. No improvement

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. that would take.

The given sentence denotes past tense by using ‘waited‘. So, it is inevitable that the latter part of the sentence also use a past form of tense.
This is why we use ‘would take‘ to complete the sense of the statement.
Also, using ‘that‘ is necessary because it acts as an indicative word for the trolley that was already mentioned.
The overall sense/meaning of the sentence doesn’t get hampered then.

7. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options.

They can’t hardly believe that Article 370 is no longer valid in Jammu and Kashmir.

A. is no longer valid

B. in Jammu and Kashmir.

C. that Article 370

D. They can’t hardly believe

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. They can’t hardly believe.

The phrase “can’t hardly” is a double negative.
Using two negatives in the same clause creates a positive meaning.
The phrase should use either “can hardly” or “can’t believe.”
“Can hardly believe” means that they are able to believe it very little.
Corrected Sentence: They can hardly believe that Article 370 is no longer valid in Jammu and Kashmir.

8. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error.

They made her as the Chairperson of their bank.

A. No error

B. as the Chairperson

C. of their bank.

D. They made her

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. as the Chairperson.

The verb “make” does not require “as”.
When followed by a noun phrase indicating a role or position.
It should be “made her the Chairperson” without “as.”
Corrected Sentence: They made her the Chairperson of their bank.

9. Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options.

I am going to a holiday to Panchmarhi tomorrow.

A. tomorrow

B. to Panchmarhi

C. to a holiday

D. I am going

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. to a holiday.

The phrase “going to a holiday” is incorrect because “to” before “holiday” does not fit in this context.
Instead, we should say “going on holiday” or “going on a holiday.”
We commonly say “going on holiday” rather than “going to a holiday”.
“On holiday” is a fixed expression used to indicate that someone is taking time off or going somewhere for leisure.
The correct sentence is: I am going on holiday to Panchmarhi tomorrow.

10. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

A probe has been ordered / by the incident / that occurred at the celebrations.

A. by the incident

B. that occurred at the celebrations

C. A probe has been ordered

D. No error

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. by the incident.

The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.

The error is in the part “by the incident”.

It should be replaced by “for the incident” which means an instance of something happening; an event or an occurrence.

11. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The sports day events / will be conducted / from 3:30 p.m. and 5:30 p.m. / on Saturday.

A. The sports day events

B. will be conducted

C. from 3:30 p.m. and 5:30 p.m.

D. on Saturday

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. from 3:30 p.m. and 5:30 p.m.

The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.

The preposition “from” is followed by “to”. as they talk about a range.

Hence “from…..to” should be used.

It should be replaced by “from 3:30 p.m. to 5:30 p.m.“.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: The sports day events will be conducted from 3:30 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. on Saturday.

12. In the given sentence, identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.

Electric heaters were providing to all the officers at the guest house.

A. at the guest house

B. were providing

C. Electric heaters

D. to all the officers

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. were providing.

The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.

The sentence is in the passive voice and in the simple past tense.

The correct verb structure is: Was/were + V3

The use of “provided” is correct.

The correct sentence will be: Electric heaters were provided to all the officers at the guest house.

13. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

They started playing badminton at a young age of nine years old .

A. the young age of nine

B. the young age of nine years old

C. a young age of nine years

D. No improvement

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. the young age of nine.

The phrase “a young age of nine years old” is redundant.
Because both “young age” and “years old” indicate age.
The correct form would be “at the age of nine” or simply “at nine years old.”
Corrected Sentence: They started playing badminton at the age of nine.

14. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

I request you to not to crack jokes in the class.

A. not to crack

B. No improvement

C. to not to cracking

D. not cracking

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. not to crack.

The error in the given sentence is that it uses the determiner ‘to‘ twice.
This is completely unnecessary as it does not add any extra meaning or detail to the sentence and only makes it sound erronous.
Hence, this option is correct because it uses ‘to‘ only once and makes accurate sense as well as making the statement sound appropriate.

15. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

I came across some words which meaning I did not know.

A. the meanings of which

B. No improvement

C. that meanings which

D. which means that

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. the meanings of which.

The error in this segment is in it’s placement of words.
The way it has been placed doesn’t make accurate sense unless we change the pronoun ‘which‘ to ‘whose‘.
By using a possesive pronoun such as ‘whose‘ we can make the sense accurate because it will then indicate that the meaning belongs to the words in the given sentence.
Or else, we can simply change the whole placement of words as given in this option and create accurate sense altogether.

16. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

We urgently need well qualified teachers for our school .

A. No improvement

B. for ours school

C. to ours school

D. to our school

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. No improvement.

The given sentence has no grammatical error and hence doesn’t require any improvement.

17. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.

The house has been auction before we reached there.

A. had been auctioned

B. No substitution

C. has been auctioned

D. was auctioning

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. had been auctioned.

The given sentence is in the past perfect passive tense.

The structure of the verb is: had + been + V3.

Thus, the past participle form (v3) of the verb auction “auctioned” should be used.

Correct statement: The house has been auctioned before we reached there.

18. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

Lavanya was happy to see that the tree they had planted the previous year has grow quite taller.

A. had grown quite tall

B. had grow quite taller

C. No substitution required

D. had grown quite tallest

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. had grown quite tall.

The sentence implies that both the actions, planting of trees and growing tall, happened before.
So, the underlined part of the sentence should be written in the past perfect tense.
The correct verb structure is: Had + V3.
Also, there is no comparison, so the adjective must be written in the positive degree.
The correct sentence will be: Lavanya was happy to see that the tree they had planted the previous year had grown quite tall.

19. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

India has identified a nose-based vaccine against Covid-19 that could be a ‘game-changer’.

A. No substitution required

B. a nasal vaccine

C. a sense-based vaccine

D. an aural vaccine

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. a nasal vaccine.

We need to replace the phrase “nose-based”.

Nasal means related to Nose and can be used as a substitution of “nose-based”.

Aural means relating to the Ear or the sense of hearing.

Thus, the correct sentence will be: India has identified a nasal vaccine against Covid-19 that could be a ‘game-changer’.

20. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

A stone that is constantly rolling cannot gather moss, while a stone that remains lying in one (1)_____ will gather it after a time. In the same way, a man who is a rolling stone, who is constantly (2)________ his occupations and pursuits, and does not settle (3)_______ long for any particular work, achieves little or no (4)_____ in life. One who is constantly chopping and changing will never become wealthy and get success in life. He will merely be dissipating his energies and will get nowhere. As the proverb says, ‘He who hunts two hares, loses (5)________’.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.

A. locality

B. place

C. size

D. society

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. place.

The correct answer is “place” because it refers to a specific location where the stone remains stationary, which is necessary for gathering moss.

The other options like “locality,” “size,” and “society” do not fit the context as well. “Place” is the most suitable word to convey the idea of a fixed position where something can accumulate over time.

21. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.

A. agile

B. active

C. moving

D. changing

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. changing.

The word “changing” is the best fit because the sentence describes someone who frequently switches occupations and pursuits, similar to how a rolling stone keeps moving and doesn’t gather moss.

“Changing” emphasizes the idea of frequently altering one’s activities or goals, which is central to the proverb’s meaning.

22. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.

A. upon

B. below

C. after

D. down

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. down.

The phrase “settle down” is commonly used to describe becoming stable or establishing oneself in a particular situation, such as a job or lifestyle.

In this context, “settle down” conveys the idea of staying in one place or sticking to one pursuit, which contrasts with the idea of constantly changing occupations.

23. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.

A. seniority

B. success

C. majority

D. priority

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. success.

“Success” is the best fit because the sentence is discussing the outcome of a person’s actions.

Specifically, it implies that constantly changing occupations and not settling down leads to minimal or no achievement.

24. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.

A. nothing

B. everything

C. both

D. equal

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. both.

The proverb “He who hunts two hares, loses both” means that if you try to achieve two goals at once, you might end up failing to achieve either.

The word “both” accurately reflects the idea of losing out on both targets. “Nothing” would not fit because it doesn’t capture the loss of both goals that the proverb is conveying.

25. In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

The house – the only one in the entire valley sat on the crest of a low hill. From this height one (1)_______ see the river and the field of ripe corn dotted with the flowers that (2)_______ promised a good harvest. The only thing the earth (3)________ was a downpour or at least a shower. Throughout the morning Paul – who (4)________ his fields intimately (5)________ done nothing else but watch the sky towards the north-east.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1

A. must

B. could

C. ought

D. need

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. could.

The statement is talking about the “House” situated on the hill hence, we can say that there is a strong possibility of having a view of the whole scenery of the valley.
“For showing strong possibility” we use the modal verb “Could” hence, it will the given statement.

Hence, the chose option will be correct.

26. In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2

A. rarely

B. always

C. hardly

D. never

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. always.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options:-

rarely– on very few occasions; almost never:
always– at all times; regularly.
hardly– almost no; almost not; almost none.
never– at no time; not ever.

“always” which means “at all times; regularly” fits the context appropriately.

The statement has a positive sense and the among the given options, only the chosen option “Always” has the positive sense hence, it will suit the given blank.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

27. In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3

A. longed

B. played

C. needed

D. displayed

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. needed.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options:-

needed– if you need something, you want it or must have it.
longed– to want something very much, especially something that is not likely.
played– to do something to enjoy yourself; to have fun.
displayed– to put something in a place where people will see it or where it will attract attention.

“Needed” which means “if you need something, you want it or must have it” fits the context appropriately.

“Earth” needs water for the good harvest hence, “Need” will be the correct choice here.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

28. In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4

A. known

B. know

C. knowing

D. knew

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. knew.

Subjects and verbs must AGREE with one another in number (singular or plural). Thus, if a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular; if a subject is plural, its verb must also be plural.
The subject of the given statement is “Paul” which is singular hence, we need to use a singular verb here.
There is no singular verb in the given statement hence, “Knew” will be the correct choice here.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

29. In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5

A. have

B. had

C. having

D. is

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. had.

The tense used in the first part of the statement is past hence, we need to use past tense in the second part of the statement as well.

Hence, the chosen option “Had” will be the correct choice here.

30. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

He said, ‘ Gandhiji started the Champaran movement.’

A. He said that the Champaran movement was started by Gandhiji..

B. He said that Gandhiji had start the Champaran movement.

C. He said that Gandhiji started the Champaran movement.

D. He told that Gandhiji starts the Champaran movement.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. He said that Gandhiji started the Champaran movement.

The given sentence is simple past tense.
Here, In the case of historical events, the tense does not change.

As the chosne option follows this rule it will be correct.

31. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

Rani said, “I used to go to dance class by bicycle.”

A. Rani said that she used to go to dance class by bicycle.

B. Rani said that she will go to dance class by bicycle.

C. Rani said that she is used to go to dance class by bicycle.

D. Rani told me that she used to go to dance class by bicycle.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Rani said that she used to go to dance class by bicycle.

As the reported speech is in the past tense we need to make changes according to it.

Here, ‘used to/ need not …etc.’ are not changed when Direct Speech is changed to Indirect Speech.
‘that’ should be used as the conjunction.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

32. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

He said to me, “While I was rehearsing for the play, you were dancing”.

A. He said to me that while I was rehearsing for the play, you were dancing.

B. He said to me that while he was rehearsing for the play, I was dancing.

C. He said to me that when he was rehearsing for the play, I was dancing.

D. He said to me that while I were rehearsing for the play, he was dancing.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. He said to me that while he was rehearsing for the play, I was dancing.

If past continuous is used with time clause, the tense does not change.
If there is an object ‘me’ than only said is changed to ‘told’ otherwise it is not changed.
Here, ‘said to’ is changed to ‘told’.
‘you’ of reported speech is changed to ‘He’.
‘that’ is used as the conjunction.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

33. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

Hanuman said to Lakshman, “What shall I do after searching Seeta mata.”

A. Hanuman told Lakshman what he shall do after searched Seeta mata.

B. Hanuman asked Lakshman what he shall do after searching Seeta mata.

C. Hanuman asked Lakshman what he should do after searching Seeta mata.

D. Hanuman asked Lakshman what he will do after searching Seeta mata.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Hanuman asked Lakshman what he should do after searching Seeta mata.

Will/shall is changed into would/should but will/shall, should be changed into ‘should‘ if the statement is suggestive.
Here, ‘said to’ is changed to ‘asked’
‘I’ of reported speech is changed to ‘He’.
‘what’ will work here as conjunction.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

34. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

Bhumika said, “I came to Vrindavan yesterday.”

A. Bhumika said that she had come to Vrindavan the previous day.

B. Bhumika said that she had come to Vrindavan yesterday.

C. Bhumika said that she has came to Vrindavan the previous day.

D. Bhumika told that she had came to Vrindavan the previous day.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Bhumika said that she had come to Vrindavan the previous day.

If the reporting verb is in ‘past’, and ‘the reported speech is not an idiom/phrase etc, the reported speech ‘Simple Past( V2/did)’ is changed to ‘Past Perfect(had +V3)’
Here, ‘yesterday’ is changed to ‘ the previous day’.
‘I’ of reported speech is changed to ‘she’.
‘that’ should be used as the conjunction.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

35. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

He said, “Sirius A is the brightest star in Earth’s night sky.”

A. He told me that Sirius A is the brightest star in Earth’s night sky.

B. He said that Sirius A is known to be the brightest star in Earth’s night sky.

C. He said that Sirius A was the brightest star in Earth’s night sky.

D. He said that Sirius A is the brightest star in Earth’s night sky.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. He said that Sirius A is the brightest star in Earth’s night sky.

If the reporting verb is in ‘past‘, and the reported speech is a ‘universal truth‘, the tense of the reported speech does not change.

There will be no change in the reporting verb (said) as there is no object after it.

Here, (” “) is changed to that.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

36. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

My mother said that she goes for a walk every morning.

A. My mother said, “she went for a walk every morning”.

B. My mother said, “I go for a walk every morning”.

C. My mother said, “I went for a walk every morning”.

D. My mother said, “she will go for a walk every morning”.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. My mother said, “I go for a walk every morning”.

If the reporting verb is in ‘past‘, and ‘the reported speech is a ‘habitual action‘, the tense of the reported speech does not change.

Here, that is changed to (” “).

Reporting verb (said) will not change as there is no object after it.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

37. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

Einstein wondered how many discoveries went unheeded.

A. Einstein said, “How many discoveries have gone unheeded?”

B. Einstein said, “How many discoveries do went unheeded?”

C. Einstein said, “How many discoveries go unheeded?”

D. Einstein said, “How discoveries go unheeded?”

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Einstein said, “How many discoveries go unheeded?”

Here, according to the rule ‘wondered’ is changed to ‘said’.
‘went’ of reported speech is changed to ‘go’.
With Wh-words In the indirect speech of In interrogative sentences always (.) Full Stop is used in the end.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

38. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

He swore by God that he had never done it.

A. He sware, “By God! I have never done it”.

B. He said, “By God! I have never done it”.

C. He said, “By God! I will never do that”.

D. He tell, “By God! I has never done it”.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. He said, “By God! I have never done it”.

As the sentence is an exclamatory sentence and in Present Perfect Tense, we need to change it according to their rules.

Here, according to the rule ‘swore’ is changed to ‘By God!’.
‘he had’ of reported speech is changed to ‘I have’.
‘that’ should be changed into an ‘inverted comma’.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

39. Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct/indirect) of the given sentence.

My brother cried out with sorrow that she was a great fool.

A. My brother said, “What a fool She is!”

B. My brother said, “What a fool her was!”

C. My brother cried, “What a fool She is!”

D. My brother told, “What a fool She has been!”

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. My brother said, “What a fool She is!”

As the sentence is an exclamatory sentence and in Present Continuous Tense, we need to change it according to their rule.

Here, according to the rule ‘cried out with sorrow’ is changed to ‘said’.
‘was’ of reported speech is changed to ‘is’.
‘what’ will be used in the reported speech to make it an exclamatory sentence.
Exclamation sign (!) is used at the end of the sentence.

As the chosen option follows the given rule it will be correct.

40. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

Puspam said to her brother, ”My mother has gone to the market and brought books for me.”

A. Puspam told her brother that her mother has gone to the market and brought books for her.

B. Puspam told her brother that her mother had gone to the market and brought books for her.

C. Puspam told to her brother that her mother had gone to the market and brought books for her.

D. Puspam asked her brother that her mother had gone to the market and brought books for her.

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Puspam told her brother that her mother had gone to the market and brought books for her.

As the reported speech is in “Assertive sentence” we need to make changes according to this.
There will be a change in the reporting verb and it will be changed into “told”.
The inverted comma will be changed into “that”.
Past perfect tense will be used in the reported speech.
As all the rules are followed by the chosen option it will be correct.

41. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

The student is not listening to the lecture of the professor.

A. The lecture of the professor is not listened to.

B. The lecture of the professor is not being listened to.

C. The lecture of the professor was not being listened to.

D. The lecture of the professor has not been listened to.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. The lecture of the professor is not being listened to.

Active voice– Subject + is/am/are + v4 + object + other words.

Passive voice – Object + is/am/are + being + v3 + by + subject + other words.

As the chosen option follows this structure it will be the correct answer.

42. Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active/passive) form of the given sentence.

Must we cut this tree?

A. Must this tree will cut?

B. Must this tree be cut?

C. Must this tree was cut

D. Must this tree is cut?

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Must this tree be cut?

The given sentence is in active form of the modal verb and is an interrogative sentence. Let us understand the structures for active/passive voices for such sentences.
Active: Must + Subject+ v1 + object + ?
Passive: Must + Object + be + v3+ by + subject+ ?

Going by the above rules, the correct option is 2.

43. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Millions of people across India watch Ramayana.

A. Ramayana is being watched by millions of people across India.

B. Ramayana has been watched by millions of people across India.

C. Ramayana is watched by millions of people across India.

D. Ramayana is watching by millions of people across India.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Ramayana is watched by millions of people across India.

Active voice– Subject + v1/v5 + object + other words.

Passive voice – Object + is/am/are + v3 + by + subject + other words.

As the chosen option follows this structure it will be the correct answer.

44. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Sai Kumari gave Akhila a bouquet of lilies on her birthday.

A. Akhila was gave a bouquet of lilies on her birthday by Sai Kumari.

B. Akhila is given a bouquet of lilies on her birthday by Sai Kumari.

C. Akhila gave a bouquet of lilies on her birthday to Sai Kumari.

D. Akhila was given a bouquet of lilies on her birthday by Sai Kumari.

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Akhila was given a bouquet of lilies on her birthday by Sai Kumari.

The sentence is an assertive sentence.
It is in the Simple Past Tense.
Structure:
- Active: Subject + verb (IInd form) + object…
- Passive: Object + was/were + verb (IIIrd form) + by + subject…

Sentence in passive voice: Akhila was given a bouquet of lilies on her birthday by Sai Kumari.

45. Select the option that is the passive form of the given sentence.

I have seen the Taj Mahal along with my family.

A. The Taj Mahal had been seen by me along with my family.

B. The Taj Mahal was been seen by me along with my family.

C. The Taj Mahal has been seen by me along with my family.

D. The Taj Mahal have been seen by me along with my family.

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. The Taj Mahal has been seen by me along with my family.

Active voice– Subject + has/have + v3 + object + other words.

Passive voice – Object + has/have + been + v3 + by + subject + other words.

As the chosen option follows this structure it will be correct.

46. Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active/passive) form of the given sentence.

Someone is following Meera at the station.

A. At the station Meera is followed (by someone).

B. At the station Meera is being followed (by someone).

C. At the station Meera was being followed (by someone).

D. At the station Meera had been followed (by someone).

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. At the station Meera is being followed (by someone).

The sentence given is in active voice, so, we need to convert it in passive form. Let us understand the structures for active/passive voices for such sentences.

Active: “subject + is/am/are +verb’s first form with ing + object”.

Passive: “Object + is/am/are +being + verb’s third form + subject”

Going by the above rules, the correct option is 1.

47. Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active/passive) form of the given sentence.

Will those happy days be ever forgotten by us?

A. Shall we ever forget those happy days?

B. Will we ever forgot these happy days?

C. Would we forgot these happy days?

D. Ever should we forget those happy days?

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Shall we ever forget those happy days.
The traditional rule is that shall is used with first person pronouns (i.e. I and we) to form the future tense, while will is used with second and third person forms (i.e. you, he, she, it, they). For example: I shall be late.

The given sentence is in passive voice and interrogative form of the simple future tense. Let us understand the structures for active/passive voices for such sentences.

Passive: will/shall + Object + be + verb (IIIrd form) + by + subject+?

Active: will/shall + Subject + verb (Ist form) + object +?

Going by the above rules, the correct option is 1.

48. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

The prisoners of this jail have woven these carpets.

A. These carpets were woven by the prisoners of this jail.

B. These carpets wove the prisoners of this jail.

C. These carpets have been woven by the prisoners of this jail.

D. The prisoners have been woven by these carpets of this jail.

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. These carpets have been woven by the prisoners of this jail.

The sentence is an assertive sentence.
It is in the Present Perfect Tense.
Structure:
- Active: Subject + has/have + verb (IIIrd form) + object…
- Passive: Object + has/have + been + verb (IIIrd form) + by + subject…

Sentence in passive voice: These carpets have been woven by the prisoners of this jail.

49. Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active/passive) form of the given sentence.

Goods were given to me by her.

A. She gave me goods.

B. She had given me goods.

C. Goods by her is given to me.

D. She gives me good.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. She gave me goods.

The sentence is in the passive form of simple past tense.

The structures for active/passive voices are:

Passive Voice: Object+ was/were + V3 + by + subject
Active Voice: Subject + V2 + object

Going by the above rules, the correct option is 1.

50. Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active/passive) form of the given sentence.

I shall be laughed at by Krishna.

A. Krishna can laughed me.

B. Krishna has been laughing at me.

C. Krishna may have laugh at me.

D. Krishna will laugh at me.

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Krishna will laugh at me.

The sentence is in the passive form of Future simple tense.
The structures for active/passive voices are:
- Passive Voice: Object+ will/shall + be +V3+ by + subject
- Active Voice: Subject + will/shall + v1+ object.

Going by the above rules, the correct option is 4.

51. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

______ of adulterated foodstuff being sold in the market.

A. Wary

B. Cautious

C. Beware.

D. Aware

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Beware.

The sentence talks about the poor quality of foodstuff being sold in the market.
Hence, the most appropriate word for the filler is beware.
It means being cautious and alert to risks or dangers.
The correct sentence will be: Beware of adulterated foodstuff being sold in the market.

52. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

It took 4 hours straight to ___________ the deal with the regional company

A. stop

B. get

C. perform

D. close

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. close.

Close” is also a valid option for the blank in this context. The sentence would be: “It took 4 hours straight to close the deal with the regional company.”
“Close” can be used in this context, meaning to finalize or complete a deal.

53. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I should have stopped them then and there. But it never even ______ to me that I should.

A. suggested

B. occurred

C. reminded

D. happened

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. occurred.

The blank should be filled with a word that defines the thought process of the subject.

“Occurred” in general means happen; take place.

When a thought or idea occurs to us it means the thought or idea comes into our mind.

The correct sentence will be: I should have stopped them then and there. But it never even occurred to me that I should.

54. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Today you may not ______ what you hear, but that is the truth and you have to accept it.

A. like

B. answer

C. enjoy

D. reply

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. like.

The sentence implies that the subject might not find the truth pleasant.

The most appropriate word for the filler is “like“.

It means finding agreeable, enjoyable, or satisfactory.

The correct sentence is: Today you may not like what you hear, but that is the truth and you have to accept it.

55. Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

His voice was ______ by the sound of the helicopter.

A. drowned

B. drawn

C. dawned

D. driven

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. drowned.

The sentence is in the simple past tense and passive voice.

The structure of Passive verb in the tense is: was/were + V3.

The correct V3 form of the verb “drown” is “drowned“.

It means submersion in the water or other similar fluid.

The correct sentence will be: His voice was drowned by the sound of the helicopter.

56. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

The eradication of coronavirus is still a far cry.

A. very fast

B. very near

C. very easy

D. very distant

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. very distant.

The idiom “a far cry” means very different from.

Example: The movie is a far cry from the book.

57. Which is the appropriate idiom to describe the given situation?

With the approaching storm, the town’s emergency management team advised residents to prepare for the worst.

A. Batten down the hatches

B. Hoist with one’s own petard

C. Throw in the towel

D. Burn the midnight oil

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Batten down the hatches.

Batting down the hatches means to prepare for a difficult or challenging situation.

The meaning of the other Idioms are:

Hoist with one’s own petard – To be caught in one’s trap or to suffer from a plan that was intended to harm someone else.

Throw in the towel – To give up or admit defeat.

Burn the midnight oil – To work late into the night, especially on a project or study.

58. Fill in the blank with the antonym of the word in brackets.

The presentation was _______________, failing to engage the audience and leaving them feeling bored and uninterested. (effulgent)

A. Resplendent

B. Lackluster

C. Incandescent

D. Illustrious

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Lackluster.

Effulgent means shining brightly; radiant; emanating joy or brightness.
Lackluster means lacking in vitality, force, or conviction; uninspired or dull.

Meaning of the other words:

Resplendent: Attractive and impressive through being richly colorful or sumptuous.
Incandescent: Emitting light as a result of being heated; passionate or brilliant.
Illustrious: Well-known, respected, and admired for past achievements.

59. A word has been highlighted in the given statement. Find the word which is the ANTONYM of the highlighted word.

All we want is to be secure within our border, at harmony with our neighbours and to build our economic strength in order to solve our social problems.

A. Dissonance

B. Concord

C. Coax

D. Rough

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Dissonance.

Concept/Grammar rules	Application
The query is about finding the appropriate antonym of the given word.	The word ‘harmony‘ means ‘the state of being in agreement or concord.’So, the word ‘dissonance‘ is the antonym as it means ‘lack of harmony among musical notes.’Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

60. Find a word that is the antonym of –

Minuscule

A. Dwarf

B. Small

C. Gigantic

D. Meagre

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Gigantic.

Minuscule– extremely small; tiny.
Gigantic– of very great size or extent; huge or enormous.

The meaning of the other words:

Dwarf– cause to seem small or insignificant in comparison.
Small– of a size that is less than normal or usual.
Meager– (of something provided or available) lacking in quantity or quality.

As the chosen option expresses the opposite meaning of the given word it will be correct.

61. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Do not get panicky about the curability of disease or infection to others.

A. Anxious

B. Tranquil

C. Loquacious

D. Cumbersome

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Tranquil.

Panicky: feeling or characterized by uncontrollable fear or anxiety.
Tranquil: free from disturbance; calm.

The meaning of the other words are:

Loquacious: tending to talk a great deal; talkative.
Anxious: feeling or showing worry, nervousness, or unease about something with an uncertain outcome.
Cumbersome: large or heavy and therefore difficult to carry or use; unwieldy.

As the chosen option expresses the opposite meaning of the given word it will be correct.

62. Find the word which is the synonym of the given word.

Treacherous

A. Ingenuous

B. Melee

C.Perfidious

D. Denouncement

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Perfidious.

1. Treacherous: guilty of or involving betrayal or deception.

Synonyms: disloyal, faithless.
Antonyms: loyal, faithful.

2. Perfidious: deceitful and untrustworthy.

Synonyms: betraying, deceitful
Antonyms: authentic, forthright

Example Sentence:

The czarina was strong-minded, but neither cruel nor perfidious.

3. Ingenuous: (of a person or action) innocent and unsuspecting.

4. Melee: a confused fight or scuffle.

5. Denouncement: The outcome of a situation, when something is decided or made clear.

As the chosen option best expresses the meaning of the given word, it is correct.

63. Find the word which is the synonym of the given word.

Puritanical

A. Bilge

B. Asunder

C. Pietistic

D. Entail

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Pietistic.

1. Puritanical: of, relating to, or characterized by a rigid morality.

Synonyms: moralistic, strait-laced
Antonyms: permissive, broad-minded

2. Pietistic: of or relating to religious devotion or devout persons.

Synonyms: angelic, believing
Antonyms: hellish, sinful

Example Sentence:

Then, again, the whole thing is a little too pietistic for ordinary use.

3. Asunder: apart, divided

4. Entail: to imply or require.

5. Bilge: the widest circumference or belly of a cask.

As the chosen option best expresses the meaning of the given word, it is correct.

64. Find the word which is the synonym of the given word.

DOUSE

A. Drench

B. Droop

C. Disentangle

D. Detraction

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Drench.

Douse: to stop a fire or light from burning or shining, especially by putting water on it or by covering it with something.
Drench: wet thoroughly; soak.
Disentangle: to free something from entanglement, to extricate or unknot.
Droop: bend or hang downward limply.
Detraction: the act of taking away; or diminishing the worth or value of (a quality or achievement).

As the chosen option best expresses the meaning of the given word, it is correct.

65. Find the word which is the synonym of the given word.

Odious

A. Detritus

B. Encomium

C. Abhorrent

D. Flinch

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Abhorrent.

1. Odious: hateful or disgusting.

Synonyms: hateful, offensive, disgusting, abhorrent
Antonyms: attractive, delightful.

2. Abhorrent: inspiring disgust and loathing; repugnant.

Synonyms: abominable, obscene, detestable
Antonyms: likeable, lovable

Example Sentence:

I am so eager to do well that the mere thought of failing is abhorrent.

3. Detritus: waste or debris of any kind

4. Encomium: a piece of writing that praises someone or something highly

5. Flinch: to make an involuntary movement in response to the stimulus.

As the chosen option best expresses the meaning of the given word, it is correct.

66. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

All depositors are requested to open a nominee account.

A. Quiddity

B. Consignee

C. Criticize

D. Propitiate

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Consignee.

1. Nominee: a person who is nominated as a candidate for election or for an honour or award

Synonyms: consignee, appointee etc.
Antonyms: inferior

2. Consignee: the entity who is financially responsible (the buyer) for the receipt of a shipment.

Synonyms: nominee, campaigner etc.
Antonyms: giver, dispatcher etc.

Example sentence:

The commercial invoice is sent to the consignee in advance.

3. Quiddity: the inherent nature or essence of someone or something.

4. Criticize: indicate the faults of (someone or something) in a disapproving way.

5. Propitiate: win or regain the favour of (a god, spirit, or person) by doing something that pleases them.

As the chosen option best expresses the meaning of the given word, it is correct.

67. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

The poet uses language as a means to enlarge and enliven man’s consciousness.

A. Deaden

B. Sensitize

C. Cheer

D. Oblivion

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Cheer.

1. Enliven: make (something) more entertaining, interesting, or appealing.

Synonyms: cheer, liven, inspire etc.
Antonyms: subdue, blunt

2. Cheer: shout for joy or in praise or encouragement.

Synonyms: encourage, enliven, motivate etc.
Antonyms: discourage

Example Sentence:

At the commencement of the race, please cheer for our team members.

3. Deaden: make (a noise or sensation) less strong or intense.

4. Sensitize: cause (someone or something) to respond to certain stimuli; make sensitive.

5. Oblivion: the state of being unaware or unconscious of what is happening around one.

As the chosen option best expresses the meaning of the given word, it is correct.

68. In the given sentence, some words are printed in bold one of which may be wrongly spelt or inappropriately used in the context. Choose that word as the answer.

The athlete broke the world record with his incredible acheivement in the 100-meter sprint.

A. acheivement

B. incredible

C. sprint

D. athlete

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. acheivement.

In this sentence, the word “acheivement” is misspelled.
The correct spelling is “achievement.”
“Achievement” refers to a notable accomplishment or success in a particular field or endeavour.

69. In the given sentence, some words are printed in bold one of which may be wrongly spelt or inappropriately used in the context. Choose that word as the answer.

The principle of the school was known for her strict discipline, but she always encouraged a spirit of cooperation among the students.

A. principle

B. discipline

C. encouraged

D. cooperation

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. principle.

“Principal” refers to the head or leader of a school.
On the other hand, “principle” refers to a fundamental truth, law, or guideline.
In the given sentence, referring to the head of the school requires the correct spelling of “principal” instead of “principle” to convey the intended meaning accurately.

70. Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. Sacrelegious

B. Manoeuvre

C. Millennium

D. Connoisseur

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Sacrelegious.

Sacrilegious: involving or committing sacrilege.
Manoeuvre: a movement or series of moves requiring skill and care.
Millennium: a period of a thousand years, especially when calculated from the traditional date of the birth of Christ.
Connoisseur: an expert judge in matters of taste.

Hence Sacrilegious is the only misspelt option.

71. Select the wrongly spelt word.

A. Eliminate

B. Gluton

C. Allergy

D. Reliant

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Gluton.

Glutton: an excessively greedy eater.
Eliminate: completely remove or get rid of (something).
Allergy: a damaging immune response by the body to a substance, especially pollen, fur, a particular food, or dust, to which it has become hypersensitive.
Reliant: dependent on someone or something.

Hence Glutton is the only misspelt option.

72. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. humillated

B. humelated

C. humilated

D. humiliated

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. humiliated.

The correct spelling among the given options is humiliated.
It means to make somebody feel very embarrassed.

73. Select the option with the correct spelling to replace the underlined word in the given sentence.

She hit him in a moment of abomination.

A. aberation

B. abberation

C. aberattion

D. aberration

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. aberration.

The correct spelling is Aberration.
It means a fact, an action or a way of behaving that is not typical, and that may be unacceptable.
Abomination refers to something that causes extreme disgust or hatred; a thing or action that is vile, detestable, or morally offensive.

Hence, the correct answer would be aberration.

74. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The branch of physics concerned with the properties of sound is known as

A. Optics

B. Acoustics

C. Photonics

D. Mechanics

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Acoustics.

The branch of physics concerned with the properties of sound is known as acoustics.
Optics is the branch of physics that studies the behavior and properties of light.
Photonics is the physical science of light waves.
Mechanics is a branch of physical science that deals with energy and forces and their effect on bodies.

75. Select the option which means the same as the group of words given.

A place where Buddhist monks live

A. stupa

B. temple

C. monastery

D. pagoda

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. monastery.

A place where Buddhist monks live is known as a monastery.
A stupa is a mound-like or hemispherical structure containing relics that is used as a place of meditation.
The temple is a building for religious practice.
A pagoda is a Buddhist temple.

76. Select the most appropriate one-word substitution for the given words.

Speed greater than that of sound

A. cacophonic

B. supersonic

C. harmonic

D. subsonic

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. supersonic.

Speed greater than that of sound is known as supersonic.
Cacophony is a harsh or jarring sound.
A harmonic is a wave whose frequency is an integral multiple of the frequency of the same reference signal or wave.
Subsonic is relating to or flying at a speed or speeds less than that of sound.

77. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Payal’s father was seen desperately searching for the medicine that can counteract the effect of a venomous snakebite in Parul’s left hand.

A. antiseptic

B. anti-serum

C. remedy

D. antidote

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. antidote.

The word “antidote” refers to a substance that can counteract or neutralize the effects of a poison or venom.
In the context of the sentence, Payal’s father is searching for a medicine that can counteract the effects of a venomous snakebite.
Therefore, “antidote” accurately conveys the intended meaning of a substance that can counteract the venom’s effects.

78. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

Since God is an all-powerful creator, he has absolute control over those whom he has created.

A. Voracious

B. Omnipotent

C. Incorrigible

D. omniscient

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Omnipotent.

“Omnipotent” means having unlimited or absolute power or authority, especially in the context of deity or God.
In the given sentence, the phrase “all-powerful creator” describes a being with ultimate authority and control over creation, which aligns with the concept of omnipotence.

79. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. More children go to school than at any time in the past. But more children today are out of school than any time in the past.

B. But it is not enough to blame the high birth rate for this state of affairs.

C. Indeed, it can be reasonably argued that continued mass illiteracy is not the result but the cause of the high birth rate.

D. There are more literate people in India today than ever before. But there are also more illiterates than ever before.

A. ABCD

B. CBAD

C. DABC

D. BADC

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. DABC.

Sentence D introduces the context, presenting the contrasting situation of both increased literacy and persistent illiteracy in India.
Sentence A provides further context, describing the increase in school attendance but also acknowledging the rising number of children out of school.
Sentence B transitions into an analysis, challenging the notion that the high birth rate alone is to blame for the problem.
Sentence C concludes the argument by suggesting that illiteracy is a contributing factor to the high birth rate, thereby providing a logical explanation for the situation discussed.

80. Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

(a) the use of animal research
(b) throughout the past century
(c) and it continues to be used to understand many diseases
(d) has been of considerable importance
(e) in the field of scientific and medical advancements

A. aecdb

B. ecdba

C. adebc

D. edcba

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. adebc.

Part a is the subject of the sentence, as it introduces the topic. This phrase should come first because it sets the context for the rest of the sentence.
Part d provides the main verb and complement, describing the significance of the subject (the use of animal research). This part should follow the subject to explain its importance.
Only option 3 has ad in the initial position, hence it is the correct option.

81. Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

P. having the opportunity of observing people’s

Q. we respect and appreciate their point of views

R. the advantage of travelling different places and

S. culture, custom and lifestyle, is that

A. RQPS

B. PSQR

C. RPSQ

D. SQPR

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. RPSQ.

R introduces the main idea: “the advantage of travelling to different places and.”
P continues this thought by specifying what that advantage is: “having the opportunity of observing people’s.”
S completes the description by explaining what is being observed: “culture, custom, and lifestyle, is that.”
Q concludes the sentence by stating the result of that advantage: “we respect and appreciate their points of view.”

82. Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence.

A. These can turn around to track stars with the rotation of Earth.

B. Observatories are places to study place.

C. They are mostly built on the mountain tops.

D. Telescopes are placed on the dome-shaped roof of the building.

A. BCDA

B. DCBA

C. ACDB

D. CBDA

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. BCDA.

The passage talks about observatories, their location, and how they’re used.
Sentence B introduces the topic by defining what observatories are.
Only option 1 has B in the initial position, hence it is the correct option.

83. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. As a result, he had a debt of 500 million US dollars at the time of his death.

B. Unfortunately, he began spending lavishly on anything he desired, not what he actually needed.

C. Michael Jackson, called the ‘King of Pop Music’, stayed at the top of his career for many years.

D. He was respected for his work culture; he would spend long nights at the studio to fix a note correctly in a song.

A. DBAC

B. BADC

C. ADCB

D. CDBA

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. CDBA.

The sentence, that has the topic of the passage, should come first.
Sentence C will be the first sentence as it talks about the introduction of Michael Jackson.
Hence, option 4 is the correct answer as only this option has C in the initial position.

84. Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

(O) as it was the last one of the evening

(P) the city bus was overcrowded

(Q) and this gave an opportunity

(R) to the pickpockets

(S) to try their skill

A. SRPOQ

B. PSORQ

C. POQRS

D. SROPQ

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. POQRS.

Part P is the only independent part among the given options as it has the subject of the first clause i.e. “the bus”.
Part O will come next as it shows the reason for the crowd in the bus.
Only option 3 has PO in the initial position, hence it is the correct option.

85. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

India now has a firm date to roll _____(1)_____ the biggest vaccination programme in ______(2)______ history. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has said that from January 16, after the Makar Sankranti and Pongal festivities, doctors, nurses, and sanitation workers, _____(3)______ are part of the priority group, would begin getting the vaccine. India has _____(4)_____ two vaccines in emergency-use mode — Covishield by the Serum Institute of India, Pune, and Covaxin by Bharat Biotech Ltd. ______(5)_____ it still is unclear who gets which vaccine.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (5).

A. while

B. although

C. yet

D. though

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. while.

while– used when you are contrasting two ideas.
yet– used with negative verbs or in questions for talking about something that has not happened but that you expect to happen.
though– in spite of the fact that; although.
although– in spite of the fact that.

Here, we need a contradictory connector and the chosen option fulfils this need hence, it will be suitable for the given blank.

86. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (4).

A. sanctioned

B. warranted

C. approved

D. supported

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. approved.

Let’s have a look at the meaning of the given options:-

approved– officially agree to or accept as satisfactory.
sanctioned– a punishment for breaking a rule or law.
warranted– to make something seem right or necessary; to deserve something.
supported– give assistance to, especially financially.

The chosen option is suitable according to the theme of the given paragraph.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

87. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (3).

A. whose

B. who

C. which

D. what

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. who.

A relative pronoun is used according to its antecedent coming before it.
As the antecedent here is “person” we need to use “who” as our relative pronoun.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

88. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (2).

A. their

B. his

C. its

D. her

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. its.

The possessive pronoun is being for “India” that is a country hence “it” will be used as its pronoun.
The possessive case of “It” will be “its“.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

89. In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank number (1).

A. out

B. in

C. off

D. with

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. out.

Roll out– officially launch or introduce a new product or service.
Roll in– to arrive in large numbers or amounts.
Roll–off– the smooth fall of response to zero at either end of the frequency range of a piece of audio equipment.

“Roll out” has the same meaning as the given paragraph.

Hence, the chosen option will be correct.

90. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Plato is the earliest important educational thinker, and education is an essential element in ‘The Republic’ (his most important work on philosophy and political theory, written around 360 B.C.). In it, he advocates some rather extreme methods: removing children from their mothers’ care and raising them as wards of the state, and differentiating children suitable to the various castes, the highest receiving the most education, so that they could act as guardians of the city and care for the less able. He believed that education should be holistic, including facts, skills, physical discipline, music, and art. Plato believed that talent and intelligence are not distributed genetically and thus can be found in children born to all classes, although his proposed system of selective public education for an educated minority of the population does not really follow a democratic model. Aristotle considered human nature, habit, and reason to be equally important forces to be cultivated in education, the ultimate aim of which should be to produce good and virtuous citizens. He proposed that teachers lead their students systematically, and that repetition be used as a key tool to develop good habits, unlike Socrates’ emphasis on questioning his listeners to bring out their own ideas. He emphasized the balancing of the theoretical and practical aspects of subjects taught, among which he explicitly mentions reading, writing, mathematics, music, physical education, literature, history, and a wide range of sciences, as well as play, which he also considered important.

Which of these statements is NOT true?

A. Plato’s methods of education can be called ‘extreme’

B. Socrates considered music and physical education as important aspects of learning.

C. The Republic was written around 360 A.D.

D. Socrates encouraged the listeners to come up with original ideas.

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. The Republic was written around 360 A.D.

In the given paragraph, it is written that:
- “Plato is the earliest important educational thinker and education is an essential element in ‘The Republic’ (his most important work on philosophy and political theory, written around 360 B.C.).”

Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that ‘The Republic’ was written around 360 B.C. and not 360 A.D. Therefore, the statement given in option 3 is incorrect.

91. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Children who are imparted highest education, would be responsible for:

A. guarding the city

B. teaching the illiterate

C. developing talent and skills

D. inculcating good habits

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. guarding the city.

In the given paragraph, it is written that:
- “In it, he advocates some rather extreme methods: removing children from their mothers’ care and raising them as wards of the state, and differentiating children suitable to the various castes, the highest receiving the most education, so that they could act as guardians of the city and care for the less able.”

Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that the children who are imparted the highest education, would be responsible for guarding the city.

92. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

What tool does Aristotle advocate to teachers to develop good habits in students?

A. Writing

B. Reading

C. Questioning

D. Repetition

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Repetition.

In the given paragraph, it is written that:
- “He proposed that teachers lead their students systematically, and that repetition be used as a key tool to develop good habits, unlike Socrates’ emphasis on questioning his listeners to bring out their own ideas.”

Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that ‘repetition’ is the tool advocated by Aristotle to develop good habits in students.

93. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Which of these methods is NOT advocated in ‘The Republic’?

A. Imparting similar education to all children

B. Differentiating children based on castes

C. Bringing up children under state guardianship

D. Keeping children away from mothers

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Imparting similar education to all children.

In the given paragraph, it is written that:
- “Plato is the earliest important educational thinker, and education is an essential element in ‘The Republic’ (his most important work on philosophy and political theory, written around 360 B.C.). In it, he advocates some rather extreme methods: removing children from their mothers’ care and raising them as wards of the state, and differentiating children suitable to the various castes, the highest receiving the most education, so that they could act as guardians of the city and care for the less able.”

Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that imparting similar education to all children is not included in ‘The Republic’.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Imparting similar education to all children.

94. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Aristotle believed that virtuous citizens could be produced by cultivating:

A. art and music

B. habit and reason

C. mathematics and science

D. theoretical aspects of education

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. habit and reason.

In the given paragraph, it is written that: “
- Aristotle considered human nature, habit and reason to be equally important forces to be cultivated in education, the ultimate aim of which should be to produce good and virtuous citizens.”

Upon perusal of the above statement, it can be concluded that Aristotle believed that habit and reason were crucial factors in making virtuous citizens.

95. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

World heritage refers to cultural or natural landmarks that have been recognised by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) for their outstanding value to humanity. These landmarks are considered to be of great importance to human history and culture and are therefore protected by international treaties to ensure their preservation for future generations. One of the most important aspects of World Heritage Sites is their cultural significance. These sites are often associated with important events or people that have had a major impact on human history. For example, the Great Wall of China is recognised as a World Heritage Site because of its historical and cultural importance to China and the world. The wall was constructed over a period of centuries to protect China from invasion and has become a symbol of China’s strength and determination. Another important aspect of World Heritage Sites is their natural beauty. These sites are often recognised for their unique geological formations, breath-taking landscapes and diverse ecosystems. The Great Barrier Reef in Australia, for example, is a World Heritage Site because of its unparalleled biodiversity and natural beauty. The reef is home to thousands of species of marine life and provides an important habitat for many endangered species. Preserving World Heritage Sites is crucial for maintaining their cultural and natural significance. Many sites are under threat from a variety of factors, including climate change, natural disasters and human activities such as tourism and development. For this reason, UNESCO works with governments and local communities around the world to develop strategies for protecting and preserving these important landmarks. Despite these efforts, many World Heritage Sites continue to face threats. For example, the ancient city of Palmyra in Syria, which was recognised as a World Heritage Site in 1980, was extensively damaged by ISIS militants in 2015. The destruction of this important cultural site was a devastating loss for the people of Syria and the world. In conclusion, World Heritage Sites are of great importance to humanity, and their preservation is crucial for maintaining our cultural and natural heritage. The recognition of these sites by UNESCO is an important step towards their protection and preservation for future generations.

How does UNESCO work to protect World Heritage Sites?

A. By conducting regular inspections and assessments to identify potential threats and risks

B. By limiting access to the sites to reduce the impact of tourism and development

C. By enforcing strict laws and regulations to prevent any damage or destruction

D. By working with governments and local communities to develop strategies for their preservation

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. By working with governments and local communities to develop strategies for their preservation.

This option directly reflects the information provided in the passage, where it states that UNESCO collaborates with governments and local communities to protect and preserve World Heritage Sites.

96. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Find the ANTONYM of the word ‘unparalleled’.

A. Devastation

B. Barrier

C. Strategies

D. Frequent

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Frequent.

“Unparalleled” refers to something unique or without equal. “Frequent,” on the other hand, describes something that occurs often or is common.

In a broader sense, if something is frequent, it is not unique, making it the opposite of “unparalleled.”

97. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

What are some of the factors that threaten World Heritage Sites?

A. Climate change, natural disasters and human activities such as tourism and development

B. Political unrest, wars and terrorism

C. A decline in public interest and appreciation for cultural demands

D. Lack of funding and government support through many institutions

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Climate change, natural disasters and human activities such as tourism and development.

The passage mentions “climate change, natural disasters, and human activities such as tourism and development” as threats to World Heritage Sites.

These factors directly impact the preservation and integrity of these sites.

The other options, while potentially relevant in different contexts, are not mentioned in the passage as threats.

98. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Which of the following would be the most suitable title for this passage?

A. World Heritage Sites—a natural beauty to explore

B. The threats facing World Heritage Sites due to humans

C. The role of UNESCO in protecting World Heritage Sites

D. The importance of World Heritage Sites to human history and culture

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. The importance of World Heritage Sites to human history and culture.

The title “The Importance of World Heritage Sites to Human History and Culture” is most suitable because it captures the primary focus of the passage, which discusses the significance of World Heritage Sites both culturally and historically.

The passage emphasizes their outstanding value to humanity, their role in preserving human history and culture, and the need for their protection.

The other titles, while relevant, either focus too narrowly on specific aspects (such as threats or UNESCO’s role) or do not fully encompass the passage’s broader discussion on significance and preservation.

99. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Identify the structure of the passage.

A. Cause and effect

B. Chronological

C. Problem and solution

D. Compare and contrast

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Problem and solution.

The structure of the passage is best identified as Problem and solution.

The passage first discusses the importance of World Heritage Sites and the threats they face, then describes the efforts made by UNESCO and others to protect and preserve these sites, which fits the problem and solution structure.

100. Identify the spelling error in the given sentence and select the option that rectifies the error.

He dared to compeete against the experienced boxer.

A. compete

B. compeite

C. experianced

D. deired

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. compete.

The correct spelling of the word meaning to participate in a competition or contest is “compete,” not “compete.”
In sports you compete against the opposing team.

General Knowledge

101.Which of the following places is NOT associated with the key shrines of Goddess Kheer Bhawani in Jammu and Kashmir?

A. Tulmulla, Ganderbal

B. Tikker, Kupwara

C. Manzgam, Kulgam

D. Srinagar

Solutions

The correct answer is option (d) Srinagar.

Explanation (Point-wise)

1. Tulmulla (Ganderbal) is the location of the main shrine of Goddess Kheer Bhawani, the most significant pilgrimage site.
2. Tikker (Kupwara) and Laktipora Aishmuqam (Anantnag) are well-known shrines associated with the worship of the goddess.
3. Tripursundri Devsar and Manzgam (both in Kulgam) are also recognized as important temples dedicated to the goddess.
4. Srinagar, although the summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir, does not have any major shrine specifically dedicated to Goddess Kheer Bhawani.
5. Therefore, Srinagar is not counted among the key shrines associated with Kheer Bhawani worship.

102. The Hemis Gompa festival is celebrated to celebrate the birth anniversary of Guru ________.

A. Katyayana

B. Patrul Rinpoche

C. Marpa Lotsawa

D. Padmasambhava

Solutions

The correct answer is: (d) Padmasambhava

Explanation:

The Hemis Gompa festival is an annual celebration held at the Hemis Monastery in Ladakh, Jammu & Kashmir.
It commemorates the birth anniversary of Guru Padmasambhava, also known as Guru Rinpoche.
Padmasambhava is credited with bringing Tantric Buddhism to Tibet and the Himalayan region in the 8th century.
The festival includes colorful masked dances, traditional music, and rituals performed by monks.

103. Who among the following is the author of the autobiography ‘Lone Fox Dancing: My Autobiography’?

A. Khushwant Singh

B. Brij Mohan Kaul

C. Ruskin Bond

D. John Dalvi

Solutions

The correct answer is (c) Ruskin Bond.

Explanation:

The autobiography Lone Fox Dancing: My Autobiography is written by Ruskin Bond, one of the most beloved authors in India, known for his works that capture the essence of the Indian landscape and people.

This autobiography chronicles his life, experiences, and reflections, highlighting his years of writing and living in the hills of India.

Information Booster:

Ruskin Bond is a celebrated British-Indian author, particularly known for his short stories, children’s books, and autobiographies.
His most famous work is The Room on the Roof, which earned him the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize in 1957.
Ruskin Bond has written over 500 short stories, essays, and novels, and his work often focuses on nature, life in the hills, and the people he has encountered.
He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2014 for his contribution to literature.
Lone Fox Dancing: My Autobiography offers a glimpse into Bond’s personal journey, including his childhood in India and his years spent in the beautiful hills of Mussoorie.

104. ‘Along The Red River: A Memoir’is a book about the life of _____.

A. Nirupama Borgohain

B. Sabita Goswami

C. Mitra Phukan

D. Pushpalata Das

Solutions

The correct answer is (b) Sabita Goswami.
‘Along The Red River: A Memoir’ is an autobiographical account written by Sabita Goswami , an acclaimed Assamese author and journalist. She is former journalist for the BBC and Associated Press, that documents her life in Assam and the Northeast during a time of conflict.
· The book is a candid account of her struggles against family, society, and her own expectations, and her efforts to establish herself professionally and emotionally.
· It also offers an analysis of the region’s complex social and political history.

105. Yashodhara Dalmia is the author of which famous book?

A. Paintings in the Kangra Valley

B. Ajanta

C. The Painted World of the Warlis

D. Indian Art

Solutions

The correct answer is: (c) The Painted World of the Warlis

Explanation:

Yashodhara Dalmia is an eminent art historian, curator, and writer specializing in Indian modern and tribal art. She authored the book “The Painted World of the Warlis”, which explores the Warli tribal art of Maharashtra.

Warli painting is a traditional form of tribal art practiced by the Warli community, known for its monochrome depictions of daily life, nature, and folklore using simple geometric shapes.

106. The development of Sanskrit grammar began with Panini, with his book named _______.

A. Ashtadhyayi

B. Lalitavistara

C. Mahavastu

D. Buddhacharita

Solutions

The correct answer is: (a) Ashtadhyayi

Explanation:

Panini, a renowned Sanskrit grammarian of ancient India, authored the Ashtadhyayi, which is considered the foundational text of Sanskrit grammar.
It consists of approximately 4,000 sutras (aphorisms) that systematize the grammar of Classical Sanskrit.
Panini’s Ashtadhyayi is known for its concise, algorithmic format and has influenced modern linguistics.

107. Raja Ravi Varma is known for painting primarily which themes?

A. Modern life and urban landscapes

B. Hindu mythology, Puranas, and Indian epics

C. Wildlife and nature

D. Social reform and political leaders

Solutions

The correct answer is option (b). Hindu mythology, Puranas, and Indian epics.
Explanation
Raja Ravi Varma is renowned for his paintings that primarily depict subjects from Hindu mythology, Puranas, and the great Indian epics like the Mahabharata and Ramayana. His most famous works revolve around mythological characters such as Shiva, Vishnu, Lakshmi, and Krishna, among others. Varma’s ability to bring these ancient stories to life in a realistic style, blending European techniques with traditional Indian themes, made him a prominent figure in Indian art. Additionally, he painted portraits of both Indian and British individuals, showcasing his versatility as an artist. These portraits also contributed to his widespread fame and legacy.

108. Which temple is referred to as the “White Pagoda”?

A. Kashi Vishwanath Temple

B. Jagannath Temple

C. Somnath Temple

D. Golden Temple

Solutions

The correct answer is option (b) Jagannath Temple.

Explanation

The Jagannath Temple in Puri is often referred to as the “White Pagoda”. This name comes from its grand structure and significant role in Hindu worship. It is one of the most famous temples in India, known for the Jagannath Rath Yatra and its association with the deity Lord Jagannath, a form of Lord Vishnu.
· The “White Pagoda” name likely refers to the temple’s large and visually striking white-colored structure, which stands out in the landscape of Puri.
· The temple is also called “Yamanika Tirtha”, as Hindu beliefs state that Yama, the god of death, loses his power in Puri due to the divine presence of Lord Jagannath.

109. What is the term for a dome-shaped monument that contains sacred relics in Buddhism?

A. Vihar

B. Stambha

C. Chaitya

D. Stupa

Solutions

The correct answer is (d) Stupa

Explanation:

A stupa is a dome-shaped monument that contains sacred relics in Buddhism. These relics may include remains of the Buddha, his disciples, or sacred Buddhist texts.

The Great Stupa at Sanchi, built by Emperor Ashoka, is one of the most famous stupas in India.
Stupas are places of meditation and worship for Buddhists.
The structure symbolizes the Buddha’s presence and enlightenment.

110. Ellora’s Kailasa Temple and Mahabalipuram’s Rath Temple are examples of which type of temple architecture?

A. Colossal

B. Panchayatan

C. Low Plinth

D. Rock-Cut

Solutions

The correct answer is (D) Rock-Cut.

Explanation:

Ellora’s Kailasa Temple and Mahabalipuram’s Rath Temples are outstanding examples of Rock-Cut architecture.
Rock-Cut temples are those which are carved out of a single rock rather than being built using stone or brick.
The Kailasa Temple (Ellora) was built in the 8th century CE by the Rashtrakuta king Krishna I and is the largest monolithic rock excavation in the world.
The Rath Temples of Mahabalipuram were constructed during the 7th century CE under the rule of Pallava king Narasimhavarman I (Mamalla).
These temples follow Dravidian architectural style and were carved from granite rocks.

111. The renowned singer MS Subbulakshmi was an Indian Carnatic singer born in ________.

A. Vellore

B. Erode

C. Thanjavur

D. Madurai

Solutions

The correct answer is:(d) Madurai

Explanation:

M.S. Subbulakshmi, also known as Madurai Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi, was born on 16 September 1916 in Madurai, Tamil Nadu.
She was a legendary Carnatic vocalist and the first musician ever to be awarded the Bharat Ratna (India’s highest civilian award) in 1998.
Subbulakshmi was trained in Carnatic classical music and became a global cultural icon through her devotional songs and performances.
She was also the first Indian musician to perform at the United Nations General Assembly in 1966.

112. Which Indian classical dance form has composition in Meitei language?

A. Sattriya

B. Chhau

C. Manipuri

D. Bharatanatyam

Solutions

The correct answer is: (C) Manipuri
Explanation:
Manipuri is a classical dance form from Manipur, a state in northeastern India.

This dance form has compositions in the Meitei language, which is the local language of Manipur.

Manipuri dance is known for its graceful movements, elaborate gestures, and the use of classical Meitei music.

113. As per the Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the highest child sex ratio (in the age group of 0-6 years)?

A. Rajasthan

B. Kerala

C. Mizoram

D. Chhattisgarh

Solutions

The correct answer is: (c) Mizoram

Explanation:
According to the Census of India 2011, Mizoram had the highest child sex ratio (0-6 years) among all the states, with a ratio of 971 girls per 1,000 boys. This is significantly higher than the national average child sex ratio, which stood at 919 girls per 1,000 boys.

Mizoram’s high child sex ratio is attributed to factors such as cultural practices and government policies promoting gender equality.

114. What is the literacy rate in India as per the Census of 2011?

A. 16.68%

B. 65.46%

C. 82.14%

D. 72.98%

Solutions

The correct answer is (d) 72.98%
According to the Census of 2011, India’s overall literacy rate was recorded at 72.98%. This represented a significant increase from the previous census in 2001, where the literacy rate was 64.83%.
Breakdown of Literacy Rate: · Male Literacy Rate: The literacy rate for males was about 80.9%.
· Female Literacy Rate: The literacy rate for females was around 64.6%.
· The census highlighted disparities in literacy rates across different states and regions, with urban areas generally having higher literacy rates compared to rural areas.

115. Baglihar Dam is constructed on which of the following rivers?

A. Jhelum River

B. Ravi River

C. Chenab River

D. Sutlej River

Solutions

The correct answer is option (c) Chenab River
Explanation
Baglihar Dam, also known as the Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project, is constructed on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a run-of-the-river hydroelectric project that was commissioned in two stages: Stage-I in 2008 and Stage-II in 2015. The dam was built under the guidelines of the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), which allows India to use western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) for non-consumptive purposes like hydroelectricity.
The Chenab River originates from the upper Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh and flows through Jammu and Kashmir before entering Pakistan. The Baglihar Dam project has been a subject of diplomatic attention, as Pakistan has raised concerns over its design and potential to regulate water flow downstream. The World Bank, as a treaty arbitrator, reviewed the project and found it compliant with treaty conditions.

116. Which river flows through the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary, dividing it into two parts?

A. Chambal River

B. Narmada River

C. Godavari River

D. Ganges River

Solutions

The correct answer is option (a) Chambal River.
Explanation
The Chambal River flows through the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh, dividing it into two parts. The river plays an essential role in the sanctuary’s ecosystem, providing a vital water source for wildlife and serving as a habitat for species like the Gharial, a critically endangered crocodile.

117. The Valley of Flowers is located within which biosphere reserve and forms one of its core zones?

A. Great Himalayan Biosphere Reserve

B. Gangotri Biosphere Reserve

C. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

D. Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve

Solutions

The correct answer is option (c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.

Explanation

1. Location and Area: The Valley of Flowers National Park is located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand and spans an area of approximately 87 square kilometers. It lies within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
2. Core Zone Designation: The park forms one of the two core zones of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. The other core zone is the Nanda Devi National Park. These two regions are protected for their rich biodiversity and environmental significance.
3. Biodiversity Significance: The Valley of Flowers is renowned for its high-altitude alpine meadows and a diverse range of flora and fauna, including several endangered species. It has immense ecological importance and draws botanists, ecologists, and tourists from around the world.
4. UNESCO Recognition: The entire Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, including the Valley of Flowers, is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, affirming its global ecological value.

118. The French Open is held annually in which months and on what type of courts?

A. January-February; Grass courts

B. March-April; Hard courts

C. May-June; Clay courts

D. July-August; Carpet courts

Solutions

The correct answer is option (c) May-June; Clay courts

Explanation

1. Tournament Dates: The French Open is held annually in May and June, typically spanning the last two weeks of May and the first week of June.
2. Court Surface: The tournament is played on clay courts, making it the only Grand Slam played on this surface.
3. Location: The French Open takes place at the Roland Garros Stadium in Paris, France, named after the French aviator Roland Garros.
4. Unique Challenges: Clay courts create slower play, with the ball bouncing higher, which requires players to have excellent stamina and mental focus to endure long rallies.
5. Physical Demands: Players must adjust to the unique challenges of clay, making it one of the most physically demanding Grand Slam tournaments.

119. The number of players in baseball is:

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 6

Solutions

The correct answer is (c) 9
In baseball, each team has nine players on the field during a game.
These players occupy specific positions, including
· three outfielders (left field, center field, right field),
· four infielders (first base, second base, shortstop, third base),
· a pitcher,
· and a catcher.

120. In which year was the International Booker Prize established?

A. 1995

B. 2000

C. 2005

D. 2010

Solutions

Explanation

The International Booker Prize was established in 2005, originally known as the Man Booker International Prize. It was founded as a biennial award recognizing an author’s overall contribution to world literature, celebrating works from any country and in any language. The prize has since evolved to annually honor a single work of fiction translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland, thus highlighting the global diversity and richness of literary creativity.

121. Genital herpes infection is caused by:

A. protozoa

B. virus

C. fungus

D. bacteria

Solutions

The correct answer is: (B) Virus

Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). There are two types of herpes simplex viruses:

HSV-1: Typically causes oral herpes (cold sores around the mouth), but can also cause genital herpes.
HSV-2: Primarily causes genital herpes, which is transmitted through sexual contact.

Genital herpes is a viral infection, and it can cause painful sores and blisters in the genital and anal areas. The infection is lifelong and can be managed but not cured.

122. Which of the following hormones stimulates milk production after child birth?

A. Prolactin

B. Estrogen

C. Progestin

D. Androgen

Solutions

The correct answer is (a) Prolactin.
· Prolactin is the hormone responsible for stimulating milk production in the mammary glands after childbirth. It is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in lactation. Its levels increase during pregnancy and after childbirth to prepare the body for breastfeeding.

123. What is the scientiﬁc name of baking soda?

A. Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃)

B. Sodium sulphate (Na₂SO₄)

C. Sodium carbonate (NaCO₃)

D. Sodium chloride (NaCl)

Solutions

The correct answer is: (A) Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃)

Explanation:

Baking soda is chemically known as Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO₃).
It is a white crystalline compound that acts as a mild base and is commonly used in baking as a leavening agent. When heated or combined with acids like vinegar or lemon juice, it produces carbon dioxide gas (CO₂), which helps dough or batter rise.
Other applications of baking soda include cleaning, neutralizing odors, and as an antacid to treat heartburn.

124. Who invented the pH scale?

A. S.P.L. Sørensen

B. Robert Boyle

C. Louis Pasteur

D. Henri Becquerel

Solutions

Correct Answer: (a) S.P.L. Sørensen

Explanation:
The pH scale was invented by S.P.L. Sørensen in 1909. Sørensen introduced the concept of pH as a way to express the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, where pH = -log[H⁺], representing the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration. This scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral, values below 7 acidic, and above 7 basic.

Option (b) Robert Boyle: Incorrect, as Boyle is known for his work on gas laws, not the pH scale.
Option (c) Louis Pasteur: Incorrect, as Pasteur is famous for discoveries in microbiology and vaccination.
Option (d) Henri Becquerel: Incorrect, as Becquerel discovered radioactivity, unrelated to the pH scale.

125. Which of the following units is used for measuring the amount of a substance?

A. Mole

B. Tesla

C. Joule

D. Lux

Solutions

The Correct Answer is: (a) Mole

Explanation:

The mole is the SI unit for the amount of substance, representing a collection of particles like atoms, molecules, or ions.

126. What does Article 65 of the Indian Constitution deal with?

A. Powers of the President

B. Powers of the Prime Minister

C. Vacancy in the office of the President and the Acting President

D. Election of the President

Solutions

The correct answer is (C) Vacancy in the office of the President and the Acting President.

Explanation:
Article 65 of the Indian Constitution deals with the situation when there is a vacancy in the office of the President of India. It states that the Vice President of India will act as the President until a new one is elected.

The article ensures that there is no gap in the functioning of the country’s head of state, maintaining the continuity of governance even in case of death, resignation, or impeachment of the President.

127. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees ‘Equality before the Law’ and ‘Equal protection of the law’?

A. Article 12

B. Article 19

C. Article 16

D. Article 14

Solutions

Correct Answer: D. Article 14

Explanation:

Article 14 of the Indian Constitution states that “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.”
This article guarantees that every individual shall be treated equally before the law and that similar laws apply to all individuals equally.

128. Article 45 (concerning child education) was modified by which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?

A. 44th Amendment

B. 73rd Amendment

C. 86th Amendment

D. 42th Amendment

Solutions

The Correct Answer is: (c) 86th Amendment

Explanation:
Article 45 of the Indian Constitution, which originally mandated free and compulsory education for children up to the age of 14 years, was modified by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.

129. Which of the following Fundamental Rights entails trafficking of human beings and forced labour?

A. Rights Against Exploitation

B. Cultural and Educational Rights

C. Right to Equality

D. Right to Freedom

Solutions

The correct answer is (A) Rights Against Exploitation.

Explanation:

The Right Against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution. It prohibits human trafficking, begar (forced labour), and employment of children in hazardous industries.

Article 23: Prohibits human trafficking, begar (forced labour), and other forms of forced labour. The State is authorized to enact laws to punish violators.
Article 24: Prohibits child labour in any hazardous industry, restricting the employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, and other dangerous occupations.

130. Which Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the provision of Attorney General of India?

A. Article 76

B. Article 56

C. Article 66

D. Article 46

Solutions

The correct answer is (a) Article 76.

Explanation:

Article 76 of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions related to the Attorney General of India.
The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and represents the government in legal matters, including before the Supreme Court of India.
The Attorney General is appointed by the President of India and must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.

131. Who became the emperor of Delhi in 1414 AD?

A. Razia Sultana

B. Khizr Khan

C. Ala-ud-din Khilji

D. Bahlul Khan

Solutions

The correct answer is (b) Khizr Khan.

Explanation:

Khizr Khan became the emperor of Delhi in 1414 AD. He was the founder of the Sayyid Dynasty and was appointed as the Sultan of Delhi by the Timurid ruler Timur after his invasion of India.

Khizr Khan was the governor of the Delhi Sultanate under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty before he declared himself Sultan in 1414 AD, marking the beginning of the Sayyid dynasty’s rule.

132. Who among the following Portuguese travelers visited the Vijayanagar empire during the reign of Krishnadevaraya?

A. Domingo Paes

B. Nicolo de Conti

C. Ludovico de Varthema

D. Athanasius Nikitin

Solutions

The Correct Answer: A) Domingo Paes
Explanation:

Domingo Paes, a Portuguese traveler, visited the Vijayanagar empire during the reign of Krishnadevaraya.

He came to the empire in the early 16th century and left detailed accounts of the grandeur of the empire and its capital, Hampi.

Paes described the administration, social life, culture, and military system of the empire in his writings.

133. Who was responsible for District administration in the Maurya empire?

A. Pradeshika

B. Yukta

C. Koshadhyaksha

D. Purohit

Solutions

The Correct Answer is: (a) Pradeshika

Explanation:
In the Maurya Empire, the officer responsible for district administration was the Pradeshika. The Pradeshika was tasked with overseeing the administration of a province or region, ensuring the smooth functioning of governance, including revenue collection, law and order, and overall administration within that territory.

134. Who was the first political personality to discuss the concept of ‘Poverty Line’?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Rajendra Prasad

C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

D. Dadabhai Naoroji

Solutions

The correct answer is: (d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation:

Dadabhai Naoroji was the first person to formally introduce the concept of a “Poverty Line” in India.
In his book “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India” (1901), he attempted to calculate the average income of Indians and used this to estimate the poverty line.
He calculated that the per capita income in India was around ₹20 annually and proposed a subsistence-level poverty line of ₹16 to ₹35 annually.
This was the first documented economic attempt to define and measure poverty in colonial India.

135. The ‘Mangla’ oil field is located in which district of Rajasthan?

A. Kota

B. Jaipur

C. Bharatpur

D. Barmer

Solutions

The correct answer is (d) Barmer.

Explanation:

The Mangla oil field is one of the largest onshore oil fields in India, located in the Barmer district of Rajasthan. It is part of the Rajasthan Block RJ-ON-90/1, which includes other major oil fields like Bhagyam and Aishwariya.

This oil field was discovered by Cairn India (now Vedanta Limited) in 2004 and has significantly contributed to India’s crude oil production.

136. The southern branch of which of the following jet streams (high winds) plays an important role in the winter season in north and northwestern India?

A. Tropical Easterly Jet Stream

B. African Easterly Jet

C. Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream

D. Polar-Night Jet Stream

Solutions

The Correct Answer is: (C) Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream

Explanation:

The Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream (SWJ) plays a crucial role in influencing the winter season in north and northwestern India. During winter, this high-altitude wind system moves from west to east at a speed of around 100–300 km/h.

It brings Western Disturbances, which are responsible for rainfall in northern India and snowfall in the Himalayas.

137. The Tunga and Bhadra are tributaries of which river?

A. Narmada

B. Tapi

C. Krishna

D. Godavari

Solutions

The Correct Answer: C) Krishna
Explanation:

The Tunga and Bhadra are tributaries of the Krishna River. These rivers originate in the Western Ghats and flow through Karnataka before joining the Krishna River.

The Krishna River is one of the major rivers of India and plays a significant role in agriculture and water supply to the regions it flows through.

138. In which of the following regions is the Karakoram Range located?

A. North-eastern India

B. Eastern India

C. Northern India

D. Southern India

Solutions

The Correct Answer is: (c) Northern India

Explanation (Short):

The Karakoram Range is located in the northern part of India, primarily in the regions of Ladakh and Jammu & Kashmir. It extends into Pakistan and China as well. The Karakoram Range is home to some of the world’s highest peaks, including K2, the second-highest mountain in the world.

This mountain range forms a natural boundary between India, Pakistan, and China and is part of the larger Himalayan mountain system.

139. What is the goal of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?

A. Provide rural infrastructure.

B. Eliminate farming as a livelihood.

C. Ensure at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year.

D. Promote urbanisation in rural area.

Solutions

The correct answer is:(C) Ensure at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year

Explanation:
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), passed in 2005, aims to provide at least 100 days of wage employment to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

The goal of the Act is to improve the standard of living in rural areas, reduce poverty, and create sustainable employment opportunities. By providing guaranteed employment, the Act helps in economic development, especially in backward areas.

140. Which of the following scientists is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India?

A. MS Swaminathan

B. Vikram Sarabhai

C. Homi Bhabha

D. CV Raman

Solutions

The correct answer is: (A)MS Swaminathan

Explanation:
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is widely known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India. He played a pivotal role in introducing high-yielding varieties of seeds, modern agricultural techniques, and the use of chemical fertilizers and irrigation systems,

which greatly increased food production in India during the 1960s and 1970s. His work contributed significantly to India achieving food security and becoming self-sufficient in food production.

141. What distinguishes a bank from other financial institutions?

A. Accepting deposits

B. Accepting loans and borrowings

C. Lending

D. Providing long-term loans

Solutions

The correct answer is:(a) Accepting deposits

Explanation:

The primary feature that distinguishes a bank from other financial institutions is its ability to accept public deposits. Banks can accept demand and time deposits,

which other financial institutions like insurance companies or mutual funds cannot do.

142. Which of the following organisms can initiate ecological succession even in bare rocks?

A. Orchids

B. Lichens

C. Aspergillus

D. Lily

Solutions

The Correct Answer is: (b) Lichens

Explanation:
Lichens are capable of growing on bare rocks, making them the first organisms to colonize such areas. They can secrete acids that break down the rock,

gradually creating soil, which then supports further plant growth. Lichens are considered pioneer species that help initiate the process of primary ecological succession.

143. What is the IUCN status of the Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica)?

A. Vulnerable

B. Endangered

C. Critically Endangered

D. Near Threatened

Solutions

The correct answer is (a) Vulnerable.

The Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica) is now classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. This change from its previous “Endangered” status reflects positive trends in conservation efforts, particularly in Gir Forest in Gujarat, India, where the majority of the population resides.
Although the population has shown improvement, Asiatic lions are still facing threats such as habitat loss, human-wildlife conflict, and poaching.

144. Which state introduced a geo-tagged unique ID system for all infrastructure projects to improve transparency and monitoring?

A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Karnataka

D. Tamil Nadu

Solutions

The correct answer is (a) Maharashtra

The Maharashtra government has introduced a geo-tagged 13-digit unique identifier system to track infrastructure projects across the state efficiently.
This system will serve as the primary reference once administrative approval is granted and will enable real-time monitoring, prevent duplication, and enhance inter-departmental coordination.
The initiative, part of the state’s broader digital governance efforts, aims to register all infrastructure projects sanctioned in the last five years by March 2026.

145. Which of the following is the largest producer of nectarines in the world in 2025?

A. United States

B. Spain

C. China

D. Italy

Solutions

The correct answer is (c) China

China is the largest producer of nectarines in the world, expected to grow over 2 million metric tons in 2025.
This large production is due to China’s vast farming areas and high demand for nectarines, both domestically and internationally.
China accounts for more than half of the world’s nectarine and peach production, with around 16,800 kilotonnes produced.
The country has been increasing its nectarine farming, making it the global leader in this fruit’s production.

146. Which company was granted the GMPCS licence to launch satellite internet services in India in 2025?

A. OneWeb

B. Starlink

C. Amazon’s Project Kuiper

D. SpaceX

Solutions

The correct answer is (b) Starlink

Starlink, the satellite internet venture by Elon Musk’s SpaceX, was granted the GMPCS (Global Mobile Personal Communication by Satellite) licence by India’s Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
This approval allows Starlink to offer satellite broadband services across India, becoming the third company in the Indian satellite internet market.
OneWeb and Reliance Jio’s Satellite Communications are the two other licensed satellite communication service providers in India.
Starlink is set to receive trial spectrum within 15–20 days to demonstrate technical and security compliance before launching its services.

147. What is the target number of trees to be planted under the ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0’ campaign launched by PM Modi on World Environment Day 2025?

A. 1 crore

B. 5 crore

C. 10 crore

D. 20 crore

Solutions

The correct answer is (c) 10 crore

On June 5, 2025, PM Modi launched the second phase of ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’ campaign.

The target is to plant 10 crore trees across India between June 5 and September 30, 2025.

The campaign ties environmental sustainability to emotional and cultural values, urging citizens to plant a tree in honor of their mothers.

148. Which country is ranked the cleanest in the world in the Environmental Performance Index (EPI) 2025?

A. Finland

B. Germany

C. Estonia

D. Luxembourg

Solutions

The correct answer (c) Estonia

Estonia tops the EPI 2025 rankings, making it the cleanest country globally.
It is a Baltic country known for its:
- Dense forests
- Clean lakes
- Fresh air
Estonia maintains very low pollution levels and has strong environmental protection laws.
It invests in nature conservation and eco-friendly infrastructure, helping it rank No. 1.

149. Against which team will India begin its campaign in the 2025 Women’s Asia Cup Hockey Tournament?

A. Japan

B. Singapore

C. China

D. Thailand

Solutions

The correct answer is (d) Thailand

India will open its Asia Cup 2025 campaign on September 5 against Thailand at the Gongshu Canal Sports Park in Hangzhou, China.
This match is part of the Pool B round-robin stage.
India’s Pool B also includes Japan (defending champions) and Singapore.
The Asia Cup serves as a qualifier for the 2026 Women’s FIH Hockey World Cup.

150. Who became the first Indian batter to smash 300 sixes in IPL 2025?

A. Virat Kohli

B. Rohit Sharma

C. Suresh Raina

D. KL Rahul

Solutions

The correct answer is (b) Rohit Sharma.

Rohit Sharma became the first Indian batter to smash 300 sixes in the IPL during the 2025 season.
This milestone showcases his consistent power-hitting ability throughout his IPL career.
As captain and top-order batsman of Mumbai Indians, Rohit has been instrumental in many match-winning innings.
His ability to clear the boundary, especially in the death overs, helped him achieve this record.
Rohit’s combination of timing, strength, and experience has made him a prolific six-hitter in the league.

General Intelligence & Reasoning

151. Directions: In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the given statement very carefully and decide which conclusion definitely follows the given statement.

Statements: K = J > L ≥ W < R < N ≤ Z

Conclusions:

I. K > W

II. Z > L

A. Only conclusion I is true.

B. Only conclusion II is true.

C. Either conclusion I or II is true.

D. Neither conclusion I or II is true.

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Only Conclusion I follows.

Given statement: K = J > L ≥ W < R < N ≤ Z

Conclusions:

I. K > W: True (K = J > L ≥ W → K > L)

II. Z > L: False (Z ≥ N > R > W ≤ L, as no definite relationship between the two can be determined).

Hence, the correct answer is Only Conclusion I follows.

152. If the given words are arranged in reverse dictionary order, then which word would come at the second?

1) Practice

2) Preached

3) Pillar

4) Portrait

5) Premier

A. Pillar

B. Portrait

C. Premier

D. Preached

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Preached.

The reverse dictionary order for the given words is:

5) Premier

2) Preached

1) Practice

4) Portrait

3) Pillar

Hence, Preached is the correct answer.

153. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1. Accident

2. Ambulance

3. Rash Driving

4. Injury

5. Hospital

6. Treatment

A. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6

B. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6

C. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6

D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. “3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6”

The sequence followed at the time of the accident is being talked about.

The sequence is as follows:

Rash driving – Accident – Injury – Ambulance – Hospital – Treatment

Hence the correct answer is “3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6”.

154. In a certain language, KITE is coded as QHHD, then how POKE will be coded in the same language?

A. LNQH

B. LNQD

C. LNQB

D. NAQ

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. LNQD.

Logic: Vowel – 1; Consonant = opposite + 1

KITE = QHHD

K ⇔ P + 1 = Q

I – 1 = H

T ⇔ G + 1 = H

E – 1 = D

Similarly,

POKE =

P ⇔ K + 1 = L

O – 1 = N

K ⇔ P + 1 = Q

E – 1 = D

Hence, the correct answer is LNQD.

155. In a certain code, MAGIC is written as 120, and TABLES is written as 121. How will TOMATO be written as?

A. 77

B. 96

C. 89

D. 69

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 96

Logic: (Sum of opposite positional value of letters) + 18

MAGIC = 120

=M ⇔ N, A ⇔ Z, G ⇔ T, I ⇔ R, C ⇔ X

= (14 + 26 + 20 + 18 + 24) + 18 = 120

TABLES = 121

= T ⇔ G, A ⇔ Z, B ⇔ Y, L ⇔ O, E ⇔ V, S ⇔ H

= (7 + 26 + 25 + 15 + 22 + 8) + 18 = 121

Similarly, TOMATO = 96

= T ⇔ G, O ⇔ L, M ⇔ N, A ⇔ Z, T ⇔ G, O ⇔ L

= (7 + 12 + 14 + 26 + 7 + 12) + 18 = 96

156. Pravesh starts walking towards north from his house, and after walking 7 km he reaches the hostel. Now he takes a right turn and walks 12 km and reaches the Mart then, he takes a right turn again and reaches the cafe after covering a distance of 7 km.

What is the shortest distance between the cafe and his house?

A. 11 km

B. 12 km

C. 7 km

D. 14 km

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 12 km.

The diagram is:

So, according to the distance diagram, the shortest distance between the cafe and his house is 12 km.

Hence, the correct answer is 12 km.

157. Amit starts moving in the west direction and walks 4 km after that he turns left and walks 5 km, then turns right and walks 8 km, and finally takes right turns and walks 4km and reaches point D. In which direction is he facing now?

A. East

B. West

C. South

D. North

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. North.

According to the question, the diagram would be:

So, he is facing north direction.

Hence, the correct answer is North.

158. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Shwetank (male) said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.” How is Shwetank related to that boy?

A. Uncle

B. Brother

C. Father

D. Cousin

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Father.

The boy in the photograph is the son of only son of Shwetank’s mother i.e., The son of Shwetank (Shwetak is the only son of his mother).

Hence, Shwetank is the father of the boy.

Hence, Father is the correct answer.

159.Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

If ‘A % B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’

If ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’

If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’

If ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’

In ‘A # S @ T + C % G # K, how is S related to K, if K is female?

A. Father

B. Aunt

C. Grandmother

D. Grandfather

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Grandfather.

Hence, the correct answer is Grandfather.

160. Directions: In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II, and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some Wifi are Router.

No Router are Internet.

All Wifi are Hub.

Conclusions:

I. Some Hub are Router.

II. Some Internet are Wifi.

III. Some Hub are Internet is a possibility.

A. All follow

B. Only II and III follow

C. Only I and III follow

D. Only I and II follow

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Only I and III follow.

The possible diagram from the above diagram-

Conclusions:

I. Some Hub are Router – True – some wifi is router and all wifi is hub, so some hub is definitely router.

II. Some Internet are Wifi – False – no direct relation between internet and wifi.

III. Some Hub are Internet is a possibility –True – no direct relation between internet and hub, so in case of possibility it is true.

Hence, the correct answer is Only I and III follow.

161. Direction: In the following question, three statements are given below followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and decide which of the given conclusion (s) logically follow (s) from the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some J is K

II. Some K is L

III. Some L is M

Conclusions:

I. Some J is L

II. Some K is M

III. All M is J

A. Both conclusions II and III follow

B. Both conclusions I and III follow

C. All conclusions I, II and III follow

D. None of the conclusions follow

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. None of the conclusions follow

The possible Venn diagram is as follows:

For conclusions:

I. Some J is L → False (As there is no direct relationship between J and L is given so some J is L is false).

II. Some K is M → False (As there is no direct relationship between K and M is given so some K is M is false).

III. All M is J → False (As there is no direct relationship between M and J is given so all M is J is false)

Hence, the correct answer is None of the conclusions follow.

162. Directions: In the following question, four statements and three conclusions are given. Considering all the statements to be true, decide the conclusions which logically follow. Study the data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Statements:

All books are open.

Only a few pencil is open.

Some slow is book.

No cycle is slow.

Conclusions:

I. Some cycle being pencil is a possibility.

II. Some open is cycle.

III. Some slow is pencil.

A. Only I follows

B. Both I and III follow

C. Both II and III follow

D. All of them follow

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Only I follows

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some cycle being pencil is a possibility: True (The possibility is true as no negative relationship between the two elements is given)

II. Some open is cycle: False (It is possible but not definite as there is no direct relationship given between the two)

III. Some slow is pencil: False (It is possible but not definite as there is no direct relationship given between the two)

Hence, the correct answer is Only I follows.

163. Directions: In the question given below three statements followed by conclusions which is numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:

I. Some hotels are Rooms.

II. All Rooms are Resorts.

III. No Resort is Spa.

Conclusions:

I. No Resort is a Hotel.

II. Some Resorts are Hotels.

III. Some Rooms are not Spa.

IV. Some hotels being Spas is a possibility.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusions II, III and IV follow

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Only conclusions II, III, and IV follow.

We get the following Venn diagram from the given statements

Conclusions:

I. No Resort is a Hotel – False (Some Hotels are Room and all Room are Resorts so some Resorts are Hotels therefore, no Resort is Hotel is definitely false).

II. Some Resorts are Hotels – True (Some Hotels are Rooms and all Rooms are resorts so, some Resorts are Hotels).

III. Some Room is not Spa – True (As all Rooms are part of the Resort and No Resort is part of the Spa, so definitely some room will also not be spa).

IV. Some Hotels being Spa is a possibility – True (Some Hotels which is part of Resort is not Spa, but some Hotels which is not a part of Resort can be Spa, therefore, in possibility case Some Hotels can be Spa).

Hence, the correct answer is Only conclusions II, III and IV follow.

164. In a row of 59 students, Harpreet sits 24th from the right end of the row. If Harpreet shifted 6 places towards left then, what is his new position from the left end?

A. 32nd

B. 29th

C. 31st

D. 30^th

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 30th.

If Harpreet shifted 6 places towards the left then Harpreet’s position is 30th from the right end.

The number of persons sitting to the left of Harpreet is: 59 – 30 = 29

Therefore, Harpreet’s new position from the left end is 29 + 1 = 30th.

Hence, the correct answer is 30th.

165. Directions: Read the information carefully and answer the question.

Eight friends (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H) are sitting on a bench (not in the same order) but some of them are facing north and some south. Only 3 people facing south. G facing north and sit on the end. H is an immediate neighbor of G but faces the opposite. C and D sit in the middle and face in the same direction. Only 2 people sit between A and F. A and F are facing north. H sits between F and G. B is immediately left of A. F sits to the immediate left of D. E sits second left of A.

How many people sit between E and D?

A. 7

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 3

1. Only 3 people facing south. G facing north and sit on the end.

2. H is an immediate neighbour of G but faces the opposite.

3. C and D sit in the middle and face in the same direction.

4. Only 2 people sit between A and F. A and F are facing north.

5. H sits between F and G. B is immediately left of A.

6. F sits to the immediate left of D. E sits second left of A.

Cleary, 3 people sit between E and D.

Hence, the correct answer is 3.

166. Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting in a straight row. All of them are facing north but not necessarily in the same order.

A sits second to the right of B. H sits second to the right of A. H does not sit at any end of the row. C sits third to the left of G. C is an immediate neighbor of both A and H. D sits second to the right of F, who sits at an end.

If F is related to D and A is related to H then C is related to whom?

A. G

B. H

C. C

D. E

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. E.

1) A sits second to the right of B.

2) H sits second to the right of A.

3) C is an immediate neighbour of both A and H.

4) C sits third to the left of G.

5) H does not sit at an end of the row.

6) D sits second to the right of F, who sits at an end.

If F is related to D and A is related to H then clearly C is related to E.

Hence, the correct answer is E.

167. Find the odd one out.

A. VLA

B. UJB

C. RBG

D. LCG

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. LCG.

VLA → (22 – 12) = 10 → 1 + 0 = 1 = A

UJB → (21 – 10) = 11 → 1 + 1 = 2 = B

RBG → (18 – 2) = 16 → 1 + 6 = 7 = G

LCG → (12 – 3) = 9 → I ≠ G

So, LCG is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is LCG.

168. Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different.

A. 18-27

B. 24-50

C. 78-93

D. 82-92

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 24-50

Logic : 1st number + (Sum of Digits of the first number) = 2nd number

1. 18-27: 18 + (1 + 8) = 18 + 9 = 27

2. 24-50: 24 + (2 + 4) = 24 + 6 = 30

3. 78-93: 78 + (7 + 8) = 78 + 15 = 93

4. 82-92: 82 + (8 + 2) = 82 + 10 = 92

Hence, the correct answer is 24-50.

169. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

9, 12, 29, 32, 69, 72, ___

A. 154

B. 149

C. 75

D. 147

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 149.

The logic followed here is:

9 × 1 + 3 = 9 + 3 = 12

12 × 2 + 5 = 24 + 5 = 29

29 × 1 + 3 = 29 + 3 = 32

32 × 2 + 5 = 64 + 5 = 69

69 × 1 + 3 = 69 + 3 = 72

72 × 2 + 5 = 144 + 5 = 149

‘149’ will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 149.

170. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

245, 208, 171, 134, 97, ?

A. 50

B. 55

C. 60

D. 70

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 60

The logic in the series is:

245, 208, 171, 134, 97, ?

245 – 37 = 208

208 – 37 = 171

171 – 37 = 134

134 – 37 = 97

97 – 37 = 60

Hence, 60 is the correct answer.

171. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

26, 38, 53, 71, 92, ?

A. 121

B. 116

C. 108

D. 118

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 116

Given series: 26, 38, 53, 71, 92, ?

172. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

22, 24, 20, 27, 16, 32, 10, ___

A. -19

B. 39

C. 32

D. 29

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 39.

The logic followed here is:

22 + 2 = 24

24 – 4 = 20 (2 + 2 = 4)

20 + 7 = 27 (4 + 3 = 7)

27 – 11 = 16 (7 + 4 = 11)

16 + 16 = 32 (11 + 5 = 16)

32 – 22 = 10 (16 + 6 = 22)

10 + 29 = 39 (22 + 7 = 29)

The complete series is:

22, 24, 20, 27, 16, 32, 10, 39

’39’ will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is 39.

173. Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

6, 9, 14, 21, 32, ?

A. 44

B. 45

C. 46

D. 48

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 45.

Given series: 6, 9, 14, 21, 32, ?

Logic: Adding the prime numbers

The series follows this pattern:

6 + 3 = 9

9 + 5 = 14

14 + 7= 21

21 + 11 = 32

32 + 13 = 45

So, the next term in the series is 45.

Hence, the correct answer is 45.

174. Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

AVTE, CTRG, ERPI, GPNK,?

A. INLM

B. MINL

C. ILNM

D. INJM

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. INLM.

A + 2 = C, C + 2 = E, E + 2 = G, G + 2 = I

V – 2 = T, T – 2 = R, R – 2 = P, P – 2 = N

T – 2 = R, R – 2 = P, P – 2 = N, N – 2 = L

E + 2 = G, G + 2 = I, I + 2 = K, K + 2 = M

Hence, the correct answer is INLM.

175. Which letter cluster will complete the given series?

HOWD, GMVF, FKUH, EITJ, DGSL, ______

A. CERL

B. CERN

C. CDRL

D. EERN

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. CERN

The pattern followed here is:

The 1^st letter of each letter cluster, H – 1 = G, G – 1 = F, F – 1 = E, E – 1 = D, D – 1 = C

The 2^nd letter of each letter cluster, O – 2 = M, M – 2 = K, K – 2 = I, I – 2 = G, G – 2 = E

The 3^rd letter of each letter cluster, W – 1 = V, V – 1 = U, U – 1 = T, T – 1 = S, S – 1 = R

The 4^th letter of each letter cluster, D + 2 = F, F + 2 = H, H + 2 = J, J + 2 = L, L + 2 = N

So, ‘CERN’ will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is CERN.

176. Choose the correct image to complete the following series?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e. B.

The logic which follows here is:

The square and triangle are interchanging their position with each other.

The shaded arrows are decreasing by 1 in each image from the right side.

The letters given in the lower right corner are vowels, which are written in reverse order.

Hence, the correct answer is B.

177. Select the next figure from the given options.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 4

Logic: Each phase involves a 90^o clockwise direction rotation of the huge “T”-shaped member. The two little symbols switch places, and the one that reaches the top is replaced with a new one.

So, in this way option 4 is correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

178. Complete the given series.

FIT, GHU, HIT, ?

A. GJK

B. IYT

C. IHU

D. GIU

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. IHU.

Logic- Consonants are replaced with the next letter .

Vowels are replaced with the previous letter

So, In HIT – H is replaced with the next letter I,

then I replaces it with the previous letter H,

and T is replaced with the next letter U.

Hence, the correct answer is IHU.

179. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

l_ppm_l_pp_l

A. mpkl

B. mlmm

C. llmm

D. plmp

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. mlmm.

Logic: In groups of 3, the term ‘lmp’ is alternately repeated in this order and reverse order (i.e. pml)

So, the correct sequence is: lmp / pml / lmp / pml

Hence, the correct answer is mlmm.

180. Choose the correct option in which the fourth element is related to the third element in the same way as the second element is related to the first element.

Rabbit : Hutch :: Lion : ?

A. Safari

B. Stable

C. Cote

D. Den

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Den

As Rabbit lives in a Hutch.

Similarly, Lion lives in a den.

Hence, the correct answer is Den.

181. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Northern Command : Udhampur :: Central Command :: ?

A. Lucknow

B. Jaipur

C. Shimla

D. Pune

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Lucknow.

The logic used here is: the Indian Armed Forces and their headquarters.

Northern Command headquarters is in Udhampur.

Similarly,

Central Command headquarters is in Lucknow.

Hence, the correct answer is Lucknow.

182. Find the number that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first and fourth number is related to the third.

74 : 599 :: 36 : 181 :: 43 : ?

A. 312

B. 258

C. 287

D. 341

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 258

74 : 599

⇒ (74 × 11) – 215

⇒ 814 – 215 = 599

36 : 181

⇒ (36 × 11) – 215

⇒ 396 – 215 = 181

Similarly, 43 : ?

⇒ (43 × 11) – 215

⇒ 473 – 215 = 258

183. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

9 : 738 :: 10 : ? :: 11 : 1342

A. 1025

B. 1010

C. 1008

D. 1012

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 1010

9 : 738 :: 10 : ? :: 11 : 1342

9 = 9³ = 729 + 9 = 738

11 = 11³ = 1331 + 11 = 1342

Similarly,

10 = 10³ = 1000 + 10 = 1010

Hence, the correct answer is 1010.

184. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the following sets.

12 : 36 :: 16 : 44 :: 18 : ?

A. 48

B. 63

C. 45

D. 82

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. 48

Logic: The following logic is used

(12 : 36)

= 12 + 6 = 18 × 2 = 36

(16 : 44)

= 16 + 6 = 22 × 2 = 44

Similarly,

18 : ?

= 18 + 6 = 24 × 2 = 48

Hence, the correct answer is 48.

185. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

22 : 748 :: 13 : ? :: 25 : 925

A. 328

B. 230

C. 430

D. 325

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 325.

22 : 748

22 × (22 + 12) = 22 × 34 = 748

25 : 925

25 × (25 + 12) = 25 × 37 = 925

Similarly,

13 : ?

13 × (13 + 12) = 13 × 25 = 325

Hence, 325 is the correct answer.

186. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/ subtracting/ multiplying, etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed

[18, 100, 32]

[23, 132, 43]

A. (29, 91, 17)

B. (49, 152, 26)

C. (38, 168, 46)

D. (17, 101, 35)

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. (38, 168, 46).

The pattern followed here is: Two times the sum of the 1^st and 3^rd number is the 2^nd number.

In (18, 100, 32),

1^st number = 18, 3^rdnumber = 32, 2^ndnumber = {2 × (18 + 32)} = 100

In (23, 132, 43),

1^st number = 23, 3^rdnumber = 43, 2^nd number = {2 × (23 + 43)} = 132

In option ‘c’: (38, 168, 46)

1^st number = 38, 3^rdnumber = 46, 2^nd number = {2 × (38 + 46)} = 168

Hence, (38, 168, 46) is the correct answer.

187. Which of the following pairs is similar to the pair given below?

(3, 14, 69)

(6, 29, 144)

A. (7, 34, 169)

B. (3, 17, 290)

C. (8, 39, 120)

D. (5, 24, 121)

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. (7, 34, 169).

Given pair: (6, 29, 144) → 6 × 5 = 30 – 1 = 29, 29 × 5 = 145 – 1 = 144

a) (7, 34, 169) → 7 × 5 – 1 = 34, 34 × 5 – 1 = 169 = 169

b) (3, 17, 290) → 3 × 5 – 1 = 14 ≠ 17 (No need to solve further)

c) (8, 39, 196) → 8 × 5 – 1 = 39, 39 × 5 – 1 = 194 ≠ 196

d) (5, 24, 121) → 5 × 5 – 1 = 24, 24 × 5 – 1 = 119 ≠ 121

Hence, the correct answer is (7, 34, 169).

188. From the given Answer Figures select the one in which the Question Figure is hidden/embedded. (Rotation not allowed)

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3

On close observation, we find that the question figure is embedded in option 3 as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is 3.

189. Select the figure in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed)

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e.

The embedded figure in the given figure is –

Hence, the correct answer is 1.

190. Select the figure in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed)

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. IV

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. III.

The given figure is embedded in figure c.

Hence, the correct answer is III.

191. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to draw the following figure.

A. 4

B. 9

C. 8

D. 7

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 9

Horizontal lines = DF and BC = 2

Vertical lines = DG, AH, and FI = 3

Slanting lines = AB, AC, BF, and DC = 4

Total = 9

Hence, the correct answer is 9.

192. The sequence of folding a piece of square paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

Solutions

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. .

When the paper is unfolded it will appear as:

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

193. Three positions of the same dice are shown. Find the element on the face opposite the face showing ‘$’.

A. 1

B. %

C. @

D. #

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. %

On comparing dice 1 and dice 2 we got 1 and @ are common faces on both dice so the remaining faces are opposite to each other.

So, % is opposite to $.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

194. If ‘+’ means ‘-‘, ‘-‘ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will be the value of the following expression?

30 – 6 + 20 × 10 ÷ 10 = ?

A. 185

B. 188

C. 192

D. 200

Solutions

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 188.

Given equation: 30 – 6 + 20 × 10 ÷ 10 = ?

After replacing the signs, we get

30 × 6 – (20 ÷ 10) + 10

= 180 – 2 + 10

= 190 – 2

= 188

Hence, the correct answer is 188.

195. If ‘+’ means ‘-‘, ‘-‘ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will be the value of the following expression?

156 × 12 ÷ 5 – 8 + 12 = ?

A. 35

B. 38

C. 41

D. 45

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. 41

As per the question

156 × 12 ÷ 5 – 8 + 12 = ?

156 ÷ 12 + 5 × 8 – 12

= 13 + 40 – 12

= 53 – 12

= 41

Hence, the correct answer is 41.

196. If P means ‘+’, Q means ‘-‘, R means ‘×’ and S means ‘÷’, then the value of the following expression?

40 S 4 R 2 P 19 Q 26

A. 21

B. 16

C. 23

D. 13

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 13

Given the equation: 40 S 4 R 2 P 19 Q 26

After the interchange of signs: (Using BODMAS)

= (40 ÷ 4) × 2 + 19 – 26

= (10 × 2) + 19 – 26

= (20 + 19) – 26

= 13

Hence, the correct answer is 13.

197. If ‘#’ means ‘-‘, ‘@’ means ‘+’, ‘%’ means ‘×’, and ‘&’ means ‘÷’, then what is the value of given equation?

112 @ 43 # (12 % 6 @ 36) & 6 # 116 = ?

A. 11

B. 34

C. 19

D. 21

Solutions

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 21.

Given equation: 112 @ 43 # (12 % 6 @ 36) & 6 # 116 = ?

After replacing symbols, we get

112 + 43 – (12 × 6 + 36) ÷ 6 – 116

= 112 + 43 – (72 + 36) ÷ 6 – 116

= 112 + 43 – (108) ÷ 6 – 116

= 112 + 43 – 18 – 116

= 155 – 134

= 21

So, the value of the given equation is ’21’.

Hence, the correct answer is 21.

198. If “%” represents “-“, “@” represents “+”, “$” represents “×” and “>” represents “÷”, then which of the following equations is true?

A. 72 > 15 $ 10 % 13 = 32

B. 80 % 65 > 13 $ 14 = 15

C. 260 % 12 $ 78 > 4 = 34

D. 96 > 12 $ 9 % 36 = 36

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. 96 > 12 $ 9 % 36 = 36.

On replacing the symbols with the signs they denote and then solving according to BODMAS, we get-

1) 72 ÷ 15 × 10 – 13 = 35 not 32

2) 80 – 65 ÷ 13 × 14 = 10 not 15

3) 260 – 12 × 78 ÷ 4 = 26 not 34

4) 96 ÷ 12 × 9 – 36 = 36

= 8 × 9 – 36

= 72 – 36 = 36

Hence, the correct answer is 96 > 12 $ 9 % 36 = 36.

199. In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘-‘, ‘-‘ represents ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘+’. Find out the answer of the following question.

20 ÷ 8 – 10 × 5 + 20

A. 66

B. 16

C. 34

D. 46

Solutions

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. 16

As per the question

20 ÷ 8 – 10 × 5 + 20 can be decoded as

20 + 8 × 10 ÷ 5 – 20

= 20 + 16 – 20

= 36 – 20

= 16

Hence, the correct answer is 16.

200. It was Sunday on 9th April 2021. What is the day of the week 18th August 2021?

A. Sunday

B. Monday

C. Friday

D. Saturday

Solutions

The correct answer is option 3 i.e.Friday.

9th April 2021 is Sunday.

After 9th April to 18th August ⇒ 21 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 18 = 131 days

Therefore, 131 ÷ 7 = 5 is the remainder

So, Sunday + 5 days = Friday

Hence, the correct answer is Friday.

SSC Stenographer Grade C & D 2025 Mock Test – 3

Dailymocktest.com

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